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BIOM 360 > Unit 2 Questions > Flashcards

Unit 2 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following best describes a nucleoside?

A. A nitrogenous base covalently bonded to a pentose sugar

B. A nitrogenous base covalently bonded to a pentose sugar with one or more phosphates

C. A nitrogenous base hydrogen bonded to a pentose sugar

D. A nitrogenous base covalently bonded to a deoxy‐pentose sugar with one or more phosphates

A

A. A nitrogenous base covalently bonded to a pentose sugar

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2
Q

T/F:

The Griffith experiment of 1928 was seminal to the discovery of DNA because it showed that traits from bacteria A could be acquired by bacteria B simply by exposing bacteria B to the cellular contents of bacteria A.

A

True

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3
Q

The Hershey‐Chase experiment used all of the following except:

A. bacteria

B. viruses

C. archaea

D. radioisotopes

A

C. archaea

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4
Q

Which “open” group is on the 3’ end of a DNA molecule?

A. phosphate

B. carboxyl

C. amino

D. hydroxyl

A

D. hydroxyl

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5
Q

In DNA, how many H bods are formed between A and T?

A

two

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6
Q

T/F: A common feature of some microbes is the presence of single-stranded DNA chromosomes

A

FALSE

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7
Q

Protein characteristics are determined in part by which of the following?

A. bond strength

B. number of central carbons in Amino acids

C. amino acid side chains

d. number of phosphates on carboxy-terminal end

A

C. amino acid side chains

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8
Q

T/F: semi-conservative replication of DNA refers to the synthesis of new stretches of DNA on both the template and coding strands

A

False

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9
Q

_________________ genes encode enzymes that have their expression levels decreased by the presence of pathway products.

A) Inducible

B) Repressible

C) Inhibited

D) Housekeeping

A

B) Repressible

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10
Q

Which of the following genes are typically expressed constitutively?

A) Inducible

B) Repressible

C) Inhibited

D) Housekeeping

A

D) Housekeeping

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11
Q

A specialized form of attenuation that involves alternate foldings of the leader sequence of an mRNA, but not ribosome behavior is called _____________

A) riboswitch control

B) alternative inhibition

C) termination

D) alternative splicing

A

A) riboswitch control

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12
Q

Which of the following is not typically a component of a regulated bacterial operon?

A. inducer

B. gene

C. activator

D. operotor

A

A. inducer

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13
Q

The arabinose operon is an example of:

A. positive transcription control

B. negative transcritional control

C. a constitutively expressed operon

D. both positive and negative transcritional regulation

A

D. both positive and negative transcritional regulation

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14
Q

The tryptophan operon is an example of:

A. positive transcriptional control of repressible genes

B. negative transcriptional control of repressible genes

C. positive transcriptional control of inducible genes

D. negative transcriptional control of inducible genes

A

B. negative transcriptional control of repressible genes

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15
Q

Compared to Gram negative bacteria, gram positive bacteria tend to regulate control of:

A. transcription

B. translation

C. both

D. neither

A

A. transcription

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16
Q

All of the following are possible outcomes of bacterial antisense RNA binding to mRNA leader sequences, except:

A. blocking of ribosome attachment

B. inhibition of translation

C. promotion of translation

D. inhibition of transcription

A

D. inhibition of transcription

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17
Q

Proteins involved in the control of gene expression in processes such as induction and repression are referred to as ________ proteins

A. structural

B. transport

C. developmental

D. regulatory

A

D. regulatory

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18
Q

__________ is a regulatory process that results in the termination of transcription within a leader sequence that precedes structural genes

A. positive regulation

B. attenuation

C. Riboswitiching

D. Corepression

A

B. attenuation

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19
Q

The two kinds of excision repair for DNA mutations differ in which of the following?

A. involvement of DNA polymerase I

B. involvement of DNA polymerase III

C. DNA ligase

D. activity of DNA polmerase I

A

D. activity of DNA polmerase I

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20
Q

T/F: Horizontal gene transfer requires bacterial reproduction

A

False

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21
Q

All of the following are possible fates of HGT, except?

A. incorporation of donor DNA into the recipient chromosome

B. incorporation of donor DNA into the recipient cell, but not part of the chromosome

C. degradation of donor DNA outside of both donor and recipient cells

D. the recipient of donor DNA gains another copy of a gene it already has

A

C. degradation of donor DNA outside of both donor and recipient cells

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22
Q

T/F: DNA involved in HGT is almost always encoded on a plasmid or phage

A

False

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23
Q

Which of the following involves viruses?

A. conjugation

B. transformation

C. transduction

D. none of the above

A

C. transduction

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24
Q

Which of the following produces two F+ cells?

A. F+ x F- mating

B. Hfr recombination

C. F’ conjugation

D. none of the above

A

A. F+ x F- mating

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25
Q

T/F: The SOS response is a way for bacteria to further decrease the rate of mutations

A

False

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26
Q

T/F: Composite transposons are associated with insertion sequences

A

True

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27
Q

A recipient is just as likely to get gene X as it is gene Y from a donor during which of the following?

A. simple transduction

B. simple transposition

C. generalized transduction

D. none of the above

A

C. generalized transduction

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28
Q

Which choice best describes an axenic culture?

A. sterile broth

B. a culture that has been sterilized

C. a culture of a single microorganism

D. a culture of a mixture of microorganisms

A

C. a culture of a single microorganism

29
Q

All of the following are involved in calculating the most probable number of complex mixture of microorganisms, except?

A. dilution series

B. growth medium

C. a statistical analysis

D. PCR

A

D. PCR

30
Q

T/F: DAPI is a stain for living cells?

A

False

31
Q

FISH is a molecular method that ________

A. identifies a single microbe based on DNA sequence similarities and fluorescence

B. Identifies many different microbes based on growth

C. requires PCR

D. none of the above

A

C. requires PCR

32
Q

16S rRNA sequencing can be used to do all of the following except ________

A. estimate the presence or absence of a microorganism

B. quantify the relative abundance of microorganism

C. understand the metabolism of a microorganism

D. estimate genetic relatedness of microorganism

A

C. understand the metabolism of a microorganism

33
Q

T/F: Isotopes and BONCAT can be used to understand the metabolism of microorganisms

A

True

34
Q

All of the following are used to remove microorganisms and chemical precipitates from water except _______

A. sedimentation basin

B. settling basin

C. rapid sand filters

D. chlorination

A

D. chlorination

35
Q

T/F: Eukaryotes produce monocistronic mRNA, while bacteria produce polycistronic mRNA

A

True

36
Q

A purine or pyrimidine attached to a sugar, either ribose or deoxyribose, to which is attached one or more phosphate groups is called a _______________.

A. nucleotide

B. nucleoside

C. nitrogenous base

D. nucleic acid

A

A. nucleotide

37
Q

DNA and RNA are the same molecule with the single exception of the sugar ribose (RNA) vs. deoxyribose (DNA).

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

38
Q

Activated ________ delivers amino acids to ribosomes during translation.

A. messenger RNA (mRNA)

B. transfer RNA (tRNA)

C. ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

D. heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)

A

B. transfer RNA (tRNA)

39
Q

16S rRNA of the small ribosomal subunit is responsible for ____________.

A. finding the promoter region in DNA

B. finding the Shine-Delgarno sequence in mRNA

C. transpeptidation of amino acids

D. protein maturation and transport

A

B. finding the Shine-Delgarno sequence in mRNA

40
Q

If mRNA synthesis is turned off in the presence of a corepressor, it is referred to as __________ control of ___________ gene.

A. negative, an inducible

B. positive, a repressible

C. negative, a repressible

D. positive, an inducible

A

C. negative, a repressible

41
Q

During __________ control of __________ gene, an inhibitor

binds to an activator and transcription is turned off.

A. positive, a repressible

B. negative, a repressible

C. positive, an inducible

D. none of the above

A

A. positive, a repressible

42
Q

Which of the following is NOT a controlling factor in Trp operon attenuation?

A. termination loop structure

B. the number of tryptophan codons

C. the level of tryptophan in the cell

D. the length of the trpL gene

A

D. the length of the trpL gene

43
Q

Amino acids in proteins are connected by peptide bonds between the ________ of one amino acid and the __________ of another amino acid.

A. central carbon, side chain

B. amino, central carbon

C. carboxyl, side chain

D. amino, carboxyl

A

D. amino, carboxyl

44
Q

Bacteria use ____________ and RNA polymerase to initiate transcription.

A. sigma factors

B. ribosomes

C. helicases

D. start codons

A

A. sigma factors

45
Q

A mutation from the most prevalent form of a gene to a mutant form is called a __________ mutation.

A. forward

B. reverse

C. wild card

D. escalating

A

A. forward

46
Q

The genetic code is said to be __________ because more than

one codon will specify a particular amino acid.

A. flexible

B. degenerate

C. multiplicative

D. semiconservative

A

B. degenerate

47
Q

New and old strands of DNA are differentiated by _____________.

A. the chance of mutation

B. methylation

C. their direction

D. nucleotide sequences

A

B. methylation

48
Q

If DNA is transposable, it means that ______________.

A. it can be moved to a new cell by a plasmid

B. it can be moved to a new cell by a virus

C. it can be moved horizontally

D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

49
Q

What is the result of an Hfr conjugation event?

A. two F+ cells

B. one cell with a complete integrated F-factor and one cell with a partial F-factor

C. one cell with an F’ factor and one F- cell

D. two F- cells

A

B. one cell with a complete integrated F-factor and one cell with a partial F-factor

50
Q

What is the result of an F+ x F- mating?

A. two F+ cells

B. one cell with a complete integrated F-factor and one cell with a partial F-factor

C. one cell with an F’ factor and one F- cell

D. two F- cells

A

A. two F+ cells

51
Q

The transfer of genes from one independent organism to another is called _________________.

A. horizontal gene transfer

B. conjugation

C. vertical gene transfer

D. orthogonal gene transfer

A

A. horizontal gene transfer

52
Q

T/F: Insertion sequences have indirect repeats

A

True

53
Q

Which of the following is correct?

A. Purines have a single ring and no nitrogen.

B. Pyrimidines have two rings and a single nitrogen.

C. Purines and pyrimidines have the same number of rings but not the same number of nitrogens.

D. Purines have two rings.

A

D. Purines have two rings.

54
Q

T/F: Mesophilic and thermophilic fermentation refer to different temperatures in food production.

A

True

55
Q

An intrinsic factor in the spoilage of chicken soup is _____________.

A. salt content

B. temperature

C. pressure of the can

D. oxygen

A

A. salt content

56
Q

Which of the following best describes replicative transposition?

A. an antibiotic resistance gene moves from a plasmid to the chromosome

B. a cell begins with a single copy of an antibiotic resistance gene and ends up with two

C. direct repeats in the host chromosome are disrupted

D. an antibiotic resistance gene goes from one cell to another

cell

A

B. a cell begins with a single copy of an antibiotic resistance gene and ends up with two

57
Q

T/F:

Archaea can synthesize protein X at the same time that the gene encoding protein X is being transcribed.

A

True

58
Q

Which of the following is responsible for peptide bonds between amino acids?

A. 23S rRNA

B. 5S rRNA

C. 16S rRNA

D. aminoacyl synthetase

A

A. 23S rRNA

59
Q

T/F: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotic microbes encode for the same amino acid at the start of proteins.

A

False

Eukaryotic = Met

Procaryots: tMet

60
Q

Microbes in fuel cells make ________ from ___________.

A. electrons, organic matter

B. energy, sunlight

C. energy, water

D. proton motive forc

e, inorganic sulfur

A

A. electrons, organic matter

61
Q

Identification of bacteria using fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) relies on which of the following.

A. PCR

B. complementary base pairing

C. metagenomics

D. 16S sequencing

A

B. complementary base pairing

62
Q

T/F: The two components of ecologic diversity are richness and presence/absence.

A

False

richness and evenness

63
Q

Which of the following is not part of the water purification process?

A. sedimentation basin

B. chlorination

C. primary, secondary, and tertiary treatment

D. maximum containment levels for specific pathogens

A

C. primary, secondary, and tertiary treatment

64
Q

Which of the following best describes an auxotroph?

A. a reversion mutant

B. a mutant that cannot make an essential amino acid

C. wild-type

D. a mutant that can use energy from the sun

A

B. a mutant that cannot make an essential amino acid

65
Q

T/F:

The ribosome has three sites (A, P, and E). 23S rRNA of the large ribosomal subunit catalyzes peptide bond formation between an amino acid in the P site with an amino acid in the A site.

A

True

66
Q

The presence of an oxygen at which carbon atom in the 5 carbon sugar differentiates DNA from RNA?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

A

B. 2

67
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the DNA replication machinery?

A. ligase

B. helicase

C. topoisomerase

D. RNA polymerase

A

D. RNA polymerase

68
Q

How many bacteria can be grown in the laboratory?

A. nearly all

B. about half

C. not many

D. we have no way of knowing

A

C. not many

69
Q
A

BIOM 360 (7 decks)

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