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unit 1 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what is a somatic cell

A

any cell in the body other than cells involved in reproduction

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2
Q

What are germline cells

A

gametes (sperm and ova) and the stem cells that divide to form gametes

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3
Q

How do somatic stem cells divide

A

By mitosis to form more somatic cells

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4
Q

How do germline cells divide

A

by mitosis and then by meiosis

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5
Q

What does division by mitosis do

A

Produce more germline stem cells

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6
Q

How can a nucleus of a germline stem cell divide

A

by mitosis to maintain the diploid chromosome number

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7
Q

how many pairs of homologous chromosomes do diploid cells have

A

23

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8
Q

what does division by meiosis do

A

produces haploid gametes

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9
Q

How does the nucleus of a germline stem cell divide

A

by meiosis. it undergoes two divisions, firstly separating homologous chromosome and secondly separating chromatids

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10
Q

How many single chromosomes do haploid gametes contain

A

23

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11
Q

what is cellular differentiation

A

The process by which cell expresses certain genes to produce proteins characteristic for that type of cell

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12
Q

what does differentiation allow a cell to do

A

Carry out specialised functions

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13
Q

What are the two types of stem cells

A

Embryonic and tissue

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14
Q

What can cells in the very early embryo do

A

differentiate into all the cell types that make up the individual ,and therefore are pluripotent

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15
Q

What can all the chain is an embryonic stem cells do

A

be switched on ,so the cells can differentiate into any type of cell

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16
Q

What are tissue stem cells involved in

A

They are involved in the growth ,repair and renewal of the cells found in that tissue

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17
Q

What are tissue stem cells

A

they are multi potent as they can differentiate into all of the types of cell found in a particular tissue type

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18
Q

What can blood stem cells located in bone marrow do

A

they can give rise to red blood cells platelets phagocytes and lymphocytes

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19
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of stem cells

A

They are used in corneal repair on the regeneration of damaged skin

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20
Q

What can stem cells from the embryo do

A

they can sell for new under the right conditions in the lab

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21
Q

What does stem cell research privide

A

provides information on how cell processes such as cell growth ,differentiation and gene regulation work

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22
Q

What does stem cell research involve

A

Stem cells being used as model cells to study how diseases develop or being used for drug testing

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23
Q

What are the ethical issues of using embryonic stem cells

A

use of embryonic stem cells can offer effective treatments for disease and injury . however, involves destruction of embryos

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24
Q

Why do cancer cells divide excessively

A

because they do not respond to regulatory signals

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25
Q

What happens when cancer cells divide excessively

A

This results in a massive abnormal cells called a tumour

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26
Q

How are secondary tumours are formed

A

Cells within the body may fail to attach to each other , spreading through the body where they may form secondary tumours

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27
Q

what is the structure of DNA

A
  • contains nucleotides (deoxyribose sugar, phosphate and base).
  • Has a sugar-phosphate backbone
  • The base pairing (adenine- thymine and guanine- cytosine) Held by hydrogen bonds and has double-stranded anti-parallel structure
  • DNA contains a deoxyribose and phosphate at 3’ and 5’ ends of each strand, forming a double helix
  • The base sequence of DNA forms the genetic code
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28
Q

What is DNA replicated by

A

A DNA polymerase

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29
Q

What does DNA polymerase need to start replication

A

primers

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30
Q

what is a primer

A

A short strand of nucleotides which binds to the 3’ end of the template DNA strand allowing polymerase to add DNA nucleotides

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31
Q

what does DNA polymerase do

A

adds DNA nucleotides, using complimentary base pairing, to the deoxyribose (3’) end of the new DNA strand which is forming

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32
Q

what forms two template strands

A

when DNA is unwound and hydrogen bonds between bases are broken

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33
Q

DNA polymerase can only our DNA nucleotides in one direction, what does this result in

A

The leading strand being replicated continuously and the lagging strand replicated in fragments

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34
Q

What are fragments of DNA join together by

A

ligase

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35
Q

What does PCR stand for

A

polymerase chain reaction

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36
Q

What does polymerase chain reaction do

A

Apple far is DNA using complimentary primers for specific target sequences

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37
Q

what are primers in PCR

A

Short Straughns of nucleotides which are complimentary to specific target sequences up to ends of the region of DNA to be amplified

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38
Q

what is stage 1 of PCR

A

DNA is heated to between 92° and 98°C to separate the strands

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39
Q

what is stage 2 of PCR

A

DNA is then cooked to between 50° and 65°C to allow primers to bind to target sequences

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40
Q

what is stage 3 of PCR

A

DNA is heated again but to between 70° and 80°C for heat-tolerant DNA polymerase to replicate the region of DNA

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41
Q

What are the practical applications of PCR

A

PCR can amplify DNA to help solve crimes, settle paternity suits and diagnose genetic disorders

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42
Q

what does gene expression involve

A

the Transcription and translation of DNA sequences

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43
Q

what are the three types of RNA

A

mRNA (messenger RNA), tRNA (transfer RNA) and rRNA (ribosomal RNA)

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44
Q

What is the structure of RNA

A

• RNA is single-stranded and is composed of nucleotides containing ribose sugar, phosphate and one of four bases: cytosine, guanine, adenine and uracil

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45
Q

what is mRNA

A 
Messenger RNA (mRNA) 
carries a copy of the DNA code from the nucleus to the ribosome
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46
Q

where is mRNa transcribed from

A

from DNA in the nucleus and is translated into proteins by ribosomes in the cytoplasm

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47
Q

what is each triplet of based on the mRNA molecule called

A

a codon and codes for a specific amino acid

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48
Q

what does each tRNA molecule do

A

carries its specific amino acid to the ribosome

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49
Q

why does tRNA fold

A

due to complementary base pairing

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50
Q

what is an anticodon

A

an exposed triplet of bases

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51
Q

what do tRNA molecules have

A

an anticodon at one end and an attachment site for a specific amino acid at the other end

52
Q

what forms the ribosome

A

rRna and proteins

53
Q

RNA and the process of transcription

A

•RNA polymerase moves along DNA unwinding the double helix and breaking the hydrogens bonds between the bases
• RNA polymerase synthesises a primary transcript of mRNA from RNA nucleotides by complementary base pairing
•Urcail (instead of thymine) is complementary to adenine
• RNA splicing forms a mature mRNA transcript
the introns of the primary transcript are non-coding regions and are removed
•the exons are coding regions and are joined together to from the mature transcript
•the order of exons is unchanged during splicing

54
Q

what happens during the translation of mRNA

A

mRNA is translayed into a polypeptide at a ribosome

55
Q

when does translation begin and end

A

being behind at a start codon and ends at a stop codon

56
Q

how do anticodons bond to codons

A

by complementary base pairing, translating the genetic code into a sequence of amino acids

57
Q

what joins amino acids together

A

peptide bonds

58
Q

what can happen due to alternative RNA splicing

A

different proteins can be expressed from one gene

59
Q

how can different mature mRNA transcripts be produced from the same priamry transcript

A

depends on which exons are retained

60
Q

what forms polypeptides

A

amino acids are linked by peptide bonds to form polypeptides

61
Q

what do polypeptide chains fold to form

A

the three dimensional shapes of a protein, held together by hydrogen bonds and other interactions between individual amino acids

62
Q

what determines a proteins function

A

their shape

63
Q

what is phenotype determined by

A

proteins produced as the result of gene expression

64
Q

what affects phenotype

A

environmental factors

65
Q

what are mutations

A

changed in the DNA that can result in no protein or an altered protein being synthesised

66
Q

what is a single gene mutation

A

single gene mutations involve the alteration of DNA nucleotide sequence as a result of the substitution, insertion or deletion of nucleotides

67
Q

what are missense mutations

A

missense mutations result in one amino acid being changed for another. this may result in a non functional protein or have little effect on the protein

68
Q

what are nonsense mutations

A

nonsense mutations result in a premature stop codon being produced which results in a shorter protein

69
Q

what is a splice site mutation

A

splice site result in some introns being retains and/ or some exons not being included in the mature transcript

70
Q

what do nucleotide insertions or deletions result in

A

frame shift mutations

71
Q

what do frame shift mutations cause

A

caused all the codons and all the amino acids after the mutation to be changed. this has a major effect on the structure of the protein produced

72
Q

what are the 4 types of chromosome structure mutations

A

duplication, deletion, inversion and translocation

73
Q

what is a duplication mutation

A

where a section of a chromosome is added from its homologous partner

74
Q

what is a deletion mutation

A

where a section of a chromosome is removed

75
Q

what is an inversion mutation

A

where a section of a chromosome is reversed

76
Q

what is a translocation mutation

A

where a section of a chromosome is added to a chromosome, not it’s homologous partner

77
Q

what is the genome of an organism

A

it is it’s entire hereditary information encoded in DNA

78
Q

what is genome made up of

A

genes and other DNA sequences that do not code for proteins

79
Q

what happens in genomic sequencing

A

the sequence of nucleotide based can be determined for individual genes and entire genomes

80
Q

what can computer programs be used to identify

A

base sequences by looking for sequences similar to known genes

81
Q

what are bioinformatics

A

compute and statistical analyses

82
Q

what is pharmagenetics

A

the use of genome information in the choice of drugs

83
Q

what is personalised medicine

A

when an individuals personals genome sequence can be used to select the most effective drugs and dosage to treat their disease

84
Q

what is a metabolic pathway

A

metabolic pathways are inter grated and controlled pathways of enzyme-catalysed reactions within a cell.
metabolic pathways can have reversible steps, irreversible steps and alternative routes.

85
Q

what can reactions within a metabolic pathway be

A

anabolic or catabolic

86
Q

what are anabolic reactions

A

anabolic reactions build up large molecules from small molecules and require energy

87
Q

what are catabolic reactions

A

catabolic reactions break down large molecules into smaller molecules and release energy

88
Q

what are metabolic pathways controlled by

A

the presence or absence of particular enzymes and the regulation of the rage of reaction of key enzymes

89
Q

when does induced fit occur

A

when the active site changed shape to better fit the substrate after the substrate binds

90
Q

what is induced fit

A

The induced fit model is a model for enzyme-substrate interaction

91
Q

do substrate molecules have a high or low affinity for the active site

A

high

92
Q

do the subsequent products have a high or low affinity allowing them to leave the actual sight

A

low

93
Q

how are some metabolic pathways reversible

A

the presence of a substrate or the removal of a product will drive a sequence or reactions in a particular direction

94
Q

where do competitive inhibitors bind

A

at the active site preventing the substrate from binding

95
Q

how can competitive inhibition be reversed

A

by increasing substrate concentration

96
Q

what do non-competitive inhibitors do

A

bind away from the active site but change the shape of the active site preventing the substrate from binding

97
Q

Can noncompetitive inhibition be reversed by increasing substrate concentration

A

no

98
Q

when does feedback inhibition occur

A

when the end product in the metabolic pathway reaches a critical concentration

99
Q

what does the end product inhibit

A

The end product inhibits an earlier enzyme, blocking the path way, and so prevents further synthesis of the end product

100
Q

what is glycolysis

A

The breakdown of glucose to pyruvate in the cytoplasm

101
Q

What is ATP required for

A

The phosphorylation of glucose and intermediates during the energy investment phase of glycolysis
This leads to the generation of more ATP during the energy pay off stage and results in a net gain of ATP

102
Q

what happens to pyruvate in aerobic conditions

A

pyruvate is broken down to an acetyl groupthat combines with coenzyme forming acetyl coenzyme A

103
Q

What happens during the citric acid cycle

A

the acetyl group from acetyle coenzyme A combines with oxaloacetate to form citrate

104
Q

what happens during a series of enzyme controlled steps during the citric acid cycle

A

citrate is gradually converted back into oxaloacetate which results in the generation of ATP and release of carbon dioxide

105
Q

Where does the citric acid cycle occur

A

in the matrix of the mitochondria

106
Q

What occurs in both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

A

dehydrogenase enzyme is remove hydrogen ions and electrons and pass them to the coenzyme NAD, forming NADH

107
Q

what is the electron transport chain

A

A series of carrier proteins attached the inner mitochondrial membrane

108
Q

Where are electrons passed along

A

Electrons are passed along the electron transport chain releasing energy

109
Q

what allows hydrogen ions to be pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane

A

The energy produced from the electron transport chain

110
Q

What results in the production of ATP

A

The flow of hydrogen ions back through the membrane protein ATP synthase

111
Q

What combine with oxygen to form water

A

hydrogen ions and electrons

112
Q

what is ATP used for

A

to transfer energy to cellular processes which require energy

113
Q

what happens during vigourous exercise

A

The muscle cells do not get sufficient oxygen to support the electron transport chain

114
Q

Under what conditions is pyruvic converted to lactate

A

when the muscle cells do not get sufficient oxygen to support the electron transport chain

115
Q

what does the conversion of pyruvate to lactate involve

A

The transfer of hydrogen from the NADH produced during glycolysis to pyruvate in order to purchase lactate

116
Q

What does lactate being produced do

A

causes muscle fatigue

117
Q

 What allows respiration to provide the energy to convert locked it back to pyruvate and glucose in the liver

A

when the oxygen debt is repaid when exercise is complete

118
Q

what are slow twitch muscle fibres

A

slow twitch muscle fibres contract relatively slowly but can sustain contractions for longer
they are useful for endurance activities such as long distance running, cycling or cross country skiing

119
Q

What can slow twitch muscle fibres rely on

A

they can rely on aerobic respiration to generate ATP and have many mitochondria, a large blood supply and high concentration of oxygen-storing protein called myoglobin

120
Q

What is the major storage feel of slow twitch muscle fibres

A

fats

121
Q

what are fast twitch muscle fibres

A

fast twitch muscle fibres contract relatively quickly over short periods
they are useful for activities such as sprinting or weightlifting

122
Q

What can fast twitch muscle fibres generate

A

they can generate ATP through glycolysis only and have fewer mitochondria and lower blood supply compare to slow twitch muscle fibres

123
Q

what is the major storage fuel of fast twitch muscle fibres

A

glycogen

124
Q

what do most human muscle tissue contain

A

A mixture of both slow and fast twitch muscle fibres

125
Q

What can athletes sure distinct patterns

A

muscle fibres that reflect their sporting activities

human bio (4 decks)

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