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Patient Care Final Exam > Unit 3 > Flashcards

Unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are some examples of Therapeutic effects?

Hives, asthma attach, bronchospasm
Pain relief, blood pressure control, reduced inflammation
Respiratory depression, kidney failure
All of the above

A

Pain relief, blood pressure control, reduced inflammation

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2
Q

What is a side effect?

Characteristic response to an allergen
Poisonous, potentially lethal
Predictable action or effect of a drug other than that desired
Chemical or physiological drug interaction

A

Predictable action or effect of a drug other than that desired

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3
Q

What is the cause of an allergic response?

Inadequate excretion, impaired metabolism, overdose, or drug sensitivity

Hives, asthma attack, bronchospasm

Respiratory depression, kidney failure

Prior sensitization to an initial dose of the medication or one of its components

A

Prior sensitization to an initial dose of the medication or one of its components

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4
Q

A drug that promotes the desired result is referred to as a(n)__________.

Agonist
Antagonist
Absorption
Potency

A

Agonist

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5
Q

An example of an antihistamine is __________.

  1. Diphenhydramine
  2. Ace inhibitors
  3. Benadryl
  4. 1 and 3 only
A

1 and 3 only

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6
Q

Bronchodilators are commonly used by patients with a history of _________.

Asthma attacks
Cardiac issues
Epistaxis
Myocardial Infarction

A

Asthma attacks

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7
Q

A common side effect of Opioids is _______.

Dizziness
Headaches
Repiratory depression
Hypertension with pallor

A

Repiratory depression

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8
Q

True or False

Patients receiving opioids or other medication that depresses the CNS must be carefully monitored for respiratory depression.

A

True

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9
Q

A common medication that is classed as both a tranquilizer and an anticonvulsant is:

Diphenhydramine
Diazepam
Anectine
Lorazepam

A

Lorazepam

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10
Q

A common side effect of Anticholinergics is ______.

Seizures
Epistaxis
Dry mouth
Syncope

A

Dry mouth

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11
Q

The drug that treats a toxic effect is called an

antidote
agonist
anticholinergic
analgesic

A

antidote

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12
Q

Which of the following medications is a corticosteroid drug that acts as an anti-inflammatory agent, preventing or reducing edema of the tracheobronchial tree and minimizing the possibility of respiratory arrest during allergic reactions?

Diazepam (Valium)
Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
Meperidine (Demerol)
Midazolam (Versed)

A

Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)

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13
Q

With respect to a medication, the term potent means

poisonous
outdated
powerful
ineffective

A

powerful

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14
Q

The effects of central nervous system depressants may be monitored by

pulse oximeter
sphygmomanometer
external defibrillator
electroencephalograph

A

pulse oximeter

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15
Q

A medication characterized by efficacy is

toxic
harmless
effective
slow-acting

A

effective

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16
Q

Which of the following are pharmacokinetic processes of medications?

  1. Distribution
  2. Metabolism
  3. Excretion
  4. Absorption
A

All of the above

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17
Q

When a patient has an adverse response to a medication because he or she has been sensitized to a previous dose of the drug, the effect is considered to be

synergistic
toxic
idiosyncratic
allergic

A

allergic

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18
Q

True or False

Flumazenil (Romazicon) and naloxone (Narcan) are prescribed to reverse the sedation of other drugs

A

True

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19
Q

Succinylcholine chloride (Anectine) and mivacurium (Mivacron) are examples of

hypoglycemic agents
paralytic agents
local anesthetics
antagonists

A

paralytic agents

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20
Q

Which is a common antihistamine kept in the radiology department?

sublimaze
benadryl
epinephrine
fentanyl

A

benadryl

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21
Q

The treatment/radiographer response to hypoglycemia includes all of the following except:

giving the patient candy or fruit juice
help the patient sit or lie down
administering oxygen at a rate of 2 liters/minute
reporting the occurrence to the physician

A

administering oxygen at a rate of 2 liters/minute

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22
Q

Which of the following requires a physician’s order:

use of sandbags or tape
using side rails on the patient’s bed
restraints placed around the patient’s wrist
use of safety straps on the imaging table

A

restraints placed around the patient’s wrist

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23
Q

Strokes:

  1. may cause the patient’s muscles to alternate between relaxation and rigidity
  2. are also known as cerebrovascular accidents
  3. may result from a ruptured or occluded cerebral artery
A

2 and 3

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24
Q

During the exam, your patient suddenly becomes diaphoretic, short of breath, and pale. They are alert and begin to complain of nausea and state they have some discomfort in their left jaw and left arm. Your patient is most likely suffering from a/an:

  1. myocardial infarction
  2. heart attack
  3. cardiac arrest
  4. stroke
A

1 and 2

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25
Q

Your patient is suffering from an epistaxis event. What should you do?

Assist them to the table or stretcher and place them in a lateral recumbent position.

Assist them to the table or stretcher and place them in a supine position.

Ask them to take long, slow deep breaths through their nose.

Instruct them to breathe through their mouth and hold pressure on their nose

A

Instruct them to breathe through their mouth and hold pressure on their nose

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26
Q

“Npo” indicates:

patients maybe given ice chips.

None of these

patients are not permitted to eat solids, but may be given liquids.

patients are not to receive anything by mouth.

A

patients are not to receive anything by mouth.

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27
Q

The general term used to describe a failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to support the perfusion of oxygen and removal of by-products of metabolism is:

thrombus
shock
respiratory arrest
cardiac arrest

A

shock

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28
Q

After completing the femur series, you assist the patient off the table and they express the sensation of the room spinning, but do not complain of any other issues. They are most likely suffering from:

orthostatic hypertension
vertigo
transient ischemic attack
epistaxis

A

vertigo

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29
Q

Lack of effective circulation to the central nervous system can cause irreparable brain damage in

3-5 minutes
35 minutes
35 seconds
3-5 seconds

A

3-5 minutes

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30
Q

True or False

A position in which the patient is on his or her back with the head lower than the feet is termed SIMS

A

False

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31
Q

The primary use of a Pigg-O-Stat is to immobilize infants

is classified as a restraining device
is known as a papoose board
requires a physician’s order
for upright chest radiographs.

A

for upright chest radiographs.

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32
Q

Minutes after IV contrast was administered, the patient’s skin turns red and hives begin to develop. What is the most appropriate treatment for this reaction?

IV administration of an antihistamine
Elevate the patient’s feet and administer IV atropine.
No treatment is needed, the symptoms will resolve quickly
Call a Code Blue and prepare to assist with CPR

A

IV administration of an antihistamine

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33
Q

A patient arrives to the ER after a severe motor vehicle accident on a rigid backboard and in a cervical collar. Which of the following statements about this scenario is true?

Neck x-rays should be performed without the cervical collar to evaluate stability of the neck without superimposition of foreign objects.

The patient should be placed in the Fowler’s position to assist with making them more comfortable.

A CT scan of the neck is most likely to be done to evaluate for neck stability before the patient can be removed from the backboard and cervical collar.

A

A CT scan of the neck is most likely to be done to evaluate for neck stability before the patient can be removed from the backboard and cervical collar.

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34
Q

When positioning a suspected fractured extremity that is not supported by a splint, the radiographer(s):

  1. should maintain gentle traction while moving the extremity
  2. should support the extremity above and below the injury
  3. should place the extremity in a splint before obtaining images
A

1 and 2

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35
Q

Decubitus ulcers:

  1. may result when pressure is exerted to a limited area over a given amount of time.
  2. can be avoided by leaving patients in the same position for an extended amount of time if they are on a “doughnut”.
  3. may result if patients with incontinence are not kept clean and dry.
A

1 and 3

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36
Q

True or False

A position in which the patient is lying flat on his or her stomach is termed prone

A

True

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37
Q

Another term for fainting is:

epistaxis
cardiac tamponade
vertigo
syncope

A

syncope

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38
Q

Upon arrival to transport the patient to the radiology department for a 2-view forearm exam, you notice they have a urinary catheter with a drainage bag in place. How should you proceed?

Assist the patient to the wheelchair and hang the urinary bag on the IV pole above the patient’s head.

Assist the patient to the wheelchair, place the urinary bag on the designated hook on the side of the wheelchair below the patient’s bladder.

Assist the patient to the wheelchair, place the urinary bag on the floor below the patient’s bladder, and proceed to the radiology department.

A

Assist the patient to the wheelchair, place the urinary bag on the designated hook on the side of the wheelchair below the patient’s bladder.

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39
Q

The vital sign that most accurately indicates the condition of shock is the

blood pressure
pulse rate
temperature
respiratory rate

A

blood pressure

40
Q

True or False

A fracture that results in crushing of the bone into many small fragments is called a compound fracture

A

False

A comminuted fracture is a fracture that results in crushing of the bone into many small fragments.

A compound fracture is a bone fracture that is accompanied by breaks in the skin, causing the broken ends of bone to come into contact with the outside environment.

41
Q

Which modality is preferred to help rule out CVA(cerebrovascular accident aka stroke)?

Nuclear medicine
X-ray skull series
MRI
CT

A

CT

42
Q

A drug that prevents an action by another drug is termed a/an:

Antagonist
Agonist
Synergistic
Antidote

A

Antagonist

43
Q

Pharmacokinetics can be affected by:

  1. Age
  2. Physical condition
  3. Gender
A

1, 2, and 3

44
Q

True or False

There are 7 rights of medication administration

A

False

There are 5 rights of medicaton administration.
The “five rights” of medication use: the right patient, the right drug, the right time, the right dose, and the right route

45
Q

Which technique will be most comfortable for a patient suffering from abdominal pain? (Select all that apply)

A. Place a support cushion under the knees
B. Place the patient in a Trendelenburg position
C. Position the head below the feet
D. Place the patient in a fowler or semi fowler position.

A

A and D

Semi-Fowler position is a position in which the individual lies on their back on a bed with the head of the bed elevated at 30-45 degrees. In contrast, the head of the bed is elevated at 45-90 degrees in the Fowler position.

46
Q

All are risk factors of PE except:

A. COPD
B. obesity
C. recent surgery
D. smoking

A

Obesity

PE- Pulmonary Embolism is a sudden blockage in your pulmonary arteries, the blood vessels that send blood to your lungs

COPD- Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease refers to a group of diseases that cause airflow blockage and breathing-related problems.

47
Q

Medications that are introduced to the body by means of injection are _______.

Topical medications
Enteral medications
Parenteral medications
Sublingual medications

A

Parenteral medications

48
Q

When assisting a patient with a bedpan all are correct except

Close the drapes and/or doors for privacy
Wear sterile gloves and maintain a sterile field
Ask the patient to raise hips
Record the I&O in the chart

A

Wear sterile gloves and maintain a sterile field

49
Q

Severe allergic reactions must be treated by

Placing them in dorsal recumbent position, give bronchodilator

Give antihistamine orally

Administering epinephrine through IV, maintain airway and call a code

CPR and administer shock via AED

A

Administering epinephrine through IV, maintain airway and call a code

50
Q

A patient that describes that the room is spinning and reports of nausea often has:

a. Vertigo
b. Epistaxis
c. Inner ear disturbance

A

A and C

51
Q

True or False

Oral medication with an enteric coating must be crushed, or broken

A

False

Tablets with an enteric coating should never be crushed. These enteric coatings are placed around a drug to protect the drug from the acid environment, protect the stomach from the drug or deliver the drug to the site of action.

52
Q

When charting on a patient, the radiographer should

Make a written notation of the time, drug, and dosage so that accurate information will be available

Take a picture of the medication to be documented later

Email the nurse of the issue with the patient

Send the patient back without documenting anything

A

Make a written notation of the time, drug, and dosage so that accurate information will be available

53
Q

A patient was given morphine and the technologist noticed the patient’s oxygen saturation is 88%. What medication might be ordered to counteract the respiratory depression?

Naloxone (Narcan)
Fentanyl (Sublimaze)
Nitroglycerin
Epinephrine (Adrenaline)

A

Naloxone (Narcan) -p259

Narcan is designed to rapidly reverse opioid overdose. It is an opioid antagonist

54
Q

Which needle gauge is typically used for intradermal injections

18 gauge
26 gauge
20 gauge
22 gauge

A

26 gauge

55
Q

True or False

Splints should be removed by the technologist before performing an x-ray without physician’s orders

A

False

56
Q

Leakage from the vein into surrounding tissue is also known as _______.

Intravenous
Infiltration
Extrafiltration
Intrafiltration

A

Infiltration

57
Q

Lack of effective circulation to the CNS can cause irreparable brain damage in:

3 hours
35 minutes
3-5 seconds
3-5 minutes

A

3-5 minutes

58
Q

Patients who experience difficulty breathing, nausea, or abdominal pain need to be positioned in

Fowler
Trendelenburg
Lateral decubitus
Recumbent prone

A

Fowler

59
Q

NPO is

Nothing by mouth
Nothing past midnight
Nothing by ortho
Nothing before exam

A

Nothing by mouth

60
Q

The means by which a drug travels from the bloodstream to the target tissue and site of action is:

Absorption
Metabolism
Excretion
Distribution

A

Distribution

61
Q

Physical abuse in older adults may be termed

NAT
NPE
NPO
NSFW

A

NAT

62
Q

True or Flase

A nasogastric tube is an enteral route of administering medication.

A

True

63
Q

A stroke may be signaled by severe headache, dizziness, paralysis, weakness, difficulty in speaking and _________?

Changes in vision
Anaphylaxis
Extravasation
Changes in respiration

A

Changes in vision

64
Q

True or Flase

The Joint Commission requires radiographers to inform nurses of any medications administered to the patient inclusive of contrast media

A

True

65
Q

An analgesic that is not a controlled substance , has a low potential for side effects and is frequently used to alleviate discomfort is:

  1. NSAID (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory)
  2. Ibuprofen (Advil)
  3. hydrocodone (Vicodin)
A

1 and 2

66
Q

The Glasgow Coma scale _________

Can determine the severity of concussions

Is a scale to determine medicine dosage

Is a tool used by physicians to measure hemorrhage

Is a numerical scale that can be used to objectively assess changes in a patient’s LOC.

A

Is a numerical scale that can be used to objectively assess changes in a patient’s LOC.

67
Q

Urinary catheters should be placed

Below the level of the patient’s bladder
At the level of the patient’s bladder
Above the level of the bladder
At the level of the patient’s bed

A

Below the level of the patient’s bladder

68
Q

The intended effect of a drug is:

Therapeutic effect
Side effects
Allergic effects
Toxic effects

A

Therapeutic effect

69
Q

Someone with symptoms of hives, asthma attack, and/or bronchospasm is having a/an ___________.

Allergic response
Synergistic effect
Toxic response
Side effect

A

Allergic response

70
Q

The primary use of a Pigg-O-Stat is to immobilize infants for

Upright chest x-ray
Upright abdomen x-ray
Supine chest x-ray
Supine abdomen x-ray

A

Upright chest x-ray

71
Q

The Sims position is best used for

Treating nausea
Administering an enema
Alleviating ulcers
Preventing emesis

A

Administering an enema

72
Q

All are examples of nonintravenous parenteral injections except.

A. Intradermal
B. Intraoral
C. Intrathecal
D. Intraarterial

A

Intraoral

73
Q

Drugs that reduce blood pressure are called

Antihypertensives
Epinephrine
Atropine
Lidocaine (xylocaine)

A

Antihypertensives

74
Q

True or False

It is your role to be observant and to alert others when you observe signs that raise suspicions of abuse. It is also your responsibility to verify that abuse is occurring.

A

False

75
Q

Veins most often used for initiating IV lines are found in the

Femur
Axilla
Metatarsal
Anterior forearm

A

Anterior forearm

76
Q

The radiographer’s role in medication administration includes which of the following?

A. Anticipate possible adverse drug reactions
B. Recognize signs and symptoms of adverse drug reactions
C. Prepare medication for administration
D. Check patient’s allergy history
E. All of the above

A

All of the above

77
Q

True or False

Restraints are used to restrict patient movements to reduce motion during radiography exams

A

False

78
Q

Hemothorax treatment involves

AED
Thoracotomy
Chest Xray
Ileostomy

A

Thoracotomy

79
Q

Within a 1 minute of IV contrast administration, the patient says they feel warm, flush and notice a metallic taste in their mouth. What medication should the radiographer be ready to administer?

None. The symptoms should resolve quickly without treatment.
Benadryl (Diphenhydramine)
Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
Atropine

A

None. The symptoms should resolve quickly without treatment

80
Q

True or False

To convert a patient’s weight from pounds to kilograms, divide the weight in pounds by 2.2

A

True

81
Q

A patient who suddenly demonstrates diaphoresis, tremors, personality change requires the administration of

NSAIDS
Diphenhydramine
Epinephrine
Glucagon

A

Glucagon

82
Q

The most common way the body eliminates waste from medication is via the:

Kidneys
Intestines
Lungs
Exocrine system

A

Kidneys

83
Q

When epinephrine (Adrenalin) is combined with Xylocaine it causes constriction of adjacent blood vessels and localizes the anesthetic effect to the immediate area. The effect of this combination of drugs most resembles a/ an:

synergistic effect
side effect
idiosyncratic effect
toxic effect

A

synergistic effect

84
Q

True or False

A patient’s immediate and pressing needs must take precedence over the requirements of the imaging procedure.

A

True

85
Q

Medications used to calm patients, reduce anxiety, and mental tension are:

Benzodiazepines
Antiarrhythmics
Anticonvulsants
Analgesics

A

Benzodiazepines

Benzodiazepines- (tranquilizer) reduce anxiety
Antiarrhythmics- treat irregular heart rhythm
Anticonvulsants- treat seizures
Analgesics- relieve pain

86
Q

Opioid medications are prescribed for the purpose of:

Alleviating pain
The reversal of opium
Regulating heart rate
Relief of symptoms of allergic reactions

A

Alleviating pain

87
Q

The study of the effects of drugs on the normal physiological functions of the body is:

Pharmacodynamics
Pharmacokinetics
Pharmacology
Pharmaceutical Science

A

Pharmacodynamics

Pharmacokinetics is the study of the way the body processes a drug and includes how drugs are absorbed, reach their site of action, are metabolized, and are excreted.

88
Q

Fractures that are forced through the skin and are usually partially reduced are

Closed
Compound
Depressed
Transverse

A

Compound

89
Q

True or False

To prevent cutting your hand on glass ampules, you can use a gauze sponge to protect your fingers

A

True

90
Q

The vital sign that most accurately indicates the condition of shock is the

Pulse rate
Blood pressure
Temperature
Respiratory rate

A

Blood Pressure

91
Q

Dehydrated patients may need an infusion of fluids. The most common replacement fluid used is ____.

Normal saline
Normal solution
Sterile water
Sterile saline

A

Normal saline

92
Q

A route of administration given inside the cheek is ______.

Sublingual
Topical
Oral
Buccal

A

Buccal

93
Q

The spinal needle is directly injected into the ___________ for an Intrathecal administration.

Subarachnoid space
Cella turcica
T5-T6
Sublingual space

A

Subarachnoid space

94
Q

Which of the following observations should cause you to suspect child abuse?

  1. Cigarette burn marks
  2. Bruises shaped like hands, fingers, belt
  3. Failure to seek prompt treatment for a serious injury
A

All of the above

95
Q

The cause of decubitus ulcers is

Poor circulation to an area deprives cells of oxygen and nutrition.
Repeated falls
Lack of oxygen
Low pulse ox

A

Poor circulation to an area deprives cells of oxygen and nutrition

Patient Care Final Exam (5 decks)

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