Unit 2 - Week 2 - Amankwah, Loh 3 and 4, and McCrone Flashcards

1
Q

When should a baby start smiling? Laughing?

A

2 months; 4 months

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2
Q

When does a baby start to sit and reach for things?

A

6 months

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3
Q

When do babies generally start walking?

A

12 months. Crawling by 9 months

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4
Q

At what age does a baby know its age and sex?

A

3 years

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5
Q

At what age should a child toilet alone?

A

4 years

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6
Q

At what age does a baby understand object permanence?

A

9 months, along with saying Mama, Dada, and clapping and crawling

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7
Q

True or False: Newborns cry to communicate their needs.

A

True

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8
Q

When a patient presents with abdominal pain, you want to know:

A
Onset and duration
Character
Associated symptoms
Relationship factors
Stool characteristics
Urine characteristics
Medications
Other things you will want to know are the patient’s Past Medical History, past surgical history, family history and social.
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9
Q

Inspect the abdomen for the following:

A

Skin characteristics
Venous return patterns
Symmetry
Surface motion

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10
Q

Inspect abdominal muscles as patient raises head to detect presence of the following:

A

Masses
Hernia
Separation of muscles

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11
Q

Auscultate with stethoscope diaphragm for the following:

A

Bowel sounds
Friction rubs over liver and spleen
Bruits over aorta and renal and femoral arteries

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12
Q

What are the primary roles of chaperones?

A

To prevent misfolding, mainly in large multimeric proteins that might need help to fold, and to prevent aggregation. Some hsp’s have recently been shown to pull apart aggregating proteins!

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13
Q

When are hsp’s upregulated? Give one example.

A

Fever, high temperature

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14
Q

What is the function of Hsp70?

A

To help bind to proteins during translation into the ER. They help folding at the synthesis stage.

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15
Q

What is the function of Hsp60?

A

When translation is finished, the protein goes inside the Hsp60 double donut, and the cap (GroES) comes on, and isolated the protein for folding. If it fails, the protein is spit back out into the ER lumen. This can be a cyclical process.

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16
Q

What are the proposed mechanisms of GroEL/GroES?

A

It pulls the protein inside (isolation), then upon the closing of the box, the inside residues change to allow the protein to unfold and/or attempt to fold, and functions by confinement to allow the protein space and time to fold correctly. Hps60

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17
Q

For what diseases are protease inhibitors in clinical trials

A

HIV
Cancer
Cardiovascular disease

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18
Q

What is the minimum number of ubiquitins needed for degradation signal?

A

4

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19
Q

Covalent ligation of ubiquitin is a reaction that requires:

A

ATP

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20
Q

Ubiquitin typically attaches to the side chain of what residue?

A

Lysine

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21
Q

What three enzymes target proteins for destruction?

A

E1 –> activates ubiquitin
E2 –> transfers activated ubiquitin to target-E3 complex
E3 –> catalyzes final transfer of ubiquitin

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22
Q

What happens in the proteasome?

A

The proteasome, 26S, attaches to the polyubiquitinated protein, chaperones are thought to unfold the protein, the ubiquitins get unfolded and recycled, and the protein is cleaved into 3-30 aa peptides, which can then be used for MHC I presentation (back through ER), or further cleaved by free endo/exopeptidases in the cytoplasm.

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23
Q

p53 encodes its own:

A

E3 ligase

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24
Q

In cancer, how can the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway be influenced?

A

Increased degradation of tumor suppressors, ie p53, p27

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25
Q

What is an example of the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway’s influence on neurodegenerative diseases such as HD, AD, and Parkinson’s?

A

Accumulated ubiquitinated proteins have been observed in plaques, contributing to the aggregations, ie Lewy Bodies (Parkinson’s)

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26
Q

What is the major problem in CF, having to do with the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway?

A

The mutation in deltaF508 causes extended misfolding of the Chloride channel, which after time, gets shunted to the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway, even though those proteins, should they make it into the cell membrane, are partially functional, when they make it there.

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27
Q

What are the three mechanisms of protein formation failure?

A
  1. Direct knockout - correct structure but, due to a mutation, no function (missing aa’s necessary)
  2. Destabilization - protein cannot fold
  3. Toxic conformation - protein now has new, wrong fx due to mutation, or is driven to fold incorrectly.
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28
Q

The glu to val mutation in sickle cell anemia is an example of what protein formation failure?

A

Toxic conformation

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29
Q

Known as “the guardian of the genome,” this protein transcription factor activates target proteins that participte in cell-cyle arrest or apoptosis.

A

p53

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30
Q

What is the most frequently mutated protein in cancer, accounting for nearly 30,000 mutations catalogued to date, and the point mutations of which are found in nearly 50% of tumors?

A

p53

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31
Q

When is p53 activated?

A

DNA damage or similar insult

32
Q

In p53, >97% of tumorigenic mutations identified from human cancers are found in the:

A

DNA binding domain

33
Q

What is the function of the zinc in p53?

A

NOT a zinc finger motif; the Zinc helps coordinate the loop that fits in the minor groove of the DNA.

34
Q

p53 is known for its:

A

Beta clam which provides scaffolding for the alpha-helix binding site and loops.

35
Q

Why does mutant p53 aggregate in cells?

A

It activates transcription for its own E3 ligase, MDM2, so if mutant p53 is non-functional, it cannot control its own destruction and thus accumulates in cells.

36
Q

Loss of thermodynamic stability is the cause of 75% of:

A

monogenic diseases

37
Q

Reactivation of mutant p53/restoring proper function of p53 has what effect?

A

It can reverse lymphomas and sarcomas associated with the mutant form, without affecting normal tissue. (in mice)

38
Q

A contant mutant is one that:

A

reduces DNA binding w/out changing overall protein structure/stability

39
Q

A stability mutant is one that:

A

Can be very distant from the binding site, decreases thermodynamic stability.

40
Q

A DNA contact mutant is one that:

A

Alters side chains that directly bind to DNA

41
Q

The Y220C tumorigenic mutation is an example of:

A

How a synthesized chemical can bind to a crevice in the mutant protein and stabilize it, leading to its removal/destruction. Stability mutant.

42
Q

An MDM2 blocker is an example of:

A

A stability mutant. The rising tide floats all boats, so by keeping all p53 active, some of it will function and increase proper transcriptional activity.

43
Q

CFTR is a member of a family of membrane proteins called:

A

ABC transporters (ATP binding cassette)

44
Q

What is the function of Kalydeco/Ivacaftor?

A

It binds to the mutant CFTR and opens it via an allosteric mechanism, but does not solve the problem of which there is so little CFTR in the first place.

45
Q

Treatment options on the horizon of CF research include:

A

Inhibition of ubiquitin-proteasome pathway
Overexpression of chaperones
Stimulate CFTR function

46
Q

What is the defect in alpha-1-antitrypsin (a1-AT) deficiency?

A

1 of two mutations, Z-type (Glu342 –> Lys) or S type (Glue 264 –> Val)
30% of southern Europeans harbor 1 of these 2 mutations

47
Q

What are the effects of a1-AT deficiency?

A

Loss of lung tissue leading to bronchiectasis, asthma and/or emphysema, as well as cirrhosis and liver cancer

48
Q

a1-AT is a member of the:

A

serpin family - serine protease inhibitor. These proteases are enzymes that cleave a polypeptide at specific locations.

49
Q

If neutrophil elastase activity is unchecked, as in a1-AT, what can happen?

A

Neutrophil elastase is from activated neutrophils at inflammation sites, and it digests connective tissue. In the case of a1-AT deficiency, it destroys lung tissue.

50
Q

Why is a serpin substrate considered a suicide substrate?

A

Because once the serpin is cleaved, it has lost its inhibitory activity.

51
Q

Where is a1-AT synthesized?

A

Liver

52
Q

How is the structure of a1-AT different after being cleaved?

A

It has an extra beta sheet. (5 to 6)

53
Q

How does a1-AT work?

A

It is a molecular mousetrap. Its RCL (the loop that becomes the beta sheet), binds the protease and cleaves it, taking the protease along with it.

54
Q

How does locked a1-AT get degraded?

A

It is degraded by normal, free, cytoplasmic enzymes.

55
Q

What is unique about antithrombin?

A

Antithrombin, a serpin like a1-AT, has a function when it is locked as an angiogenesis inhibitor, suppressing tumor activity.

56
Q

How can mutant a1-AT aggregate?

A

The beta sheet opens abberantly and the RCL of a second protein inserts (as the protease should in normal activity), created beads on a string polymers that do not degrade easily, and their build-up causes liver failure.

57
Q

What does TSE stand for:

A

Transmissable Spongiform Encephalopathies

58
Q

Give some examplesof iCJD:

A

Dura mater grafts

injections of HGH from cadaver pituitaries

59
Q

_____ staining reveals amyloid plaques in CJD and AD.

A

Congo red OR Thioflavin T

60
Q

More than 20 mutations are known to cause inherited forms of prion diseases. For example, _____ and CJD share common primary site mutation.

A

fatal familial insomnia

61
Q

What makes the conversion of PRPc to PRPsc so dangerous?

A

PRPsc is protease insensitive

62
Q

Transgenic studies that support the protein-only hypothesis re: TSE, demonstrate:

A

the gene dosage effect

63
Q

Why don’t we all have TSE’s?

A

Species barrier is protective against seeding of great amounts of PRPsc’s from other animals.

64
Q

The goals of potential therapies for TSE are:

A
  1. Reducing the total amount of PrP synthesized.

2. Preventing conversion of PRPc to scrapie form.

65
Q

Nearly all researchers agree that overproduction of _____ is the leading cause of AD.

A

A-beta-42

66
Q

Down syndrome carries with it the increased risk of later developing:

A

AD.

67
Q

What is a drawback to modulating gamma secretase activity in the treatment of AD?

A

Gamma secretase cleaves many proteins, and thereofre carries adverse side effects.

68
Q

What is one argument for the protective quality of mature Abeta fibrils?

A

They act as sinks and soak up toxic particles preventing cell death.

69
Q

What does IAPP stand for?

A

Islet amyloid polypeptide, or amylin

70
Q

In late stages of diabetes, what is sometimes observed?

A

Beta cell crisis due to large scale apoptosis, with IAPP amyloid observed in ~90% of cases post mortem.

71
Q

IAPP is structureless in aqueous solution but has _____ tendencies

A

helical.

72
Q

How might peptide nitrogens get blocked on the growing side of the beta strand?

A

Methylation–beta sheets are essentially capped to inhibit them from growing.

73
Q

How is IAPP detrimental to the lipid bilayer?

A

Its association, a pseudo coiled-coil, essentially pokes a hole in the membrane, making it leaky

74
Q

Recent evidence suggests that what characteristic of the amyloid fibril formation is most detrimental in cases of diabetes?

A

The process of their formation.

75
Q

Glutamate receptor inhibitors of what compound were able to reverse dendritic spine loss in mice, thus undoing cognitive defects?

A

Abeta42/Prpc oligomers