Unit 2 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

An individual from Bombay who has inherited the Le gene will have a phenotype of:

A

Le(a+b-)

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2
Q

Individuals who are Le(a-b-) and can develop lewi antibodies without exposure to Lewis antigens are called:

A

Naturally occurring

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3
Q

Which of the following may be a possible cause for the lack of expression of Lewis antigens during pregnancy?

A

Increased ratio of plasma lipoproteins to RBC mass

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4
Q

A patient was phenotypes for the presence of Lewis antigens (Lea and Leb). A 3+ reaction was observed when patient cells were incubated with anti-Lea. No reaction was observed with anti-Leb. Based on these results, the patients phenotype is_________ and the patient is a ________ of ABH substances

A
  • Le(a+b-)/nonsecretor
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5
Q

What percentage of the white population inherits the Le gene?

A

90%

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6
Q

Approximately what percentage of the black population is [Le(a-b-)]?

A

22%

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7
Q

In order for an individual to express Leb antigen on their RBCs, the must have inherited which gene?

A
  • All of the above
  • Le
  • Se
  • H
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8
Q

Pregnant women usually express which phenotype?

A

Le(a-b-)

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9
Q

Why is anti-LebL the antibody of choice when phenotyping RBCs?

A

It recognizes any Leb antigen independent of ABO types

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10
Q

Persons who inherit the Se and Le genes will have ______ A or B glycolipids in plasma than persons who are Se Le

A

Fewer

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11
Q

All of the following statements are representative of Lewis antibodies except:

A

They are destroyed by enzymes

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12
Q

Anti-Lea, which is reactive a the Coombs phase, may cause what kind of hemolysis?

A

In vivo

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13
Q

RBCs that phenotypes as [Le(a-b-)] are inherited with plasma containing Lea substance. The RBCs convert to the phenotype [Le(a+b-)]. Whereas the same RBCs incubated with saliva containing Lea substance do not convert. Why?

A

Glycoprotein are not absorbed onto RBC membranes

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14
Q

What does the type 1 chain refer to?

A
  • beta-linkage of the number 1 carbon of galactose to the number. 3 carbon of N-acetylglucosamine residue of precursor structure
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15
Q

Lewis cell-bound antigens absorbed from plasma onto the RBC membranes are:

A

Glycolipids

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16
Q

Lewis antibodies are of what immunoglobulin class?

A

IgM

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17
Q

What enzyme is responsible for Lewis Specificity?

A

L-fucosyltransferase

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18
Q

Where are Lewis antigens found?

A

*all of the above
- plasma
- saliva
- milk

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19
Q

What substances would be present in the saliva of a person with the LeLe HH SeSe AA genotype?

A

A
H
Lea
Leb

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20
Q

How is Leb susbstance formed?

A

L-fructose is added to subterminal N-acetylglucosamine of type 1 H substance

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21
Q

Which of the following statments is false?

A
  • Lewis antibodies do not bind complement
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22
Q

What would be the probable genotype of a patient who phenotypes as ABLe(a-b-)?

A
  • lele sese HH AB
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23
Q

What is found in secretions of Le(a-b-) individuals?

A

None of the above

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24
Q

At which phase are Lewis antibodies usually detected?

A

Immediate spin

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25
Q

How does anti-Lea differ from anti- Leb?

A

Anti-Lea can bind complement more efficiently

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26
Q

Why are Lewis antibodies not generally implicated in HDN?

A

Lewis antibodies are IgM and cannot cross the placenta

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27
Q

Which blood group system is not based on carbohydrates?

A

Rh

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28
Q

How is Le(y) formed?

A
  • Fucose A(1-3) G1cNac is added to type 2H precursor substance
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29
Q

It was discovered that a patient who was to receive two units of packs RBCs had an anti-Lea circulating in his system. What would be the proper procedure?

A
  • the two units do not necessarily need to be Lea-negative but should be crossmatched through atleast 37 degrees and crossmatch compatible before given
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30
Q

The true Lewis phenotype will normally be detected at what age?

A
  • not necessarily ever, as circumstances such as pregnancy may alter or mask an individual’s true Lewis phenotype
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31
Q

Which of the following statements about the Lewis system in not true?

A

Secretion of Lewis substance is controlled by the Se gene

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32
Q

P1 antigens:

A

Take up to 6-7 years to develop

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33
Q

I and i antigens are found in plasma, serum, and what other possible source?

A

*all of the above
- Breast milk
- urine
- saliva

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34
Q

Persons with the Kidd-null phenotype have been found in:

A

New Zealand

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35
Q

Lutheran antibodies are rarely associated with causing HDN for which of the following reasons?

A

*all of the above
- Lutheran antigens are poorly developed at birth
- Maternal Lutheran antibodies are absorbed onto glycoprotein on the placenta, decreasing the likelihood of HDN
- Luther antibodies are generally IgM class and normally do not cross the placenta

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36
Q

Which of the following is not involved in the Kell blood group system?

A
  • Jka
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37
Q

Where are Duffy antigens found?

A

RBCs

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38
Q

What is the most common Kidd phenotype in the black population?

A
  • Jk(a+b-)
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39
Q

Why is dosage inconsistent in the Duffy blood group?

A
  • the genotype could be inherited as FyaFya or FyaFy for for Fy(a+b-) RBCs
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40
Q

Why is it relatively easy to find compatible unit for a patient with anti-K?

A

Kell is a low-frequency antigen

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41
Q

RBCs were treated with FI in to help rule in anti-M from a panel study. Cells not treated reacted at 2+at immediate spin and 1+ at 37C. There was no reactivity in the Coombs phase. FI in-treated cells demonstrated a ______ reaction with patient serum containing anti-M

A

Negative

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42
Q

The Fy5 antigen has not been shown to be the result of an interaction between Duffy genes and:

A

Rh

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43
Q

A blood bank technologist needed to confirm the presence of anti-P1 in a patient specimen. Fresh cells were not available for use, so an old panel that contained cells positive for P1 was used. No cells positive for the antigen reacted at any phase of the antiglobulin test, whereas cells from the screening cells showed specificity for the presence of anti-P1. What is a possible explanation for this?

A
  • P1 antigen deteriorates rapidly upon storage
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44
Q

What will happen to I antigen expression when ABH sugars are removed from the RBCs?

A

Increased expression

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45
Q

What is the International society of Blood Transfusion (ISBT) assignment for the antigen P2?

A

003001

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46
Q

What is the definition of a blood group system?

A

A group of antigens produced by alleles at a single gene locus

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47
Q

Where are the Kell blood group antigens found?

A

RBCs

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48
Q

Anti-M was detected in a 27-year old man before surgery. Unit negative for M antigen were not available; however, the units were approved for transfusion when major crossmatch using M+N+ donor cells and patient serum resulted in:

A

IS - 1+, 37= 0, AHG = 0

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49
Q

Which of the following is known to enhance K antigen expression in the antihuman globulin test?

A

Polyethylene glycol

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50
Q

Anti-Lea reacts at what temperatures?

A

Room temperature

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51
Q

At what phase of the antihuman globulin test will anti-Kell be detected?

A

AHG

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52
Q

What is the function of a GPB-GPA hybrid (anti-Lepore type)?

A

Encodes normal GPA

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53
Q

Persons who phenotype negative for U antigen lack Ss-SGP because of a partial or complete deletion of ________

A

GPB

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54
Q

What sample requirement is essential for ID of a Kidd antibody?

A

Fresh serum or plasma

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55
Q

What does the U in U antigen stand for?

A

Universal

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56
Q

Infection with which organism is associated with naturally occurring IgM anti-K

A

*All of the above
- escheriachia coli
- campylobacter coli
- mycobacterium species

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57
Q

The M and N antigens are found in which glycoprotein?

A

Glycophorin A

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58
Q

How can pathological anti-I be differentiated from benign anti-I?

A
  • broad thermal range of reactivity
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59
Q

Which of the following distinguishes the recessive LuLu gene from the dominant In(Lu) gene?

A

Normal expression P1

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60
Q

All of the following are characteristics of of Kidd antibodies except:

A

Naturally occurring

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61
Q

When RBCs are placed in a solution of 2M urea, the RBCs will lyse. However, it has been shown for that which RBCs are resistant to lysis?

A

Jk(a-b-)

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62
Q

What MN phenotype is found in highest frequency in the white population?

A

M+N+

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63
Q

The M and N antigens exhibit dosage. Therefore, if a person inherits the Homozygous genotype MM, their RBCs will react________ with anti-M than/as those of a person with a heterozygous genotype of MN

A

Stronger

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64
Q

Anti-M will react strongest with which cells?

A

M+N-

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65
Q

The Lu gene shares chromosomes 19 with what other blood group gene?

A
  • All of the above
  • H
    -Le
    -LW
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66
Q

The homozygous phenotype Fy(a+b-) has ________ antigenic Fy sites than heterozygous cells, Fy(a+b+)

A

More

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67
Q

What is the source of anti-M lectin?

A

Iberia Amara

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68
Q

All of the following are grouped with the para-Kell antigen except:

A

K11

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69
Q

What anemia will result in an increased expression of i antigen, which exceeds that found on control cord cells?

A

CDA type II

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70
Q

The Kell gene is located on the long arm of which chromosome?

A

7

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71
Q

At what are does I antigen become detectable on infant cells?

A

18 month

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72
Q

What RBC antigens do McLeod individuals express?

A

TracekKpbJsbK11

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73
Q

What characteristics differentiates Ss antigens from MN antigens?

A

Enzyme degradation

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74
Q

A person who inherits alleles Fya and Fyb will carry which antigens on their RBCs ?

A

Both Fya and Fyba antigen

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75
Q

What is the ISBT designation for the li blood groups?

A

207

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76
Q

On which malaria receptor site is Duffy antigen dependent?

A

Junction receptor

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77
Q

The structures that carry the P antigen also carry which determinants?

A
  • All of the above
  • A
  • B
  • I
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78
Q

A patient who has a pathologic autoanti-I must be transfused with:

A

A blood warmer

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79
Q

What is the etiology of dialysis- associated anti-N?

A
  • Formaldehyde alters the N antigen so that it is recognized as foreign
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80
Q

The genes that code for GPA and GPB are closely linked on the long arm of which chromosome?

A

4

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81
Q

Persons who express the phenotype P2 are at risk for developing anti-P1 when handling what animal species?

A

Pigeons

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82
Q

Persons who inherit the In(Lu) gene will exhibit:

A

Jk(a-b-) RBCs that can absorb anti-Jka

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83
Q

Persons who are negative for Duffy antigen are less likely to contract which of the following disease?

A

Malaria

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84
Q

What abnormal blood cell morphology is associated with McLeod Phenotype?

A

Acanthocytes

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85
Q

What organism is capable of converting Jk(b-) RBCs to Jk(b+)?

A

Micrococcus species

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86
Q

What is the ISBT designation for the Lutheran blood group system?

A

LU

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87
Q

How are lipids dissociated from the RBC membrane for biochemical studies?

A

Organic solvents

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88
Q

What type of hemolytic transfusion reaction (HTR) occur more frequently in patients with Jk antibodies?

A

Delayed

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89
Q

Anti-I is found in association with what microorganism?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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90
Q

Autoantibodies to Jka have been found in patients taking:

A

Methyldopa

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91
Q

What adult phenotype is rich in i antigen and common to the white population?

A
  • i1
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92
Q

Units that were positive for P2 antigen gad to be crossmatched with serum of a patient containing the corresponding antibody because of a short supply of blood. Which of the following crossmatch results would be considered acceptable for transfusion?

A

IS = 1+, 37 = 0, AHG = 0

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93
Q

Most blood group alleles are:

A

Codominant

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94
Q

What Kidd antibody will react with all panel cells and phenotype are Jk(a-b-)?

A

Anti-Jk3

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95
Q

What is the most common genetic combination in the Kell blood group system?

A
  • kKpbJsbK11
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96
Q

All of the following are characteristics of Duffy antibodies except:

A
  • they are not implicated in HDN
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97
Q

Anti-Jka was identified in a previously transfused patient. Five cells that were homozygous for Jka yielded 2+ reactions in the AHG phase. The same cells were treated with ficin and yielded 3+ reactions in AHG. Therefore, Jka is _________ by enzyme treatment

A

Enhanced

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98
Q

All of the following are characteristics of the Ena antigen except:

A

It is a low-frequency antigen

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99
Q

What sequence of antigens coincides with strongest immunogen to weakest immunogen?

A

D, K, Fya, Fyb

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100
Q

Anti-N will react stronger with which phenotype?

A

M-N+

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101
Q

The Ii antigens are found on the membranes of which structures?

A
  • All of the above
  • platelets
  • RBCs
  • Leukocytes
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102
Q

Where are the Kidd antigens found?

A

RBCs

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103
Q

Why do En(a-) individuals have a reduced chance of infection with plasmodium falciparum?

A
  • there is a reduction in N-acetylneuraminic acid
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104
Q

How is the Ena antigen related to the Wr(a-b-) phenotype?

A

En(a-) RBCs are all Wr(a-b-)

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105
Q

Anti-N is know to occur in _______ patients undergoing dialysis with equipment sterilized by formaldehyde?

A

Renal

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106
Q

Anti-Anton recognizes the same specificity as:

A

Anti-Wj

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107
Q

Approximately what percentage of the black population are s-?

A

3%

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108
Q

What can be done to rule in anti-M when only M+N+ RBCs are available?

A

Decrease the serum-to- cell ratio

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109
Q

What fatal disease is associated with the McLeod phenotype?

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

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110
Q

Which of the following statements regarding individuals who are Fy(a-b-) is true?

A

The presence of Fya in the tissue of individuals who are black who are Fy(a-b-) prevents those individuals from forming Anti-Fyb

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111
Q

Why is it strongly recommended that only homozygous cells be used when ruling out Kidd antibodies?

A

Anti-Jka may appear compatible with heterozygous cells [Jk(a+b+)]

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112
Q

A woman undergoing a hysterectomy requires two units of blood. The antibody screen was negative. One unit was incompatible in the Coombs phase (2+), the other unit was compatible. Give a reason why this antibody was not detected in the antibody screen

A

Existence of a low-frequency antigens

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113
Q

What is the etiology of chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?

A

Phagocytes are unable to generate hydrogen peroxide, which is used to kill invading bacteria

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114
Q

What are the antibody characteristics of Fy3, Fy4, and Fy5?

A
  • All of the above
  • Reactive at AHG
  • Immunogenic
  • IgG
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115
Q

What finding may protect individuals from making alloanti-Lub in dominant In(Lu) genotypes?

A

The ability to absorb and elute anti-Lub

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116
Q

Persons who are genetically P1 may serologically type as P2 because of:

A

Inheritance of the In(Lu) gene

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117
Q

What biochemical observations signify a protein composition to the Kell antigens?

A

Inactivation at 56 C

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118
Q

Most Kell autoantibodies are directed against which antigens that are usually undefined?

A

High-frequency

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119
Q

Black persons who genotype as Fy4Fy4 will phenotype as:

A

Fy(a-b-)

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120
Q

What is the ISBT designation for the Kell system?

A

006

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121
Q

The Duffy antigens have mobility characteristics similar to what other antigenic structure?

A

MN-SGP

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122
Q

What Kell phenotype is found in highest frequency in the white population?

A

K-k+

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123
Q

All of the following are characteristics of anti-M except:

A

The reacts tronger with enzyme-treated cells

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124
Q

Anti-i is found in association with what disease?

A

IM

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125
Q

What is the ISBT designation for the Kidd blood group system?

A

009

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126
Q

What biochemical substitute is responsible for the i determinant?

A

Two repeating N-acetyllactosamine units on H2 structures

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127
Q

What serologic factor distinguishes anti-Fy3 from anti-Fya or anti-Fyb?

A

It is not destroyed by enzymes

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128
Q

What portion of GPA reacts with anti-EnaFR?

A

Ficin resistant

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129
Q

Persons who phenotype as Fy(a-b-) are resistant to infection by which organism?

A

Plasmodium vivax

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130
Q

Alloanti-Lub will react ______ with Lu(a+b+) cells than/as with Lu(a-b+) cells

A

Weaker

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131
Q

How is the Luke (LKE) system related to the P blood group system?

A

Anti-LKE reacts with all P1 and P2 individuals

132
Q

At birth, infant cells are rich in ______, and is nearly undetectable

A
  • i/I
133
Q

Why is HDN not a consideration when the mother possess anti-P1 in her serum?

A

P1 antigen is poorly expressed at birth

134
Q

All of the following characteristics regarding the Kell antigen are true except:

A

It is destroyed by ficin treatment

135
Q

What is the biochemical structure of the P system antigens?

A

Glycosphingolipids

136
Q

Which of the following is TRUE concerning the I and I antigens?

A

I and i antigens have a reciprocal relationship

137
Q

Anti-Lu3 will be compatible with donor blood from individuals with which of the following phenotypes?

A

Lu(a-b-)

138
Q

Where are the P antigens found?

A
  • all of the above
  • RBCs
  • platelets
  • Tissue fibroblasts
139
Q

What amino acid is specific for S antigen?

A

Methionine

140
Q

Why does anti-Lua go undetected in routine testing?

A

Most reagent cells are Lu(a-)

141
Q

Why was U antigen included n the MNSs blood group system?

A

All U-negative RBCs were also S-s

142
Q

Duffy antigens are destroyed by:

A

Ficin

143
Q

A person who inherits the In(Lu) gene will not express which antigens?

A

Lua

144
Q

Dithiothreitol (DTT), when used alone, can destroy antigens in which blood group system?

A

Kell

145
Q

The gene that codes for P1 is located on which chromosome?`

A

22

146
Q

What class of immunoglobulin makes up anti-Lua?

A
  • All of the above
  • IgG
  • IgA
  • IgM
147
Q

Which population has the greatest frequency of the Fy(a-b-) phenotype?

A

Black

148
Q

Anti-Fs is more likely to react with which cells?

A

Fy(a-b-)

149
Q

The Miltenberger subsystem is related to what major blood group system?

A

MNSs

150
Q

How were Aua and Aub initially linked to the Lutheran system?

A

Suppression by In(Lu) gene

151
Q

Patient diagnosed with________, where the autoantibody is directed against the K antigen, may exhibit a diminished expression of antigen?

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

152
Q

What is the most common Lutheran phenotype in the white population?

A

Lu(a-b+)

153
Q

How do MN antigens differ in their biochemical protein structure?

A

N contains glutamic acid at position 5 and M contains glycine

154
Q

Anti-Lua is destroyed by what enzymes?

A

Trypsin

155
Q

Which organ removes cells coated with Jk antibodies from circulation?

A

Liver

156
Q

All of the following are characteristics of anti-P1 except:

A

The antibody is not neutralized by soluble P1 substance

157
Q

What is Kell’s antithetical partner
?

A

Cellano

158
Q

Autoantibodies to U antigen may be found in patients with:

A

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

159
Q

What name is attached to the Ena antigen?

A

Envelope

160
Q

Which has been shown to define the Duffy receptor that plasmodium vivax uses to penetrate RBCs?

A

Anti-Fy6

161
Q

What is unique about the Kpa antigen?

A

It suppresses the espresso on of k and Jsb

162
Q

All of the following characteristics are consistent with benign anti-I except:

A

It does not bind to complement

163
Q

Why are the M and N antigens important for paternity testing?

A

Antigens are well developed at birth

164
Q

Hemolysis associated with ficin-treated cells is more common with which RBCs?

A

Jk(a+b-)

165
Q

Why are P1 individuals susceptible to urinary tract infections by Escherichia coli?

A

E. Coli attach to antigen glycolipids on uroepithelial cells

166
Q

Serologic tests determine a persons:

A

Phenotype

167
Q

What effect do enzyme-treated cells have on anti-I detection?

A

Enhances reactivity

168
Q

A cold antibody panel was performed to help identify an antibody that reacted at room temperature. The results of the panel are as follows: A1-cell = 0, A2 cells = 2+, B cells = 3+, O adult ells = 4+, cord O cells = 1+. This is consistent with which antibody?

A

Anti-IH

169
Q

A patient who had a viral infection suspected to be IM may develop which antibody?

A

Anti-i

170
Q

A woman came in for a cesarean section. The antibody screen was positive with a 3+ reaction in the AHG phase using screening cell I. Screening cells II and III were negative in all phases. A 8-cell panel was performed that paralleled the antibody identified was anti-Kell. What procedure might be helpful in predicting the infants susceptibility for HDN?

A

Determination of the fathers phenotype

171
Q

Type I H antigen in secretions is a product of which of the following genes?

A

Se

172
Q

A patient who recently recovered from a Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection may develop which antibody?

A

Anti-I

173
Q

Antibodies to the blood groups below exhibit dosage except:

A

Kell

174
Q

RBC antigens are written using which of these conventions?

A

Genders are written in italics

175
Q

Which of the following techniques/reagents may be useful in increasing the reactivity of anti-M?

A

Acidified serum techniques

176
Q

Name the substance used to neutralize antibodies to P1

A

Hydatid cyst fluid

177
Q

You have a patient with Anti-P1. Theoretically, how many units would be compatible if you set up 10 unit of blood?

A

2

178
Q

Enzymes destroy the antigens of which of the following blood groups?

A

*All of the above
- N
- M
- Fya

179
Q

Which antigen(s) is/are antithetical partners to s?

A

MN

180
Q

What antibody gives a 1+ reaction in undiluted and diluted samples?

A

High titer, low avidity

181
Q

Which group of antigens below best represents the definition of high- frequency antigens?

A

Jsb, Kpb

182
Q

A patient presented in the emergency room needing to be transfused ASAP. According to the computer, the patient has a Kell antibody 5 years ago. The antibody screen is negative now. Of the following, the best procedure to obtain suitable blood for transfusion is:

A

To antigens type the units for Kell and completely crossmatch the negative ones

183
Q

Which of the following blood groups in inherited from the parents but absent at birth?

A

Fya

184
Q

Which of the following are written in the order of allele, antigen and phenotype?

A

A^1, A1, Av1

185
Q

Which of the follow lists of phenotypes is written correctly?

A

S+s+; K- ; Fy(a+b-)

186
Q

RBCs from an adult are suspected of having a rare i-antigen. Which of the following reactions is expected with these cells?

A
  • Anti-I weak; Anti-I strong; Anti-I^T-weak
187
Q

Cord blood cells and adults cells that have the rare i phenotype will both demonstrate which reaction?

A

Weak with anti-I and strong with anti-i

188
Q

All of the following antigens are found on reagent screening cells except:

A

Jsa

189
Q

Which of the following statements concerning acid equates is false?

A

The pH of the eluate remains at 3 before testing against a panel

190
Q

What screening cells are used primarily for testing donor units for unexpected antibodies?

A

Pooled

191
Q

When performing the elution procedure, the solution containing the recovered antibody is called:

A

Eluate

192
Q

What is the purpose of Coombs control cells?

A
  • All of the above
  • to ensure that AHG tests with negative results are not false-negatives
  • to ensure that washing removed all unbound antibody
  • to ensure that AHG was not omitted or inactivated
193
Q

In what test might rouleaux cause an interference?

A

Reverse ABO grouping

194
Q

What is elution?

A

A technique used to dissociate IgG antibodies from sensitized RBCs

195
Q

A patient with a warm autoantibody has a positive DAT. The antibody screen was negative, but the eluate reacted uniformly with all normal cells and patient cells What was the antibody screen negative?

A

The warm autoantibody has bound to patient RBCs in circulation

196
Q

The process of removing antibody from serum by combining a serum sample with appropriate RBCs under optimal conditions is called:

A

Absorption

197
Q

How does LISS enhance antibody detection in the antibody screen’?

A

Increases the rate at which antibody bind to RBC antigens

198
Q

Which cells are employed to removed autoantibody from patient serum without removing any alloantibody from serum?

A

Patient RBCs

199
Q

What would be a realistic source of finding compatible units for a person with an antibody to a high-frequency antigen?

A

Siblings

200
Q

Why is it important to match the lot number on the panel sheet with the lot number on the panel cells?

A

Pattern of reactions will change from lot to lot

201
Q

Which of the following high-frequency antigens do not abuse in vivo RBC destruction when completed with corresponding antibody?

A

Cha

202
Q

A person has developed an antibody to the LISS reagent. What test will not be affected by this circumstance?

A
  • DAT
203
Q

Which of the following statements is correct concerning cold antibody screens?

A

Patient serum is incubated with group O adult and cord RBCs at 4C

204
Q

Routine pretransfusion testing consists of all of the following except:

A

A DAT

205
Q

A positive auto control in antibody detection procedures is usually indicative of:

A

Positive DAT

206
Q

In the interpreting an antibody screen, which of the following questions might be asked to decipher the class of antibody?

A

In what phase did the reaction occur?

207
Q

Why is an enzyme treatment used in antibody ID?

A
  • Enzymes aid in the seperation and ID of multiple antibodies and the absorption of autoantibody from patient serum
208
Q

Which of the following is a mechanism of an elution procedure?

A

Disruption of structural complementarity of antigen and antibody

209
Q

Neutralization of antibody is applicable to all of the following blood groups except:

A

Rh

210
Q

What determines if a RBC antibody is clinically significant?

A

Shortened RBC survival

211
Q

Why are screening cells group O?

A

To prevent interference with anti-A and anti-B in patient serum

212
Q

Cold reactive autoantibodies can be selectively removed from patient serum by adsorption with autologous RBCs. What other cell cans be used?

A

Rabbit RBCs

213
Q

Why is rouleaux not usually found in the AHG phase of antibody screens?

A
  • patient serum is washed away before adding AHG
214
Q

What is the most common use of adsorption?

A

Removal autoantibody from patient serum

215
Q

What is a positive DAT?

A

In vivo sensitization of RBC with antibody

216
Q

Which is the second phase of a hemagglutination reaction?

A

Agglutination

217
Q

What test is used to confirm the efficacy of chloroquine treatment?

A

DAT

218
Q

What antibody is associated with a mixed-Field reaction?

A

Sda

219
Q

Why is it important for screening cells to be from individuals who have a homozygous expression of antigens?

A

Weakly reacting antibodies may not agglutinate heterozygous cells

220
Q

How is an antibody ruled in?

A

Three RBC samples positive for antigen show reactivity; three RBC samples negative for the antigen show no reactivity

221
Q

What can be concluded in a patient who has anti-K identified in his serum but phenotypes positive for K antigen?

A

Patient was recently transfused with K-positive blood and anti-K was misidentified

222
Q

What is tested is an antibody screen?

A

Patient serum is tested against group O reagent screening cells

223
Q

What effects does ZZAP reagent have on sensitized RBCs?

A

*All of the above
- removes antibody from RBCs
- enzyme treats RBCs
- increase adsorption capability of RBCs

224
Q

What is a possible explanation for nonreactive eluate?

A
  • positive DAT due to drugs
225
Q

Why are antibodies to high frequency antigens, such as cellano (k), rarely seen in patient samples?

A

Most persons are not anti genially stimulated to produce the antibody, because their RBCs are positive for the antigen

226
Q

What might a positive antibody screen and a negative auto control indicate?

A

An alloantibody has been detected

227
Q

When might you suspect multiple antibodies in a patients serum?

A
  • All of the above
  • pattern of reactivity not fitting a single antibody
  • variations in phase of reactivity
  • variation in antibody reactivity strength
228
Q

In what circumstances would be an alloadsorption be performed?

A

Multiple antbodies in serum

229
Q

One drop of Coombs control cells was added to a negative antibody screen. No agglutination was observed after centrifugation. What course of action is taken?

A

Repeat the test

230
Q

What are antibody titration studies warranted?>

A

During pregnancy

231
Q

What is the simplest way of reducing the inference from benign cold autoantibodies in antibody screening procedures?

A

Use monospecific IgG

232
Q

A 2-unit crossmatch was ordered on a patient in the emergency room. The patients antibody screen was negative. One unit was compatible and the other was incompatible at AHG. If the patients antibody screen was negative and the donor has no history of antibodies, what outdo be the reasons for this reaction?

A
  • Options A and B
  • the patients serum has an antibody to a low-frequency antigen not present on screening cells
  • the donor has a positive DAT
233
Q

What test must be performed on a patient with a warm autoantibody in their serum before transfusing?

A

Warm autoadsorption

234
Q

During an antibody ID, there was 1+ reaction at AHG with donor cells with the antigen profile Fya(+), Fyb(+). Given these results, what might the conclusion?

A

Single antibody (showing dosage)

235
Q

What is the purpose of treating serum containing cold autoantibodies with dithiothreitol (DTT) or 2-mercapthoethanol (2-ME)?

A

To denature IgM cold autoantibody and test serum for presence of IgG allantibody

236
Q

What is the first step in reading hemagglutination reactions?

A

Checking supernatant for hemolysis

237
Q

How many units would you likely have to screen to find two compatible units for someone with the following antibodies: anti-C, anti-Lea, anti-Jkb ?

A

32

238
Q

Why might some blood banking facilities prefer the use of monospecific IgG over polyspecific antihuman globulin (AHG) in their antibody screens??

A
  • interference from naturally occurring cold antibodies in patient serum in reduced
239
Q

What is the purpose of saline washing in the antibody screen procedure?

A

Removal of unbound IgG that would neutralize the AHG reagent

240
Q

Why can’t autoadsorption be performed on a patient who was transfused 1 month before?

A

Donor cells might adsorb out alloantibody in serum

241
Q

All of the following antigens are interacted by poroteolyti enzymes except:

A

C

242
Q

When should multiple antibodies be suspected in a positive antibody screen?

A

Cells react at different phases and strengths

243
Q

How is chloroquine diphosphate used in blood banking ?

A

To accurately phenotype patient cells when the DAT is positive

244
Q

Tests itch which AHG reagents can determine if IgG, complement or both are coating RBCs?

A

Polyspecific

245
Q

Which of the following is known as the “sensitization phase” in the antibody screen?

A

37C incubation

246
Q

What is an antigen profile sheet
?

A

An insert listing the antigenic makeup of each vial of screening cells

247
Q

What makes up an autologous control?

A

Patient serum and patient cells

248
Q

Why should only homozygous cells be used to rule out an antibody?

A

Weakly reacting antibody may not react with heterozygous cells

249
Q

In the autoabsorption procedure for the removal of cold autoagglutininins from serum, pretreatment of the patients RBCs with which of the following reagents is helpful:

A

Ficin

250
Q

In which scenario can an antibody be ruled out?

A

patient serum does not react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antigen

251
Q

What is done with a patients serum after an autoadsorption technique has been performed?

A

Alloantibody ex are identified, and the serum can be used for compatibility testing

252
Q

What is the final step in antibody ID?

A

Phenotype patients RBCs for corresponding antigen

253
Q

A doctor has ordered 4 units of RBCs for a patient with anti-E in his serum. How many units would have to be screened to yield 4 E-negative units?

A

6

254
Q

How many neutralization aid in the ID of multiple antibodies?

A

Once antibody has been neutralized serum can be further tested in panel studies

255
Q

What does a panel of reagent RBCs consist of?

A

11 to 20 group O RBC suspensions

256
Q

If you suspect anti-C is present in a patients serum, and anti-Fya still has to be ruled out using other reagent cells, what would the phenotype of the rule out cell have to be?

A

Fy(a+), C-, Fy(b-)

257
Q

Cells that have antibody attached to them but are still separated from one another are:

A

Sensitized

258
Q

What is the advantage of having a 3-cell panel screen versus a 2-cell panel screen?

A
  • All of the above
  • more cells in the homozygous state that show dosage
  • you can narrow down the specificity of the AB better
  • you might detect more rare antibodies
259
Q

Name a disease in which your positive D control might be positive

A

Multiple myeloma

260
Q

The electrical force that exists between RBCs is:

A
  • all of the above
  • called the zeta potential
  • due to the net negative charge of the RBC membrane
  • related to the voltage or potential that exists at the surface of the RBC and the other layer of the ionic cloud
261
Q

Pseudoagglutination:

A
  • all of the above
  • is frequently associated with alterations in serum proteins
  • occurs when serum viscosity is increased
  • an confused with panagglutination
262
Q

While performing an antibody screen, a test reaction is observed that is suspected to be rouleaux. A saline replacement test is done, and the reaction remains. What is the best interpretation?

A
  • the original reaction was due to true agglutination
263
Q

Of the antibodies listed below, which does NOT fit with the others in terms of the optimal temperature of reactivity?

A

Anti-E

264
Q

Antibodies formed as the result of RBC stimulation in the patient are known as:

A

Immune

265
Q

Antibodies resulting from exposure to pollen, fungus, or bacteria are known as:

A

Naturally occurring

266
Q

A laboratory employee who previously tested negative in a donor antibody screen is now testing positive after having had an intravenous immunoglobulin treatment for needle-stick exposure. Which type of antibody has this person formed?

A

Passive

267
Q

The AABB’s Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services requires antibody screen of all populations listen below except:

A

Prenatal patients

268
Q

In which section of the blood banks laboratory would blood be issued for transfusion?

A
  • main laboratory
269
Q

Electronic cross matching

A

Must be confirm current with historical recipients ABO group

270
Q

What tests are involved when a physician orders a 4-unit crossmatch on a patient?

A

ABO, Rh, antibody screen, IS crossmatch

271
Q

Which patient information is NOT acceptable as one of the two identifiers?

A

Hair and skin color

272
Q

Which of the following might be used to investigate a cold autoantibody?

A

Rabbit erytrhocyte stroma

273
Q

A positive DAT may be seen in:

A
  • All of the above
  • warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  • cold agglutinins syndrome
    -hemolytic transfusion reaction
274
Q

Why are monoclonal anti-D reagents preferred over the slide test reagents?

A

They contain a low protein concentration and are not prone to false-positive reactions

275
Q

If an intrauterine transfusion is indicated, which of the following is acceptable?

A

Only type O RBCs

276
Q

Immediate spin resulting in agglutination may be caused by:

A

Cold reacting allo- or autoantibodies

277
Q

Why is reviewing a potential recipient’s historical data important?

A

All of these are reasons to review patient historical data

278
Q

Which cells are used for a donors antibody screen?

A

Pooled screening cells (2 donors)

279
Q

Which of the following would prolong labeling of the packed RBC unit?

A

*none of the above

280
Q

What one forward-typing reagent can be used to confirm O units collected from another facility?

A

Anti-A,B

281
Q

All of the following procedures might be done in an investigation of an ABO discrepancy expect:

A

Neutralization studies with urine

282
Q

The label on the recipients pretransfusion specimen

A

Must duplicate patient wristband information

283
Q

Where can an ID band be placed on a double arm amputee?

A
  • all of these
  • ankle
  • head
  • torso
284
Q

Blood is collected Saturday in the emergency room for possible transfusion. The patient is admitted to the hospital and on Wednesday it is determined that the transfusion is truly needed

A

The specimen must be recollected because more than 3 days have passed since

285
Q

How are 8 units of cryoprecipitate usually issued?

A

As one pooled units

286
Q

A three-cell antibody screening set provides _______ antigen expression in all major blood group systems expect Kell

A

Homozygous

287
Q

A 40-year old male presented in the ER with acute bleeding. The technologist received a specimen but was unable to resolve a typing discrepancy between the forward and reverse typings. What blood type should the patient receive for emergency transfusion?

A

O-negative uncrossmatced packed RBCs

288
Q

All of the following viral tests are required for donor processing except:

A

CMV

289
Q

What is the main concern for obstetric patients in prenatal testing?

A

Antibody that causes HDN

290
Q

In which department of the blood bank laboratory would an ABO discrepancy be resolved?

A

Reference laboratory

291
Q

A proper blood ban specimen is good for how many days after it is drawn from a patient that has had a prior transfusion within 90 days?

A

3 days

292
Q

Which of the following options are suitability requirements for product labeling?

A
  • All of the above
  • absence of detectable antibodies
  • No discrepancies in ABO and Rh testing
  • Nonreactive viral marker tests
293
Q

Why would an Rh type be ordered on a cord blood sample?

A

To determine mothers candidacy for RhIG if she is Rh-negative

294
Q

Which of the following would lead to nonacceptance of a blood bank specimen?

A
  • All of above
  • initials of phlebotomist not on specimen
  • A patient name spelled incorrectly
  • an erroneous Social security number
295
Q

The advantages of electronic crossmatching as compared to serologic crossmatch include

A

*all of these
- less specimen is required
- less time is required
- automatic alters of discrepancy

296
Q

Why can the Rh-hr control be eliminated from donor processing?

A
  • An Rh-negative unit of blood typed as an Rh-positive would only be transfused to an Rh-positive patient
297
Q

Patient blood management programs:

A

Are based on patient evidence

298
Q

Personalized medicine involves:

A
  • All of these
  • individualized treatment for patients
  • prevention of alloimmunization
  • the use of a national database
299
Q

Which patient undergoing a bone marrow transplant?

A
  • patient undergoing a bone marrow transplant
300
Q

It is December 1, 2017, and you irradiate an O-negative packed RBC that you have in inventory, which outdates January 5, 2018. What will the new outdate be for that unit?

A

December 29, 2017

301
Q

A STAT type and screen comes from surgery. Your institution uses a blood bank band ID bracelet system. The nurse who obtained specimens did not label them with the blood bank number before she handed them to transport to take to the laboratory. What would be the most appropriate action to take?

A

Reject the specimen and have it recollected

302
Q

Possible reasons for incompatibilities after initial pain during a crossmatch include:

A
  • all of these reasons
  • new alloantibody in recipients plasma
  • alloantibody to a low-incidence present is on the donor unit RBCs
  • warm-reactive autoantibody is present in the recipients plasma
303
Q

After completing an antibody screen using the gel testing method, results after centrifugation yield a pellet of unagglutinated cells at the bottom of the micro tube and a thin layer of cells at the top gel column. This situation commonly indicates:

A

That fibrin from serum that has not clotted completely

304
Q

The indicator cells used to detect antibodies in a solid phase technology are:

A

AHG-coated RBCs

305
Q

Which of the following factors are likely to cause false-positive results while using gel technology?

A
  • All of the above
  • Lipemia
  • icteric sample
  • rouleaux
306
Q

Upon centrifugation of an antibody screen procedure done by the gel system, the RBC agglutinates are disguised throughout the gel Column with a few agglutinates at the bottom of the microtubes. This reaction should be graded as a:

A

2+ reaction

307
Q

The FDA has approved the ________ for application of gel technology

A

ABO, Rh, DAT, antibody screen and ID, as well as crossmatching

308
Q

When performing an antibody screen by gel technology, the following steps are eliminated:

A

The saline wash and control check cells

309
Q

The gel system has all of the the following advantages over the traditional tube procedure except:

A

Different grading system

310
Q

Which of the following tests is not available for both the gel testing method and solid phase technology?

A

DAT

311
Q

If you had a lipemic and icteric sample that needed to have an antibody screen done, which of the following would obtain the best results?

A

SPRCA

312
Q

In a gel-based technology, the solid band at the top of the gel indicates a_________, whereas formation of a pellet at the bottom of the microtubes indicates__________.

A

4+ reaction/a negative reaction

313
Q

Using the affinity column techniques, a serologic reaction that forms a fine RBC band at the top of gel column and a RBC button at the bottom of the gel column is interpreted as:

A

Mixed-field

314
Q

Low ionic strength saline (LISS) is added to antibody screening methods for which of the following test systems?

A

SPRCA

315
Q

The washing procedure is applicable to which of the following serological methods?

A

Solid phase and tube system

316
Q

A layer of RBCs agglutinates at the top of the gel media, and a pellet of unagglutinated RBCs forms at the bottom. These findings are comparable to which of the following reactions in the test tube?

A

Mixed-tube

317
Q

In performing an antibody screen by the solid phase technique, a monolayer of RBCs is formed at the top of the micro plate wells following the addition of indicator cells. This result should be interpreted as:

A

Positive

318
Q

Using the gel test system, the technologist used a 3% cell solution. What would be the probable outcome ?

A

Weaker results because of the increase in antigen/antibody ratio

319
Q

Which of the following is a factor in possible false-positive results when using the gel system to screen for antibodies?

A
  • All of the above
  • bacterial contamination
  • temperature
  • time
320
Q

Which of the following statements is the most accurate? A mixed-filed in the gel system:

A

Needs to have further testing performed

321
Q

Which of the following substances may interfere with gel technology but not SPRCA technology?

A
  • All of the above
  • hemolysis
  • lipemia
  • icteric samples
322
Q

SPRCA testing requires the use of all these specialized microplate equipment except:

A

Thermal cycler

323
Q

Manufacturers Grifrols and Ortho both produce automated blood bank equipment that uses

A

Column agglutination technology

324
Q

Special pipette are required for this method

A

Column agglutination technology

325
Q

True or False: An anti-M detected by using gel AHG antibody screening cards is considered clinically insignificant

A

False