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BIOM 360 > Exam 3 Chapter 37 and 36 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Chapter 37 and 36 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Epidemiology?

A

science that evaluates occurrences, determinants, distribution, and control of health and disease in defined human populations

John snow was the first (studied cholera in london)

Determines:

  • causative agent
  • source and/or reservoir
  • mechanism of transmission
  • host and environmental factors
  • best control measure
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2
Q

Who runs it?

A

USA: Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

World: World Health Organization (WHO)

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3
Q

What is a sporadic disease?

A

occurs occasionally and at irregular intervals

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4
Q

What is an endermic disease?

A

maintains a relatively steady low-level frequency at a moderately regular interval

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5
Q

What is a hyperendemic disease?

A

gradually increased in occurance frequency above endemic level but not to epidemic level

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6
Q

What is outbreak?

A
  • sudden, unexpected occurrance of disease
  • usually focal or in a limited segment of population
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7
Q

What is an epidemic?

A

Sudden increase in frequency above expected number

index case - first case in an epidemic

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8
Q

What is pandemic

A

increase in disease occurrance within large population over wide region (usually worldwide)

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9
Q

What was the main cause of death around 1900? 2013?

A

1900 = mainy infectious diseasaes (respiratory)

2013 = metabolic / genetic diseases (heart disease and cancer)

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10
Q

What is remote sensing and geographical information system used for? Define

A

charting infectious diseases

can be used to study distribution, dynamic and environmental correlates of microbial disease

  • Remote sensing (RS) = gathering of digital images of Earth’s surface from satellites and transforming data into maps
  • Geographic information system (GIS) = data management system that organizes and displays digital map data from RS
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11
Q

What are three important statistical measures of disease frequency to determin if an outbreak, epidemic or pandemic is occuring?

A
  • morbidity rate
    • # new cases in a time / # individuals in pop.
  • prevalence rate = total # infected at one time
    • total # of cases in pop / total pop. x 100
  • mortality rate
    • # deaths due to given disease / pop. size with disease
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12
Q

Define infectious disease

A

disease resulting from an infection by microbial agents (bacterial, virus, parasite, fungal)

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13
Q

Define communicable disease

A

can be transmitted from one host to another

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14
Q

Types of epidemics:

A
  • Common source epidemic
    • single common contaminated source (food)
  • propagated epidemic
    • one infected individual into a susceptable gorup, infection propagated to others (strep)
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15
Q

What is Herd immunity

A

level of resistance of population to infection and microbe spread because of immunity of large percentage of pop.

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16
Q

Level of Herd immunity can be altered by changes in pathogen:… how?

A
  • antigenic shift - major change in antigenic character of pathogen
  • antigenic drift - smaller antidenic change
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17
Q

What is systematic epidemiology?

A

Focuses on ecological and social factors taht influence development and spread of emerging and reemerging disease

numerous factors have been identified

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18
Q

Reasons for increases in emerging and reemerging infectious diseases include?

A
  • world pop. growth
  • increased international travel
  • habitat disruption
  • microbial evolution and development of resistance
  • inadequate public infrastructures
  • changes in ecology and climate
  • social unrest, wars, and bioterrorism
  • chagnes in food processing
  • chagnes in human behaviro, techonogy and industry
  • mecial practices lead to immunosuppression
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19
Q

What is Nosocomial infections?

A

Hospital - acquired

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20
Q

What are the sources of Nosocomial infections?

A
  • Endogenous pathogen
  • exogenous pathogen
  • Autogenous infection
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21
Q

What is Endogenous pathogen?

A
  • brought into hospital by patient or acquired when patient is colonized after admission
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22
Q

what is exogenous pathogen?

A

microbiota other than the patient’s

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23
Q

What is Autogenous infection?

A

caused by an agent derived form microbiota of patient despite whether it became part of patient’s microbiota following admission

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24
Q

What are three types of control measures of epidemics?

A
  • reduce or eliminate source or reservoir of infection
  • break connection between source and susceptible individual
  • reduce number of susceptible individuals
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25
Q

How to reduce or eliminate source or reservoir?

A
  • quaratine and isolation of cases and carriers
  • destruction of animal reservoir
  • treatment of sewage
  • therapy that reduces or eliminates infectivity of cases
26
Q

How to break connection between source and susceptible individual?

A
  • Chlorination of water supplies
  • pasteurization of milk
  • supervision and inspection of food and food handlers
  • destruction of insect vectors with pesticides
27
Q

What is reduce number os susceptible individuals?

A
  • raised herd immunity - vaccinations
  • passive immunity following exposure
  • active immunity for protection
28
Q

What do vaccines do?

A

attempt to induce antibodies and activated T cells to protect host form futher infection

29
Q

What is Adjuvants?

A

mixed with antigens in vaccines to enhance the rate and degree of immunization

  • can be any nontoxic material that prolongs antigen interaction with immune cells and stimulates the immune response to the antigen
30
Q

When shoudl vaccinations begin?

A

~2 months, further vaccinations depends on relative risk

31
Q

What are whole cell vaccines?

A
  • Most current vaccines active against bacteria and viruses consist of two microbes that are either inactivated (killed) or attenuated (live but avirulent)
  • Considered gold-standard but may be problematic
    • may not protect
    • immunosuppressed at risk of getting disease
    • attenuated may revert to virulent (full pathogen again)
32
Q

Explain Acellular or Subunit Vaccines

A
  • use of purified molecules from microbes avoids some of the risks of whole-cell vaccines
  • Forms of subunit vaccines
    • capsular polysaccharides
    • recombinant surface antigens
    • inactivated exotoxins (toxoids)
33
Q

What are recombinant - Vector Vaccines?

A

Pathogen genes that encode major antigens inserted into nonvirulent viruses or bacteria which serve as vectors and express the inserted gene

  • released gene produts (antigens) can elicit cellular and humoral immunity
34
Q

Explain DNA vaccines

A
  • DNA directly introduced into host cell via air pressure or gene gun
  • DNA taken into nuclus and pathogen’s DNA gragments is expressed
    • host immune system responds to foreign proteins produced
  • Many DNA vaccine trials are currently being run
35
Q

What are characteristics that favor use of bioterrism?

A
  • invisible, odorless, and tasteless
  • difficult to detect
  • take hours or days before awareness that they have been used
  • fear and panic associated with the anticipation that they were used
36
Q

What are two goals of clinical microbiologists?

A
  1. Rapid and accurate identification of disease-causing microorganism from clinical secimens
  2. Accurate antimicrobial susceptibility testing of those isolated organisms
37
Q

Who developed the standard microbiological practices for working with specimens?

A

Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

38
Q

Describe the specimen

A
  • Represent diseased area and other appropriate sites
  • be large enough for carrying out a variety of diagnostic tests
  • be collected in a manner that avoids contamination
  • be forwarded promptly to clinical lab
  • be obtained prior to administration of antimicrobial agents, if possible
39
Q

Explain the specimin collection:

A
  • specimen shoudl represent the diseased area
  • quantity should be adequate
  • colleciton to avoid contamination
  • proper container, promptly sent to lab
  • obtained sepcimen before antimicrobial treatment
40
Q

What are direct measures for identification of microbe?

A
  • growth and biochemical characteristics
  • microscopy
  • molecular methods
  • bacteriophage typing
  • immunologic test
41
Q

What are indirect identificaiton methods?

A
  • Serology
  • immunofluorescence
42
Q

Explain grwoth and biochemical characteristics

A
  • Tequniques used depend on nature of pathogen
  • for some pathogens, culture-based techniques have limited use
43
Q

What can culturing bacteria provide?

A

preliminary infroamtion about biochemical nature of bacterium

  • some bacteria are not routinely cultured

(ricketsias, chlamydiae, and mycoplasmas)

identified with special stains, immunologic tests, or molecular methods such as PCR

44
Q

Explain parasite techniques

A

culture- based techniques not commonly used

45
Q

What can be viewed under microscope? describe methods

A
  • Viewed:
    • bacteria, fungi, viruses, parasites
  • Method:
    • Wet-mount, heat-fixed or chemically fixed with stains often used
46
Q

Explain monoclonal antibodies (mAb)

A
  • Produced by hybridoma cells
  • Recognize a single epitope
    • fluorescently - labeled mAbs used diagnostically
      • technique has replaced use of polyclonal antisera for culture confirmation (polyclonal= very advanced system needed)
47
Q

Explain immunofluorescence

A
  • Process in which fluorescent dyes are exposed o UV, violet or blue light to make them fluoresce
  • Dyes coupled to antibody molecules
  • can be direct or indirect fluorescent antibody technique
48
Q

Explain parasite identification methods

A
  • Identification by microscopic examination of clinical specimens
    • diagnosis obtained by identification and characterization of ova (egg), trophozoites (life) and cysts (hyphenating state) in the specimen
49
Q

What are molecular methods?

A
  • Accurate, routine, used in clinical microbiolgy labs
    • comparison of proteins
    • Nucleic acid-based detection methods (DNA)
  • Widely used tests include:
    • Nucleic acid probes; DNA hybridization
    • PCR and real time PCR
    • ribotyping (based on high level of 16S rRNA)
    • multilocus sequence typing
    • genomic fingerprinting
    • plasmid fingerprinting (# and MW)
50
Q

Explain clinical immunology

A
  • Number, sensitivity, and specificity of serological tests increased due to better understanding of:
    • Immune cell surface antigens (CDs)
    • lymphocyte biology
    • production of monoclonal antibodies
    • development of sensitive antibody-binding reporter systems
  • Test selection and timging of specimen collection are essential to the proper interpretation of immunologic tests
51
Q

Explain Serotyping

A

Use of serum antibodies to detect and identify other molecules

can be sued to differentiate serovars or serotypes of microbes taht differe in antigenic composition of structure or product

52
Q

Explain Agglutination

A

visible clumps or aggregates of cells or particles

ie. rapid plasma reagin test (diagnostic for syphilis)

latex agglutination test (HIV diagnosis, viral hemagglutination)

antibody titer measurements

53
Q

Explain complement fixation

A
  • Binding of complement to an antigen-antibody complex
  • basis of diagnostic tests that determine if antibodies to an antigen are present in patients serum
  • very sensitive, measures extremely small amounts of antiboides
54
Q

Explain Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)

A
  • One of the most widely used serological tests
    • direct test can be used to detect antigens in a sample
    • indirect test can be used to detect antibodies in a sample
  • Reaction visualized by addition of chromogen (adds color)
  • Example = home preganancy test
55
Q

Explain Immunoblotting (Western Blotting)

A
  • Procedure
    • Proteins separated by electrophoresis
    • protein bands visualized with enzyme-tagging antibodies
  • Samples used include
    • distinguish microbes
    • diagnostic tests
    • prognosis of infection
56
Q

Explain immunoprecipitation test

A
  • Detects soluble Ag reacting with Ab (precipitins)
  • Binding of Ab to Ag forms lattice that precipitates
  • Lattice formation occurs only in optimal ratio of Ag to Ab
57
Q

Explain immuno diffusion test

A
  • Precipitation reaction that occurs in agar gel media
  • two commonly used techniques
    • Single radial immunodiffusion (RID) assay (antibody in agar antigen diffuses)
      • Guantitates antigen
    • Double diffusion agar assay (ouchterlony technique)
      • antibody and antigen both diffuse
      • identifies antigens
58
Q

Expain Immunoelectrophoresis

A
  • Antigen first separates by electrophoresis accoring to charge
  • antigens visualized by precipitation reaction
  • has greater resolution than immunodiffusion assay
59
Q

Explain Flow cytometry

A
  • Detects organisms in clinical samples
  • Detection based on cytometric parameters or by use of fluorochromes
    • fluorochromes often bound to antibodies or oligonucleotides
  • Forces suspension of cells through laser beam and measure amount of light scattering of fluorescence
  • can detect heterogeneous microbial populations with different responses to antimicrobial treatments
  • USE SURFACE MARKERS TO IDENTIFY SPECIFIC ITEMS
60
Q

What is Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

A
  • Purified antigen labeld with radioisotope competes with unlabeled standard for antibody binding
  • Amount of radioactivity associated with antibody is measured
    • Usualy Iodine 125 as it is easy to work with

BIOM 360 (7 decks)

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