Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Unit 2 > Unit 2 - Week 1 - Savici 1 and 2, Moffat 2, Stein 2, Amack 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 - Week 1 - Savici 1 and 2, Moffat 2, Stein 2, Amack 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What tests might you perform with someone who has intermittent, triggered episodes of SOB?

A

Pulmonary Fx test

Methacholine challenge test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the length of time covered by an acute cough?

A

< 3 weeks
3-8 weeks = subacute
>8 weeks = chronic cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the worst case scenario for hemoptysis?

A

Exsanguination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is pectus carinatum?

A

Pidgeon chest, prominent sternal protrusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the scientific term for funnel chest?

A

Pectus excavatum, indentation of the lower sternum above the xiphoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In what diagnosis is Barrel chest commonly seen?

A

Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What challenges to kyphosis and scoliosis pose?

A

They can have adverse effects on lung and breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are 3 adventitious lung sounds?

A
  1. Wheezing
  2. Crackling
  3. Ronchi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is egophany?

A

E to A sounds present in consolidation, auscultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is wheezing heard?

A

Wheezing is heard on inspiration and expiration. Common in airway obstruction, asthma, interstitial edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is crackling heard?

A

Heard on inspiration, common in pulmonary edema, pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When are ronchi heard?

A

Heard on inspiration and expiration, clears with cough, common with secretions in the large airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some causes of decreaing breathing rate?

A 
Narcotic overdose
myasthenia gravis
CNS lesions
alkalosis
obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

With what diagnoses might you see clubbing of fingers?

A

Lung cancer
CF
cirrhosis
congenital heart diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is PND?

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea, SOB relieved when sitting up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is orthopnea?

A

SOB when laying flat, ask the patient how many pillows do you use at night?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are causes of chronic cough?

A

Asthma
Post-nasal drip, “Acute upper airway syndrome”
Chronic bronchitis
GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the difference between tachypnea and hyperventilation?

A

Hyperventilation is both deep and fast (>20 bpm) breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Kussmaul breathing?

A

Rapid, deep and labored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Biot breathing?

A

Disorganized pattern with periods of apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Ataxic breathing?

A

Irregular and varying depth of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are causes of dyspnea?

A 
Interstitial lung disease
Metabolic acidosis
Upper airway obstruction
Asthma
COPD
PE
CHF
Pulmonary vascular disease
Psychogenic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Fun fact!

A

40% of human genes are present in flies and worms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define a homologous gene, or homolog:

A

A gene similar in structure and evolutionary origin (and likely function) to a gene in another species. For example, drosophila gene for brain development can be inserted into mice lacking that gene, and those mice can develop brains more or less normally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do genes drive development:

A

The genetic material is identical in every cell, but different cells express different sets of genes. This is the concept of genome equivalence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Somatic nuclear transfer is another term for:

A

cloning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the concept of differential gene expression?

A

Only a small percentage of the genome is expressed in each cell type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Gene expression is regulated at several levels. Name four:

A
  1. Differential gene transcription
  2. selective nuclear RNA processing
  3. selective mRNA translation
  4. Differential protein modification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

RNA in situ hybridization is used to detect ______.

A

mRNA expression in cells or tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The expression of different sets of genes in different cells coordinates development by controlling four essential cellular processes by which the embryo is constructed:

A
  1. Cell proliferation: producing many cells from one.
  2. Cell specialization: creating cells with different characteristics at different positions.
  3. Cell interactions: coordinating the behavior of one cell with that of its neighbors
  4. Cell movement: rearranging the cells to form structured tissues and organs.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Name the two minimum components to every inductive interaction:

A
  1. Inducer - the tissue that provides a signal that changes the behavior of the target tissue
  2. Responder - the tissue being induced. The responder must have the ability to respond to the signal, referred to as “competence”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Explain the example of induction by the optic vesicle in the Xenopus frog embryo.

A

The optic vesicle is able to induce lens formation in the anterior portion of the ectoderm, but not in the trunk or abdomen of the embryo. If the optic vesicle is removed, either no lens, or a malformed lens, will develop. **Most other tissues are not able to substitute for the optic vesicle as an inducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

__1__ is a transcription factor that is important in providing competence to respond to the inducer signals from the optic cup. This is an example showing that __2__ is actively acquired. __1__ makes ectoderm competent to respond to __3__ signals from the optic vesicle. Therefore, __1__ is considered a __4__.

A
  1. Pax6
  2. competence
  3. inductive
  4. Competence factor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the cause of aniridia?

A

Aniridia is an autosomal dominant condition in which Pax6 has undergone a mutation. Aniridia causes problems that affect the iris, intraocular pressure, lens, cornea and optic nerve. Homozygotes for this condition do not survive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Signals are often transmitted between inducer and responder via what types of signaling?

A

Paracrine and juxtacrine.

36
Q

True or False: Juxtacrine signaling requires contact between neighboring cells.

A

True. Paracrine factors, however, can be secreted into the ECM to deliver a message to surrounding, but not touching, cells.

37
Q

What is a morphogen?

A

A morphogen is a paracrine-signaling molecule secreted from a source that acts directly on neighboring cells to produce specific responses that depend on concentration of the morphogen.

38
Q

Explain the concept os a concentration gradient w/r/t a morphogen.

A

For example, high concentration of the received signal can induce one effect, while intermediate concentration of the signal, perhaps received from cells further away, can have a different effect. Etc.

39
Q

In an example experiment, Nodal functions as a morphogen in what model system?

A

Zebrafish. Nodal turned on different transcription factors, depending on how far the cells were from the initial Nodal induction.

40
Q

Give two examples of signal transduction pathways in development.

A
  1. Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-B)

2. Sonic Hedgehog signaling pathway

41
Q

Morphogen gradients pattern the __1__. For example, antagonistic activities of __2__ and __3__ pattern the developing spinal cord.

A
  1. neural tube

2. SHH and Wnt/BMP

42
Q

Give another name for situs ambiguous.

A

Heterotaxy, results in congenital malformations, especially of the heart.

43
Q

Defects in establishing L/R symmetry often alter development of the cardiovascular and GI systems. Give some examples.

A
  1. Congenital heart defects
  2. Asplenia (R isomerism)
  3. Polysplenia (L isomerism)
  4. Volvulus or other malrotation of the intestine
44
Q

The development of cardiac L/R asymmetry involves what crucial process:

A

Cardiac looping the aligns chambers and vascular connections

45
Q

Malexpression of Nodal, either reversed or bilaterally, in embryos, correlates with:

A

altered organ symmetry

46
Q

What are the components of Kartagener’s triad?

A
  1. Bronchiectasis
  2. Situs inversus (50%)
  3. Infertility
    Visceral asymmetry is determined through movements of cilia during development.
47
Q

What is one hypothesis w/r/t cilia and organ development?

A

Asymmetric fluid flow establishes a morphogen gradient that orients the L/R body axis.

48
Q

Asymmetric signals such as __1__ that respond to cilia-driven fluid flow trigger __2__ expression in the left lateral plate mesoderm. __2__ activates downstream target genes that include the TF __3__ and the Nodal inhibitor __4__.

A
  1. calcium ion signaling
  2. Nodal
  3. Pitx2
  4. Lefty
49
Q

Pitx2 is thought to mediate:

A

asymmetric morphogenesis of genes of developing brain, heart and gut.

50
Q

Cilia-driven fluid flow is involved in establishing an asymmetric Nodal (TGF-B) signaling cascade in the:

A

left lateral plate mesoderm

51
Q

The effects of mitochondrial mutations are usually related to tissues where there is a lot of:

A

ox phos activity

52
Q

Name three categories of mitochondrial disorders.

A

Neuropathies
Encephalopathies
Myopathies

53
Q

Mitochondrial function depends on:

A

Mitochondrial and autosomal gene function and expression

54
Q

Mitochondrial disorders typically have what kind of inheritance?

A

Matrilineal (if the defect is not nuclear)

55
Q

Homoplasmy refers to a population of mitochondria that:

A

All have the same genetic composition

56
Q

Heteroplasmy is when there are two or more different populations of ___________ present in a cell.

A

Mitochondria

57
Q

Mitochondrial diseases typically behave progressively with late onset. This can in part be due to a concept called:

A

Replicative segregation. As cells divide, the proportion of mutant mitochondria might change over time.

58
Q

What does MERRF stand for?

A

Myoclonic Epilepsy with Ragged Red Fiber disease, mitochondrial inheritance

59
Q

The diagnosis of mitochondrial disease is complicated by what three main things?

A
  1. Heteroplasmy and variable expression
  2. Maternal inheritance
  3. Progressive nature of disease
60
Q

What is: the use of DNA technologies (PCR, RFLP, sequencing etc.) to obtain information on the genetic identity of an individual(s) and how that relates to a criminal, medical or scientific investigation.

A

Forensic DNA Analysis

61
Q

What areas of the nuclear DNA have the highest polymorphisms and are thus best for use in forensic DNA analysis?

A

Hypervariable minisatellite regions

62
Q

True or False: Paternity testing requires at least 2 probes to the DNA.

A

True

63
Q

What is CODIS?

A

Combined DNA Information System, only accessible for military and criminal justice system, helps to link crimes by DNA found at the scene.

64
Q

What is CPE?

A

Cytopathic effect, not all viruses have it, but you can study viruses (that do have it) by looking at their effects on cells, for example the cell may be swollen

65
Q

How can you view viruses?

A

Inverted microscope

66
Q

True or False: Viruses generate their own ATP.

A

False!

67
Q

What elements does a virus need to grow?

A
  1. Tropism - the right tissue
  2. Susceptibility - cells have the right receptors to let in a virus
  3. Permissivity - an appropriate cellular environment
  4. Biosynthesis machinery
  5. Abundance - of building blocks - RNA, DNA, aa’s, lipids, sugars
  6. Time - to complete replication
    “TTPABS”
68
Q

What are the nine steps in virus replication?

A
  1. recognition of target cell
  2. attachment
  3. entry/penetration/fusion
  4. uncoating
  5. transcription of mRNA
  6. protein synthesis
  7. replication of the genome
  8. assembly of virions
  9. egress: lysis/budding/exocytosis
69
Q

How does the herpesvirus recognize and attach to its host?

A

Herpesvirus recognizes the ECM, and then attaches to specific protein receptors.

70
Q

What is the difference between tissue tropism and host range?

A

Host range refers to the preferred species

Tropism refers to the specific tissue

71
Q

If a cell is not permissive to virion replication, what des that mean?

A

The cell’s machinery does not support (no abundance) virion replication, despite its potential susceptibility.

72
Q

Fusion at the cell surface occurs with what virus?

A

HIV (or pizza), envelope left outside host cell.

73
Q

Clathrin-mediated endocytosis and penetration occur with what virus?

A

Adenovirus

74
Q

What is viral uncoating?

A

For infection to begin, capsids must open to release the genome into the cytoplasm or nucleus. This is the beginning of the “eclipse phase.”

75
Q

True or False: Uncoating of a virus can happen both at the cell surface, or in the cytoplasm of the host.

A

True, depends on the type of virus. Can also uncoat at the nuclear pore!

76
Q

All viruses must make:

A

mRNA, viral genome is the temple for transcription, regulated by both viral and host transcription factors.

77
Q

Viral mRNAs are translated into protein by what host machinery:

A
  1. tRNA
  2. RIbosomes
  3. AA’s
78
Q

What is RDRP?

A

Viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, used to make RNA and genomes

79
Q

Assembly of virions marks:

A

the end of the eclipse phase

80
Q

Virions may transfer to new cells by what processes?

A
  1. Cell to cell spread

2. Cell fusion –> syncytium formation

81
Q

What is syncytium formation?

A

When a viruses fuses neighboring cells into a large multinucleate mass (fatal for the cells)

82
Q

What are the steps in the virus growth curve?

A
  1. Eclipse - no viruses recovered from sample
  2. Maturation - virus particle are made
  3. Burst size - the # of infectious progeny from a single round of replication, more exponential than bacterial replication
83
Q

How are infectious virions measured?

A

In PFU’s, Plaque Forming Units, because that’s how to describe the effect on tissue culture

84
Q

True or False: Virion envelopes are constructed from viral glycoproteins and host membranes.

A

True

85
Q

True or False: Enveloped viruses obtain a membrane from a cellular compartment.

A

True

86
Q

What is the best tool for performing evolutionary studies?

A

Nuclear DNA, because mitochondrial DNA is less stable and tends to degrade more quickly.

Unit 2 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions