Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

human bio > unit 3 > Flashcards

unit 3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what are the two parts of the nervous system

A

the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

some examples of functions of the nervous system

A
  • analysing sensory information
  • storing information
  • making decisions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the CNS made up of

A

the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the PNS made up of

A

the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does the somatic nervous system contain (voluntary)

A

sensory and motor neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what do sensory and motor neurons do

A
  • sensory neurons take impulses from sense organs to the CNS

- motor neurons take impulses from the CNS to the muscles and glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does the autonomic nervous system consist of (involuntary)

A

the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does the sympathetic system do

A

speeds up heart rate and breathing rate while slowing down peristalsis and production of intestinal secretions
-the parasympathetic system changes these in the opposite way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what happens in a converging neural pathway

A

impulses from several neurons travel to one neuron

-this increases sensitivity to excitatory or inhibitory signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what happens in a diverging neural pathway

A

impulses from one neuron travel to several neurons so affecting more than one destination at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what happens in a reverberating pathway

A

neurons later in the pathway link with earlier neurons, sending the impulse back through the pathway
-this allows repeated stimulation of the pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the cerebral cortex

A

the cerebral cortex is the centre of conscious thought

-it also recalls memories and alters behaviour in the light of an experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does cerebral cortex contain

A

there is localisation of brain functions in the cerebral cortex, it contains sensory areas, motor areas and association areas
-there are association areas involved in language processing, personality, imagination and intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where is the information from the right visual field and controls of the right side of the body dealt with

A

the left hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where is information from the left visual field and controls of the left side of the body dealt with

A

the right hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

where does the transfer of information between the cerebral hemispheres occur

A

the corpus callosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what three things does memory involve and what three things does it include

A

encoding, storage and retrieval of information
and
past experience, knowledge and thoughts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

where does information entering the brain pass though and enter

A

passes through the sensory memory and enters the STM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how is information transferred from the STM to the LTM

A

rehearsal, organisation and elaboration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does the sensory memory retain

A

all the visual and auditory input received for a few seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

does the STM have a big capacity

A

no, it has a limited capcity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how many pieces of information can the STM hold

A

7 items

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the serial position effect

A

Items at the start of a long list are remembered through rehearsal and those at the end are remembered because they are still in the STM, and the ones in the middle are lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how can the capacity of the STM be improved by

A

chunking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what happened to information if they aren’t transferred to the LTM

A

it is lost by displacement or decay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is displacement

A

when information is pushed out of the STM by new information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

does the LTM have a limited capacity

A

no it had an unlimited capacity and can hold information for a long time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is ROE

A

R- rehearsal (shallow form of encoding information into the LTM)
O- organisation (when information is organised into logical categories)
E- elaboration (deeper form of encoding which leads to improved information retention)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is retrieval aided by

A

use of contextual cues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are contextual cues

A

relating information to the time and place it was initially encoded into the LTM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the structure of neurons

A

dendrites - cell body- axons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what do dendrites do

A

receive nerve impulses and carry them towards the cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what do axons do

A

carries nerve impulses away from the cell hodu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what does the cell body contain

A

a nucleus and cytoplasm, the cytoplasm contains organelles such as mitochondria to provide energy for impulses and ribosomes which synthesises proteins for the synthesis of neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the axons surrounded by

A

the myelin sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the myelin sheath

A

a layer of fatty material that insulates the axon and increases the speed of nerve impulse conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is myelination

A

the extent to which an axon is covered in myelin (this continues from birth to adolescence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what diseases can damage the myelin sheath

A

multiple sclerosis (MS) which results in a loss of muscular co-ordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what do glial cells do

A
  • support neurons

- produce the myelin shesth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the types of neurons

A
  • sensory neuron
  • inter neuron
  • motor neuron
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the space between the ends of neurons knows as

A

a synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how are impulses related across synaptic clefts

A

by chemicals called neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

2 examples of neurotransmitters and how and why are they are removed

A

-acetylcholine (enzyme degradation)
-noradrenaline (re-uptake)
they are removed to prevent continuous stimulation of postsynaptic neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the neuron before the synaptic cleft known as

A

the pre-synaptic neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the neuron after the synaptic cleft known as

A

post-synaptic neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

where are neurotransmitters stored

A

in vesicles in the axon endings of the presynaptic neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

action of neurotransmitters

A
  • A nerve impulse passes through a neuron and reaches the end of the presynaptic neuron
  • Neurotransmitters are released from vesicles into the cleft on arrival of the impulse
  • Neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft
  • Neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what do receptors found on the postsynaptic neuron determine

A

whether the signal is excitatory (causes an increase in action) or inhibitory (causes a decrease in action)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the sufficient number of neurotransmitter molecules known as

A

the threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are weak stimuli known as

A

sub-threshold stimuli and are too weak to cause the transmission of a nerve impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what can synapses do with weak stimuli

A

filter them out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is summation

A

a series of weak stimuli which trigger an impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are endorphins

A

endorphins are neurotransmitters which act like natural painkillers by stimulating neurons which are involved in reducing the intensity of pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what does endorphin production increase in response to

A
  • severe injury
  • prolonged and continuous exercise
  • physical and emotional stress
  • certain foods (e.g chocolate and chillis)
55
Q

increased levels of endorphins are also linked to what

A

feelings of pleasure obtained from activities such as:

  • eating
  • sex
  • prolonged exercise
56
Q

what is dopamine

A

dopamine is a neurotransmitter that induces the feeling of pleasure and reinforces particular behaviour by activating the reward pathway in the brain

57
Q

what does the reward pathway involve and how is it activated

A

neurons which secrete or respond to dopamine

it is activated when an individual engages in a behaviour that is beneficial to them e.g eating when hungry

58
Q

what are some neurotransmitter related disorders

A
  • alzheimer’s disease (cause: loss of cells synthesising acetylcholine)
  • parkinson’s disease (cause: loss of dopamine synthesising neurons)
  • schizophrenia (cause: overactive dopamine system)
59
Q

what is an agonist

A

agonists are chemicals that bind to and stimulate specific receptors mimicking the action of a neurotransmitter at the synapse

60
Q

what is an antagonist

A

antagonists are chemicals that bind to specific receptors blocking the action of a neurotransmitter at a synapse

61
Q

what can recreational drugs act as

A

agonists or antagonists

62
Q

what can recreational drugs affect

A

neurotransmission is reward pathway of the brain

63
Q

what is drug addiction caused by

A

drugs that act as antagonists
antagonists block specific receptors causing the nervous system to increase the number and sensitivity of these receptors, the sensitisation leads to addiction
ANT I A

64
Q

what is drug tolerance caused by

A

drugs that act as agonists
agonists stimulate specific receptors causing the nervous system to decrease the number and sensitivity of these receptors, this desensitisation leads to drug tolerance
A D T

65
Q

what is drug addiction

A

when the individual craves more of the drug

66
Q

what is drug tolerance

A

when the individual must take more of the drug to get the effect

67
Q

what can recreational drugs affect

A
  • mood (e.g happier/more confident/more aggressive)
  • cognition (person becomes poorer at mental tasks such as problem solving and decision making)
  • perception (misinterpretation of environmental stimuli e.g colours, sounds, sense of time)
  • behaviour (person is able to stay awake for longer and talk about themselves endlessly)
68
Q

what is immunity

A

the ability to resist infection by a pathogen or to destroy it if it invades

69
Q

what is the body’s first line of defence

A

epithelial cells form a physical barrier

70
Q

where are epithelial cells found

A

in the skin and inner linings of the digestive respiratory systems

71
Q

what are chemical secretions produced against

A

invading pathogens

72
Q

examples of chemical secretions

A

tears, saliva and stomach acid

73
Q

what can epithelial cells produce

A

secretions such as enzymes, hormones and lubricating fluids that can defend against infection

74
Q

what is a pathogen

A

an organism that can cause disease

75
Q

what is the inflammatory response

A

a localised defence mechanism at an affected site

76
Q

examples of the inflammatory response

A

acne, response to bee/wasp stings, tonsillitis

77
Q

what are mast cells

A

specialised immune cells present in most tissues surrounding blood vessels and nerves

78
Q

what releases histamine

A

mast cells

79
Q

what does histamine do

A

causes the typical inflammatory response

-causing vasodilation and increased capillary permeability

80
Q

what does increased blood flow because of histamine lead to

A

the accumulation of phagocytes and clotting elements at the site of infection

81
Q

what do phagocytes do

A

recognise pathogens and destroy them by phagocytosis

82
Q

how do immune cells recognise foreign pathogens

A

they have different antigens

83
Q

what is phagocytosis

A

the engulfing of pathogens and their destruction by digestive enzymes contained in lysosomes

84
Q

what do phagocytes release

A

cytokines which attract more phagocytes to the site of infection

85
Q

what are cytokines

A

protein molecules that act as a signal to phagocytes causing them to accumulate to the site of infection

86
Q

what are lymphocytes

A

white blood cells involved in the specific immune response

87
Q

where are lymphocytes made

A

in the bone marrow from stem cells

88
Q

where do t-lymphocytes mature

A

the thymus gland

89
Q

where do b-lymphocytes mature

A

in the bone marrow

90
Q

what do lymphocytes respond to

A

specific antigens found on invading pathogens

91
Q

what are antigens

A

antigens are molecules, often proteins found on the surface of cells that trigger a specific immune response

92
Q

what does each lymphocyte have

A

type of membrane receptor which is specific for one antigen

93
Q

what does antigen binding lead to

A

repeated division resulting in the formation if a clinal population of identical lymphocytes

94
Q

what are the two types of lymphocytes

A

B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

95
Q

What do B lymphocytes produce

A

antibodies against antigens and this leads to the destruction of the pathogen

96
Q

what are antibodies

A

Y shaped proteins that have receptor binding sites to a particular antigen

97
Q

what is produced when an antibody binds to a particular antigen

A

an antigen antibody complex

98
Q

what can an antigen-antibody complex be destroyed by

A

phagocytes

99
Q

What do B lymphocytes respond to

A

antigens on the substances that are harmless to the body e.g pollen

100
Q

what is an allergic reaction

A

a hypersensitive response

101
Q

What do T lymphocytes do

A

destroy the infected body cells by recognising antigen of the pathogen on the cell membrane and inducing apoptosis 

102
Q

what is apoptosis

A

programmed cell death

103
Q

what do T lymphocytes do to infected cells

A

attach on to infected cells and release proteins, these proteins diffuse into the infected cells causing the production of self-destructive enzymes which cause cell death
the remains of the cell are then removed by phagocytosis

104
Q

what is autoimmunity

A

T lymphocytes can normally distinguish between self antigens ok the boys own cells and non self antigens on infected cells.

Failure of the regulation or the immune system leads to T lymphocytes responding to self antigens, this causes autoimmune diseases

105
Q

examples of autoimmune diseases

A

type 1 diabetes and rheumatoid arthritis

106
Q

what is immunological memory

A

some of the cloned B and T lymphocytes survive long term as memory cells

107
Q

what is the primary response

A

when’s. pathogen infects the body, it takes time to raise an immune response and select the correct T and B cells and produce antibodies

108
Q

what is the secondary response

A

when a secondary exposure to the same antigen occurs, the memory cells rapidly give rise to more new clones of specific lymphocytes, these destroy the invading pathogens before the individual shows symptoms

109
Q

is the primary or secondary response faster

A

during the secondary response, antibody production is greater and more rapid than during the primary response

110
Q

what is HIV

A

the human immunodeficiency virus attacks and destroyed T lymphocytes.
HIV causes depletion of T lymphocytes which, over a long time, leads to the development of AIDS

111
Q

what happens to an individual with AIDS’s immune system

A

they have a weakened immune system and so are more vulnerable to opportunistic infections such as pneumonia

112
Q

how can immunity be developed

A

by vaccination using antigens from infectous pathogens, creating memory cells

113
Q

what are the antigens used in vaccines

A

they can be inactivated pathogen toxins, dead pathogens, parts of pathogens and weakened pathogens

114
Q

what are antigens mixed with when producing the vaccine

A

an adjuvant

an adjuvant is a substance which makes the vaccine more effective so enhancing the immune response

115
Q

what is herd immunity

A

hers immunity occurs when a large percentage of a population is immunised

116
Q

what is establishing herd immunity important for

A

reducing the spread of disease

117
Q

how does her immunity protect non immune individuals

A

they are protected as there is a lower probability they will come into contact with infected individuals

118
Q

what does the herd immunity threshold depend on

A

the type of disease, the effectiveness of the vaccine and the density of the population

119
Q

what prevents mass vaccination in developing countries

A

malnutrition and poverty

120
Q

what prevents mass vaccination in developed countries

A

adverse publicity

121
Q

what are mass vaccination programmes designed for

A

to establish herd immunity to a disease

122
Q

what is antigenic variation

A

some pathogens can change their antigens so that antibodies and memory cells are not effective against them

123
Q

what virus does antigenic variation occur in

A

influenza virus, this is whit it remains a major public health problem and why individuals who are at risk require to be vaccinated every year

124
Q

what are clinical trials

A

vaccines and drugs are subjected to clinical trials to establish their safety and effectiveness before being licensed for use

125
Q

what is the design of clinical trials for

A

to test vaccines and drugs, it involves randomised double-blind and placebo-controlled protocols

126
Q

what are randomised clinical trials

A

subjects in clinical trials are divided into groups i a. randomised way to reduce bias in the distribution of characteristic such as age and gender

127
Q

what is double blind testing in clinical trials

A

in a double blind trial, neither the subjects nor the researchers know which group subjects are in to prevent biased interpretation of the results.
Neither the doctor or the patient know if they are receiving the treatment or the placebo

128
Q

what is a placebo

A

A pull exactly the same but without the active ingredient

129
Q

what is group size in clinical trails

A

the importance of group size in reducing experimental error and establishing statistical significance.
At the end of the trail, results from the two groups, which must be of a suitable size to reduce the magnitude of experimental error ,are compared to determine whether there are an statistically significant differences between the group

130
Q

what is control in clinical trials

A

used as a comparison to show that the factors being investigated is responsible for the changes observed

131
Q

structure of sensory neuron

A
  • has dendrites in contact with receptions in sense organs
  • these dendrites merge to form a myelinated fibre which carries impulses to the cell body
  • has a short axon
  • axon branches form connections with neurons in the CNS
132
Q

structure of an inter neuron

A
  • connects sensory neurons to motor neurons

- has many dendrites which form many complex connections

133
Q

structure of a motor neuron

A
  • has short dendrites which connect to neurons in the CNS
  • has a long myelinated axon
  • axon carried nerve impulses to muscle connectives via axon terminals

human bio (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions