Final

Question 1

Which metabolic pathway is responsible for generating 90% of the ATP for the RBC>?

Answer 1

Glycolysis

Question 2

A unit of blood was refund to the blood bank before it was Spiked. Apparently the patients IV failed. The unit of blood was outside the blood bank for 35 minutes?

Answer 2

The unit of blood must be transfused within 4 hours or be discarded at the end of that time

Question 3

What effect does storage have on platelet?

Answer 3

Lysis

Question 4

In the normal Hb-oxygen dissociation curve. What % of oxygen is released to the tissues when PO2 averages 40 mm Hg?

Answer 4

25%

Question 5

What factors are known to influence platelet metabolism and function?

Answer 5

All of the above

Question 6

Which of the following RBC morphology may be present on the PB smear as a result of loss of RBC membrane?

Answer 6

Spherocytes

Question 7

What is the primary function of Hb?

Answer 7

Oxygen transport

Question 8

All of the following areas of RBC morphology are crucial for normal erythrocyte survival except:

Answer 8

Site of the ABO antigen attachment

Question 9

What is the correct biochemical composition of the RBC membrane>

Answer 9

52% proteins
40% lipids
8% carbohydrates

Question 10

All of the following biochemical changes are associated with loss of RBC viability upon storage except

Answer 10

Increased ATP level

Question 11

Which RBC cell preservatives has a storage time of 35 days?

Answer 11

CPDA-1

Question 12

The RBC membrane is relatively permeable to all of the following except:

Answer 12

Sodium

Question 13

RBC frozen using the high-concentration glycerol technique are usually stored at

Answer 13

-65 C

Question 14

What is the major biochemical consideration in platelet storage?

Answer 14

Regulation of pH

Question 15

What would the Hb-oxygen dissociation curve depict in a patient exhibiting clinical signs of alkalosis?

Answer 15

Shift to the left

Question 16

Name the main lipid components of RBC membrane

Answer 16

Phospholipids

Question 17

The ABO blood groups were discovered in 1901 by whom?

Answer 17

Karl Landsteiner

Question 18

A standing order of platelets was shipped to your facility by your supplier. It was inadvertently left in the corner of the department until discovered 36 hours later. What would the appropriate action be for the blood banker?

Answer 18

The platelets have fallen outside of suppliers quality assurance. The unit should be discarded because the pH has probably dropped too low and platelet activation has been compromised

Question 19

Which metabolic pathway permits the accumulation of 2,3-DPG?

Answer 19

Luebering-Rapoport Shunt

Question 20

All of the following are consistent with “shift to the right” of the Hb-oxygen dissociation curve except:

Answer 20

Decreased 2,3-DPG

Question 21

Why are platelets transfusion performed?

Answer 21

Both reasons

Question 22

What cryoprotective agent is added to RBC upon freezing
?

Answer 22

Glycerol

Question 23

If platelets are to be stored for 5 days a rotator, what is the optimal storage temperature?

Answer 23

20-24 C

Question 24

Platelets are transfused to play which role in hemostasis?

Answer 24

All of above

Question 25

Which of the following best describes “integral” membrane proteins?

Answer 25

Span the entire membrane surface

Question 26

How is stroma-free Hb solution prepared?

Answer 26

Outdated RBCs are lysed, and stroma is removed

Question 27

What is the normal life span of an RBC?

Answer 27

120 days

Question 28

Regarding loss of RBC membrane deformability, all of the following are true except:

Answer 28

Increase in ATP level

Question 29

One of the most important control of Hb’s affinity for oxygen is

Answer 29

2,3-DPG

Question 30

The normal position for oxygen dissociation curve depends on three ligands normally found within the RBC. Which one of the following is not one of these ligands?

Answer 30

Na+

Question 31

Which of the following events does not occur while RBCs are stored?

Answer 31

2,3 DPG levels increase

Question 32

In order to maintain ATP levels in stored blood, ______ can be added to CPD to extended the shelf-life of stored RBcs from 21-35 days. This new preservative designated as CPDA-1

Answer 32

Adenine and glucose

Question 33

Which type of blood storage contained is no longer available for use in the US because it may limit the viability of RBCs

Answer 33

Glass bottles

Question 34

A rare unit of blood became outdated 48 hours ago but is needed for a patient. Which of the following concepts applies to this situation?

Answer 34

The blood could be rejuvenated with rejuvesol, washed and given immediately to the patient

Question 35

FDA-approved rejuvenation solution contains all of the following except

Answer 35

Glycerin

Question 36

Rejuvenated RBCs may be prepared up to three days after expiration when stored in all of these except

Answer 36

ACD

Question 37

When is the correct count increment (CCI) of platelets usually determined?

Answer 37

10-60 minutes after transfusion

Question 38

Which of the following is not a major factor that influences platelet shape and activation while the platelet is in storage?

Answer 38

Volume

Question 39

Proper agitation of platelets while they are being stored is:

Answer 39

Important because the pH of the stored platelets will descrease and the platelets will lose functionality

Question 40

Which of the following is licensed additive solutions approved by for the storage for RBCs for 42 days?

Answer 40

All of the above

Question 41

When 1,000 donors were tested, 75% were positive for C and 25% were negative for C; the gene frequency of C is:

Answer 41

0.5

Question 42

All of the following may cause an alteration in DNA except

Answer 42

Enzymes

Question 43

How s it genetically possible for a child to type Rh-negative?

Answer 43

Both parents are Dd

Question 44

all of the following are included in transcription except

Answer 44

• mRNA terminated at the 5’ end

Question 45

Which of the following best describes the structure of human chromosomes?

Answer 45

Linear strands of DNA would around histones

Question 46

In Mendel’s law of separation, the first filial generation is

Answer 46

Heterozygous

Question 47

A father carries the Xa trait and passes it on to all of his daughter but none of his son. What type of inheritance does this represent?

Answer 47

X-linked dominant

Question 48

Methods to isolate intact DNA in order for it to be studied include all of the following except

Answer 48

Heat treatment

Question 49

Point mutations include which of the following

Answer 49

Substitutions, insertions, and deletions

Question 50

Which of the following best describes the process of mitosis?

Answer 50

Cell division that produces two daughter cells having the same number of chromosomes as the parent

Question 51

All of the following process occur in replication, except

Answer 51

DNA polymerase acts on the 3’ and 5’ parent strand to produce anti-complementary duplicate strand

Question 52

Which types of genetic change (mutation) on incapable of reverting back to the original phenotype?

Answer 52

Deletion

Question 53

In the MN blood group system, a person who inherits an “M” allele and an “N” allele expresses both M and N antigens on the RBCs. Which of the following is true?

Answer 53

M and N are codominant alleles

Question 54

A gene, such as the O gene, that produces no detectable product is called

Answer 54

An amorph

Question 55

What blood group sis the best example of codominantely inherited blood group genes?

Answer 55

MN

Question 56

When in individual is said to have blood group A , it refers to the individuals

Answer 56

Phenotype

Question 57

The two strands of DNA are: ______ out runs in a 5’ to 3’ direction, and the other run in a 3’ to 5’ direction

Answer 57

Anti-parallel

Question 58

In what stage of mitosis is DNA not actively dividing?

Answer 58

Interphase

Question 59

How many chromsomes do somatic cells of humans have?

Answer 59

46

Question 60

The diploid chromosome number in humans is:

Answer 60

46

Question 61

Which constituent in the Hardy-Weinberg principle fail?

Answer 61

All of the above

Question 62

What amino acid initiates translation by attaching to tRNA?

Answer 62

Methionine

Question 63

What is meant by the term autosomal?

Answer 63

Trait is to carried on the sex chromosomes

Question 64

Which of the following best describes classical genetics?

Answer 64

Transmission of characteristics from parents to offspring

Question 65

How is RNA different from DNA?

Answer 65

All of the above

Question 66

A triples set of nucleotides is a

Answer 66

Codon

Question 67

A human gamete (egg or sperm) contains how many chromosomes?

Answer 67

23 chromosomes

Question 68

How do restriction endonucleases function?

Answer 68

Cut DNA into small fragments

Question 69

DNA is composed of all of the following except:

Answer 69

Uracil

Question 70

A woman with blood group A marries a man with blood group O. Their firstborn child has blood group O. The mothers most probable genotype is

Answer 70

AO

Question 71

A structural alteration of DNA in an organism that is caused by physical or chemical agent is called:

Answer 71

Mutation

Question 72

What is a vector?

Answer 72

Extrachromosomal genetic element that can carry a recombinant DNA molecules into a host bacterial cell

Question 73

Which of the following must be true when using the Hardy-Weinberg equation?

Answer 73

All of the above

Question 74

Alternate forms of a gene that can occur at a single a chromome locus are referred to as:

Answer 74

Alleles

Question 75

The condition in which one chromosome has a copy of the gene and the other chromosome has that gene deleted or absent is referred to as:

Answer 75

Hemizygous

Question 76

Most antigens in the various blood group systems follow what kind of inheritance patterns?

Answer 76

Codominant

Question 77

All of the following are consistent with Mendel’s basic rules of inheritance except:

Answer 77

A pair of genes is always found in the same gamete

Question 78

Only 5% of Kell-negative individuals will develop antibodies to Kell if exposed to the Kell antigen, whereas 50-70% of Rh(D)-negative individuals would produce antibodies to D upon exposure. What is the reason for this?

Answer 78

Difference in the immunogenicity

Question 79

What is the definition of of an Immunoglobin?

Answer 79

A protein molecule produced in response to an antigen

Question 80

IgG-coated RBCs will be phagocystized by what effector cells?

Answer 80

Monocytes/macrophages

Question 81

What class of immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta

Answer 81

IgG

Question 82

What is the responsible for recognition of the antibody-binding site to homologous antigen?

Answer 82

Variable region of light/heavy chain

Question 83

At what temperature do IgM antibodies react?

Answer 83

22 C

Question 84

What is a possible explanation for a weak reaction (1+) in a reverse ABO grouping test?

Answer 84

All of the above

Question 85

How can T cells be differentiated from B cells?

Answer 85

All of the above

Question 86

Which of the following statements is true concerning immunoglobulin variations?

Answer 86

Isotopic refers to all members of a species

Question 87

What test is used to remove autoantibodies from test serum?

Answer 87

Adsorption

Question 88

A person with the genotype MM shows a 3+ reaction when RBCs are mixed with M antisera, whereas a person with the genotype MN shows a 1+ reaction. What phenomenon is this ?

Answer 88

Dosage

Question 89

Name a lymphoid organ in which cells of immune system can be found

Answer 89

all of the above

Question 90

At what age do infants begin to produce their own antibodies?

Answer 90

2-3 weeks?

Question 91

What is the purpose of the anithuman globulin (AHG) test in blood banking?

Answer 91

It detects RBCs coated with antibody by bridging the gap between RBCs

Question 92

Extravascular hemolysis occurs when RBCs are coated with antibody; what organ sequesters these cells?

Answer 92

Reticuloendothelial system

Question 93

Which IgG subclass primarily comprises antibodies to the Rh blood group system?

Answer 93

IgG1, IgG3

Question 94

Which immunoglobulin exists in a pentameric configuration?

Answer 94

IgM

Question 95

All of the following are monoclonal reagents except

Answer 95

Undetectable subgroups of A

Question 96

All of the following are characteristics of as secondary immune response except:

Answer 96

Higher dose of antigen required to form antibodies

Question 97

Which of the following antibodies is considered the most significant in blood banking because it reacts at body temperature?

Answer 97

IgG

Question 98

What does a hemolysis represent in an antigen-antibody reaction?

Answer 98

A positive result

Question 99

When antigen and antibody combine, they are held together by non covalent forces. With the absence of a visible lattice, this stage is called:

Answer 99

Sensitization

Question 100

What Rh type does a mother have to be to produce antibodies to Rh(D) from an Rh-positive infant?

Answer 100

Rh-negative

Question 101

Which immunoglobulin is found in greatest concentration in serum,?

Answer 101

IgG

Question 102

Which antibodies characteristically demonstrate a decreased avidity for antigen?

Answer 102

HTLA

Question 103

What are enzymes used in blood banking?

Answer 103

Salic acid is released from RBCs. Which helps to reduce the zeta potential

Question 104

When there is an excess of antigen in a serological test system, What course of action should be followed?

Answer 104

Increase the serum-to-cell ratio

Question 105

At what temperature do IgG antibodies react optimally?

Answer 105

37 C

Question 106

What cells are responsible for mounting a secondary response when exposure to the same antigens occurs ?

Answer 106

Memory T/B cells

Question 107

In an immune response, what is the time called during which no antibody is detected in the test serum?

Answer 107

Latency period

Question 108

How is the classical pathway of complement activated?

Answer 108

By binding of antigen with antibody

Question 109

What cells are considered polymophnuclear granulocytes?

Answer 109

Eosinophils

Question 110

What is the characteristic of natural killer (NK) cells?

Answer 110

They bind to an lyse antibody-coated cells in ADCC

Question 111

In an immune response, _______ antibodies are formed before _______

Answer 111

IgM, IgG

Question 112

All of the following are true regarding IgM antibodies except:

Answer 112

IgM antibodies form against Kell

Question 113

What does the term zeta potential mean?

Answer 113

The attraction of negative charges on the surface of RBCs to positive charges in an ionic cloud

Question 114

What is the equivalent of Factor D (alternative pathway) in the classic complement pathway ?

Answer 114

C1s

Question 115

Which of the following corresponds to the basic structure of immunoglobin?

Answer 115

Two light chains and two heavy chains held together by covalent disulfide bonds

Question 116

Which of the following are produced after exposure to genetically different nonself antigens of the same species?

Answer 116

Alloantibodies?\

Question 117

An immunogenic substance that reacts with an antibody is

Answer 117

Antigen

Question 118

All of the following are functions performed by the complement systems except:

Answer 118

Decreased vascular permeability

Question 119

What MHC class encodes complement components?

Answer 119

Class III

Question 120

Which blood group antibodies are known to activate complement, leadinf to intravascular hemolysis?

Answer 120

ABO

Question 121

Why is EDTA not conducive to complement activation?

Answer 121

Calcium is inactivated

Question 122

All of the following techniques are used in the laboratory to detect blood group antigens or antibodies except:

Answer 122

ELISA

Question 123

The portion of the immunoglobulin molecule that determines class is the:

Answer 123

Heavy chain

Question 124

All of the following are included in the actions of cytokines except:

Answer 124

Decreases in the number of cell receptors when going from a resting to a reactive state

Question 125

What substances are responsible for the activation of the alternate complement pathway?

Answer 125

Polysaccharides

Question 126

A patient with multiple myeloma exhibits rouleaux formation in an immediate spin cross match. What procedure is recommended to distinguish true RBC agglutination from nonspecific agglutination?

Answer 126

Saline dilution

Question 127

All of the following are characteristics of antigens that affect the type and extent of immune response except:

Answer 127

Genetic locus

Question 128

What is the function of mononuclear phagocytes?

Answer 128

They present processed antigen to lymphocytes

Question 129

Why is low ionic strength solution (LISS) used in blood banking?

Answer 129

It reduces the incubation time

Question 130

Which of the following statements concerning the structure of immunoglobulins is false?

Answer 130

IgM participates in placental transfer

Question 131

The immune response that consists of physical barriers, biochemical effectors, and immune cells is the _______ immune response

Answer 131

Innate

Question 132

Opsonization is

Answer 132

All of the above

Question 133

Which of the following is not true? (1)

Answer 133

MHC molecules are required for B cells to recognize foreign antigens

Question 134

________ are produced by monocytes and lymphocytes to help regulate growth, mobility, and differentiation of leukocytes

Answer 134

Cytokines

Question 135

HLA proteins are coded by what complex?

Answer 135

MHC

Question 136

Anti Jk (Kidd) antibodies are of what class of antibody?

Answer 136

IgG3

Question 137

HDN is most often associated with what class of antibody?

Answer 137

IgG1

Question 138

The four unique serum proteins of the alternative pathway of complement include all but which of the following?

Answer 138

X factor

Question 139

In preparing anti-IgG, how is excess antibody removed for titer adjustment?

Answer 139

Block titration

Question 140

An advantages of polyclonal anti-IgG over monoclonal. Anti-IgG is:

Answer 140

Polyclonal anti-IgG will recognize IgG variants

Question 141

Why is incubation omitted in the direct AHG test?

Answer 141

In vivo antigen antibody complex is already formed

Question 142

Which of the following is consistent with HDN?

Answer 142

Maternal antibody coating fetal RBCs

Question 143

What is the incubation time for the IAT when saline is used instead of LISS?

Answer 143

30 minutes

Question 144

The antihuman globulin (AHG)test was discovered in 1945 by whom?

Answer 144

Coombs

Question 145

A patient came in for a routine type and screen prior to surgery. The antibody screening was negative at 37 C and at the AHG phase. Check cells did not produce agglutination often. What is a possible explanation for this?

Answer 145

Inadequate washing

Question 146

What effect does a low pH have on a saline AHG test?

Answer 146

Enhances antibody elution

Question 147

At what temperature is the incubation phase of the AHG test?

Answer 147

37 C

Question 148

Most clinically significant blood group antibodies are of which IgG subclasses?

Answer 148

IgG1 and IgG3

Question 149

Polyspecific AHG contains

Answer 149

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

Question 150

“Complete” agglutinins RBCs in saline are of which immunoglobulin class?

Answer 150

IgM

Question 151

What do “check cells” contain?

Answer 151

Rh(D)+ RBCs coated with anti-D

Question 152

All of the following are important in evaluating a positive DAT except

Answer 152

Donation history

Question 153

The indirect antiglobulin test detects which antigen-antibody reactions?

Answer 153

In vitro

Question 154

What is the action of PEG?

Answer 154

Removes water molecules, thereby concentrating antibody

Question 155

How many IgG molecules must be present on the RBC for a positive IAT to occur?

Answer 155

100

Question 156

All of the following condition may produce a positive DAT except:

Answer 156

Lymphoma

Question 157

Which IgG antibodis are contained in polyspecific AHG?

Answer 157

High titer, high avidity

Question 158

All of the following complement proteins can be found on the RBC membrane except

Answer 158

C4a

Question 159

A patient is discovered to have anti-Fya in the serum. The medical technologist needs to phenotype the patients cells for the corresponding antigen. What test is appropriate for phenotyping?

Answer 159

IAT

Question 160

Why are check cells added to all negative reactions in the AHG test?

Answer 160

To ensure AHG was not neutralized by free globulin molecules

Question 161

What type of globulin does the antiglobulin test detect?

Answer 161

All of the above

Question 162

How is polyclonal antiglobulin serum made?

Answer 162

Human serum is injected into rabbits, and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody

Question 163

All of the following statements regarding the AHG test true except

Answer 163

Incubation time with LISS should be a minimum of 30 minutes

Question 164

What class of antibody can be present in AHG?

Answer 164

All of the above

Question 165

An antibody screen is performed, and all three tubes are negative after adding AHG. Check cells are added, and the tubes are centrifuged. No agglutination occurs after the addiction of check cells. What is the next course of action?

Answer 165

Repeating the antibody screen

Question 166

Conventional tube testing in AHG testing has one distinct advantage over gel testing. Identify the advantage

Answer 166

Cost

Question 167

An advantage of monoclonal anti-C3 over polyclonal anti-C3 is

Answer 167

With monoclonal antibodies-C3, the antibody potency can be controlled

Question 168

Anti-IgG is specific for what part of the IgG molecule?

Answer 168

FC fragment

Question 169

What is the purpose of washing cells in the AHG test?

Answer 169

To remove all unbound protein

Question 170

Saline used for blood banking tests should have a pH of ______

Answer 170

7.2-7.4

Question 171

How would a negative IAT be demonstrated in solid phase methodology?

Answer 171

There is a pellet at the bottom of the well.

Question 172

False-negatives results in antihuman globulin testing can be caused by:

Answer 172

All of the above

Question 173

Which of the following antibodies is least likely to bind complement?

Answer 173

Kell

Question 174

Which of the following is not a clinical application for a direct antiglobulin test?

Answer 174

Heterophilic detection

Question 175

What is the optimal temperature for complement activation?

Answer 175

37 C

Question 176

Anti-A from a group B is primarily what class of immunoglobulin?

Answer 176

IgM

Question 177

Which of the following criteria is used to classify the B subgroups?

Answer 177

All of the above

Question 178

Approximately how many antigens sites exist on a type-A individual’s RBC?

Answer 178

1 million

Question 179

What substances are found in a group A secretor?

Answer 179

AH

Question 180

Where are ABH substances detected in secretors?

Answer 180

Tears

Question 181

Which of the following is not characteristic of antibodies within the ABO system?

Answer 181

ABO antibodies do not activate complement

Question 182

A group O person with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia may demonstrate weak reactions in the forward grouping due to:

Answer 182

RBCs being coated with antibody

Question 183

What is a lectin?

Answer 183

seed extracts that agglutinate human cells with moderate specificity

Question 184

What ABO groups contains the least amount of H substance?

Answer 184

A1B

Question 185

What testing is available that will differentiate between a true B and an acquired C?

Answer 185

All of the above

Question 186

What is the source of anti-A1 lectin?

Answer 186

Dolichos biflorus

Question 187

Secretor studies were performed on a person who expressed weak reactions in forward grouping. Only B and H substance were present in the saliva. What is this persons ABO group?

Answer 187

B

Question 188

Serum from a group B individual contains anti-A. When A2 cells are added to serum and centrifuged, the cells with attached anti-A are removed from serum. What is the name of this technique?

Answer 188

Absorption

Question 189

All of the following may result in weak or missing antigens except

Answer 189

Hypogammaglobulinemia

Question 190

What is the biochemical structure of secreted A, B, and H substances?

Answer 190

Glycoprotein

Question 191

Which ABO groups reaction will be the weakest with anti-H lectin?

Answer 191

AB

Question 192

When performing secretor studies, what is omitted in the control tube but present in the patient tube?

Answer 192

Saliva

Question 193

Two drops of serum are added to one drop of A1 cells and two drops are added to one drop of B cells; the two tubes are centrifuged. The tubes shows reactivity when read macroscopically. This is an example of:

Answer 193

Reverse grouping

Question 194

Why is reverse grouping not performed on cord blood specimens?

Answer 194

Antibodies are generally not present at birth

Question 195

If a group O mother give birth to a group A baby, which of the following antibodies is usually responsible for crossing the placenta and causing HDN?

Answer 195

Anti-AB

Question 196

What immunodominant sugar is responsible for H specifcity?

Answer 196

L-fucose

Question 197

What % of type A population is A2?

Answer 197

20%

Question 198

An elderly patient is documented as being type O. The forward group is negative with anti-A and anti-B. The reverse grouping shows no reactivity with A1 cell and B cells. What can be done to correct the discrepancy?

Answer 198

Incubate the patient’s serum and reagent cells for 15 minutes at room temperature

Question 199

What is used to stimulate saliva secretion in secretor studies?

Answer 199

Paraffin wax

Question 200

The ABO group antibodies are primarily:

Answer 200

Naturally occurring

Question 201

What % of the white population has type-O blood?

Answer 201

45%

Question 202

All of the following are technical errors that could result in ABO discrepancies except:

Answer 202

Failure to warm reagents

Question 203

If a type-A person contains anti-M in his or her serum , what might the reverse grouping type as?

Answer 203

O

Question 204

What is the source of anti-B lectin?

Answer 204

Bandeiraea simplicifolia

Question 205

What is the cause of polyagglutination is most cases?

Answer 205

Exposure of T antigen caused by bacterial contamination

Question 206

Which blood group contains the highest concentration of H antigen?

Answer 206

O

Question 207

What is the only possible phenotype of an offspring produced from two group O parents?

Answer 207

4,000 antigenic sites on RBCs

Question 208

Forward grouping is defined as:

Answer 208

Detecting antigen(s) on an individual’s RBCs via reagent antisera

Question 209

What does the hh genotype refer to?

Answer 209

Bombay

Question 210

Approximately how many antigens sites can be found on A2 cells?

Answer 210

260,000

Question 211

Individuals with group B blood are more common among which populations?

Answer 211

Black/Asian

Question 212

A patient was previously typed as blood group O. Forward grouping was negative with anti-A and anti-B. Reverse grouping showed reactivity with A1 and B cells. The technologist reported this patients type as

Answer 212

Clerical error

Question 213

Which substance must be formed first before A or B specificity is determined?

Answer 213

H

Question 214

How are ABH antigens formed?

Answer 214

Production of specific glycosyltransferase add sugars to precursor substances

Question 215

What percentage of A2 individuals produce anti-A1?

Answer 215

5%

Question 216

What would be a possible genotype of an A2B individual?

Answer 216

A2B

Question 217

What % of individuals inherit the secretor gene?

Answer 217

80%

Question 218

What immunodominant sugar is responsible for B specificity?

Answer 218

D-galactose

Question 219

An AB male mates with an AB female. What could be the genotype of the offspring?

Answer 219

All of the above

Question 220

The state in which an individuals RBCs are agglutinated by all sera regardless of blood type is called:

Answer 220

Polyagglutination

Question 221

All of the following are tests performed in the blood bank to classify subgroups of A except:

Answer 221

LISS enhancement

Question 222

All of the following may depress antigen expression except:

Answer 222

Coronary heart disease

Question 223

What % of the type-A population are A1?

Answer 223

80%

Question 224

All of the following may result in rouleaux formation except

Answer 224

Leukemia

Question 225

Weak agglutination with anti-A typing sera is to be expected with which of the following blood groups?

Answer 225

A3

Question 226

Antibody titer specific to antigens from the ABO system are typically highest

Answer 226

When the patient is around 10 years old

Question 227

A1 lection agglutinates

Answer 227

Only A1 cells

Question 228

What is an advantage of using chemically modified anti-D?

Answer 228

It provides a low protein medium

Question 229

The Rh antibody agglutinates what % of RBCs?

Answer 229

85%

Question 230

Why is determination of Rh status crucial from obsteric patients?

Answer 230

All Rh-negative mothers are possible candidate for Rh immune globulin

Question 231

Which antigen represents RH3 in Rosenfield terminology?

Answer 231

E

Question 232

G-antigen is present on all of which type of RBCs?

Answer 232

C-positive

Question 233

What does Rh genotype refer to?

Answer 233

Rh gene inherited from both parents

Question 234

Where is the Rh antigen located relative to the RBC membrane?

Answer 234

Integrally

Question 235

Which of the following statements regarding anti-LW is true?

Answer 235

Anti-LW reacts stronger with Rh-positive cells than with Rh-negative cells

Question 236

Of the three following categories of altered D antigens, in which variation of D antigen expression are you more likely to encounter an allo-anti-D?

Answer 236

Partial D

Question 237

A cord blood sample was sent to the blood bank for a type and DAT. Cells were washed sixties with saline before testing. The forward grouping typed as an O. There was no agglutination with anti-D and washed cord cells. The DAT was 3+ with polyspecific AHG. What is the Rh type of the baby?

Answer 237

Rh type cannot be determined

Question 238

Which gene combination is expressed in the greatest frequency in the black population?

Answer 238

Dce

Question 239

Which of the following genotypes is consistent with f antigen expression?

Answer 239

Dce/DCE

Question 240

How are the Rh antigens inherited?

Answer 240

Codominant alleles

Question 241

All of the following may cause a false-negative reaction in Rh typing except:

Answer 241

Rouleaux

Question 242

In the Fisher-Race nomenclature what does “d” refer to?

Answer 242

All of the above

Question 243

Which of the following genotypes would demonstrate the strongest expression of D antigen?

Answer 243

DCe/dce

Question 244

Most Rh antibodies are of what immunoglobin class?

Answer 244

IgG

Question 245

What clinical manifestation may be associated with the Rh-null syndrome?

Answer 245

All of the above

Question 246

Which IgG subclasses carry the most significance with regard to Rh antibodies?

Answer 246

IgG1/IgG3

Question 247

In which population is the genetic Du usually found?

Answer 247

Black

Question 248

What does hr’ refer to in the wiener nomenclature?

Answer 248

• c

Question 249

All of the following may occur following an Rh-mediated hemolytic transfusion reaction except:

Answer 249

Intravascular hemolysis

Question 250

All of the following are consistent with International society of blood transfusion (ISBT) terminology except:

Answer 250

All genes are written in bold print

Question 251

Rh-immune globulin is effective is prevention which type of HDN?

Answer 251

Anti-D

Question 252

The Rh testing on a blood donor was negative at immediate spin. The tube was incubated at 37 C for 15 minutes. The tube was centrifuged and read macroscopically. The test was negative at 37 C. The tube was washed three times with saline, and two drops of AHG were added. After centrifugation, the tube yielded a 2+ reaction. How is this Rh type reported on the donor unit?

Answer 252

Rh-positive

Question 253

What does the “R” represent in Rh-Hr terminology?

Answer 253

Presence of D antigens

Question 254

What is the basis of Rosenfield Rh terminology?

Answer 254

The positive (+) or negative (-) sign demonstrates the presence of absence of antigen on a RBC

Question 255

In the black population, a mosaic form of which antigen may be found?

Answer 255

• e

Question 256

Which of the following Rh antigens is the most immunogenic?

Answer 256

D

Question 257

What protocol is put in place to validate Rh testing when high-protein reagents are used, especially when the patient types as an AB-positive?

Answer 257

Run a control with Rh test

Question 258

The Del phenotype is most commonly found in individuals of which ethnicity?

Answer 258

Asian

Question 259

What is the frequency of E antigen in the general population?

Answer 259

30%

Question 260

The Rh gene is located on which chromosome?

Answer 260

1

Question 261

What is the principle of the Rh-Hr (Weiner) terminology ?

Answer 261

The Rh gene produces at least three factors within an agglutination

Question 262

What of the following reagents or methods is best for categorizing partial D types?

Answer 262

A combination of serological typing and molecular analysis

Question 263

All of the following are true regarding Rh antibodies except?

Answer 263

Rh antibodies can bind complement on the RBC membrane

Question 264

On which chromosome are the genes that code for RH proteins, namely, RHD and RHCE located?

Answer 264

Chromosome 1

Question 265

When one or more D epitopes within the entire D protein is missing it is termed ________

Answer 265

Partial D

Question 266

A male patient was seen in the emergency room with an acute bleed. The recommended from the blood supplied is to give O-positive RBCs an uncrossmatched blood. This patient has already been exposed to Rh-positive blood after a previous accident. What is a possible outcome?

Answer 266

The patent may have a hemolytic transfusion reaction from an allo-immunized anti-D

Question 267

Anti-LW will react most strongly with:

Answer 267

Adult Rh-positive RBCs

Question 268

Which of the following statements are false? (1)

Answer 268

Anti-D usually stimulates complement

Question 269

When a patient has Rh-null syndrome, what kind of packed RBCs need to be transfused?

Answer 269

ABO compatible Rh-null blood

Question 270

The antigen ceCF is known as:

Answer 270

Crawford antigen

Question 271

Why do false-negative Rh testing results occur in babies with severe HDN due to anti-D?

Answer 271

All D sites are covered by maternal anti-D, which block the reagent

Question 272

Which of the following Rh phenotypes invites C3 antigen testing?

Answer 272

C+c-

Question 273

*Rhig prevents HDN by:

Answer 273

Anti-D

Question 274

*partial D expression patient transfused with/ Rh+ blood:

Answer 274

Forms antibody to the portion missing

Question 275

*Give the genotypes in FR and R forms: D+ C+ E- c- e+

Answer 275

• DCe/DCe : R1R1
• DCe/dCe : R1r1

Question 276

*Weak D is labeled:

Answer 276

Rh positive

Question 277

*Bowel problem in group A individual may type as AB in reverse typing due to:

Answer 277

Acquired B

Question 278

*ABO

Answer 278

Codominant

Question 279

*Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 0
Anti-AB: 4+
A1 cells: 3+
B cells: 4+

Answer 279

Group A2 with anti-A1

Question 280

*Rh antigens in order of greater to least antigenicity:

Answer 280

D > c > E > C > e

Question 281

• Reverse grouping

Answer 281

Patient serum + reagent cells

Question 282

*Homozygous definition

Answer 282

Posses a pair of identical alleles (AA, BB, OO)

Question 283

*Blood groups producing the most H to least H:

Answer 283

O > A2 > B > A2B > A1 > A1B

Question 284

• d signifies:

Answer 284

All of the above

Question 285

Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 4+
A1: 2+
B: 2+
Autocontrol: 2+

What is related to these results?

Answer 285

Multiple myeloma

Question 286

Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 0
A1: 3+
B: +/-
Autocontrol: 0

What is related to these results?

Answer 286

A2 patient making Anti-A1

Question 287

Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 1+
A1: 0
B: 4+
Autocontrol: 0

Answer 287

Acquired B

Question 288

Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 4+
A1: 0
B: 0
Autocontrol: 0

What is related to these results?

Answer 288

Newborn

Question 289

Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 0
A1: 0
B: +/-
Autocontrol: 0

What is related to these results?

Answer 289

Geriatric (85 years old)

Question 290

*Rh haplotype most prevalent in African Americans:

Answer 290

Dce

Question 291

*principle of antiglobulin test

Answer 291

• hemoagglutination
• Anti-human globulin anti-IgG acts as a link between the antibody coating of neighboring RBCs and induces agglutination.
• uncontested RCDs will not agglutinate. Anti-human globulin anti-IgG is prepared by immunizing rabbits with human IgG.

Question 292

*FR and W Rh D+ C+ E- c+ e+

Answer 292

• DCe/Dce : R1R0
• DCe/dce : R1r
• Dce/dCe : R0r’

Question 293

*forward typing detects:

Answer 293

Antigens

Question 294

*H antigen sugar:

Answer 294

L-fuctose

Question 295

An individual from Bombay who has inherited the Le gene will have a phenotype of:

Answer 295

Le(a+b-)

Question 296

Which of the following may be a possible cause for the lack of expression of Lewis antigens during pregnancy?

Answer 296

Increased ratio of plasma lipoprotein to RBC mass

Question 297

What percentage of the white population inherits the Le gene?

Answer 297

90%

Question 298

Approximately what % of the black population is [Le(a-b-)]?

Answer 298

22%

Question 299

In order for an individual to express Leb antigen on their RBCs, they must have inherited which gene?

Answer 299

All of above

Question 300

Pregnant women usually express which phenotype?

Answer 300

Le(a-b-)

Question 301

All of the following statements are representative of Lewis antibodies except:

Answer 301

They are destroyed by enzymes

Question 302

Anti-Lea, which is reactive at the Coombs phase, may cause what kind of hemolysis?

Answer 302

In vivo

Question 303

What does the type 1 chain refer to?

Answer 303

Beta-linkage of the number 1 carbon to the number 4 carbon of N-acetylglucosamine residue of precursor structure

Question 304

Lewis cell-bound antigens absorbed from plasma onto the RBC membranes are:

Answer 304

Glycolipids

Question 305

Lewis antibodies are of what immunoglobulin class?

Answer 305

IgM

Question 306

Which enzyme is responsible for Lewis specificity ?

Answer 306

L-fucose

Question 307

Where are Lewis antigen found?

Answer 307

All of the above

Question 308

What substances would be present in saliva of a person with the LeLe HH SeSe AA genotype ?

Answer 308

A, H, Lea, Leb

Question 309

What would be the probable genotype of patient who phenotypes as ABLe(a-b-)?

Answer 309

• lele sese HH AB

Question 310

What is found in the secretions of Le(a-b-) individuals?

Answer 310

None of the above

Question 311

At which phase are Lewis antibodies usually detected?

Answer 311

Immediate spin

Question 312

How does anti-Lea differ from anti-Leb?

Answer 312

Anti-Le can bind complement more efficiently

Question 313

Why are Lewis antibodies not generally implicated in HDN?

Answer 313

Lewis antibodies are IgM and cannot cross the placenta

Question 314

Which blood group system is not based on carbohydrates?

Answer 314

Rh

Question 315

The true Lewis phenotype will normally be detected at what age?

Answer 315

Not necessarily ever

Question 316

Which of the following statements about the Lewis system is not true?

Answer 316

Secretion of Lewis substance is controlled by the Se gene

Question 317

P1 antigens:

Answer 317

Take up to 6-7 years to develop

Question 318

I and i are found in plasma, serum, and what other possible source?

Answer 318

All of the above

Question 319

Persons with the Kidd-null phenotype have been found in

Answer 319

New zealand

Question 320

Lutheran antibodies are rarely associated with causing HDN for which of the following reasons?

Answer 320

All of the above

Question 321

Which of the following is not involved in the Kell blood group system?

Answer 321

Jka

Question 322

Where the Duffy antigens found?

Answer 322

RBCs

Question 323

What is the most common Kidd phenotype in the black population?

Answer 323

Jk(a+b-)

Question 324

Why is it relatively easy to find a compatible units for a patient with anti-K?

Answer 324

Kell is a low-frequency antigen

Question 325

The Fy5 antigen has been shown to be the result of an interaction between Duffy genes and

Answer 325

Rh

Question 326

What will happen to I antigen expression when ABH sugars removed from RBCs?

Answer 326

Increased expression

Question 327

What is the ISBT assignment for the antigen P2?

Answer 327

003001

Question 328

What is the definition of blood group system?

Answer 328

A group of antigens produced by alleles at a single gene locus

Question 329

Where are the Kell blood group antigens found in?

Answer 329

RBCs

Question 330

Which of the following is known to enhance K antigen expression in the AHG test?

Answer 330

Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

Question 331

Anti-Lea reacts at what temperature?

Answer 331

Room temperature

Question 332

At what phase of the AHG test will anti-Kell be detected?

Answer 332

AHG

Question 333

What is the function of a GPB-GPA hybrid (anti-Lepore type)

Answer 333

GPB

Question 334

What sample requirement is essential for ID of a Kidd antibody?

Answer 334

Fresh serum or plasma

Question 335

What does the U in U antigen stand for?

Answer 335

Universal

Question 336

Infection with which organism is associated with naturally occurring IgM anti-K

Answer 336

All of the above

Question 337

The M and N antigens are found in the which glycoprotein?

Answer 337

Glycophorin A

Question 338

Which of the following distinguishes the recessive LuLu gene from the dominant In(Lu) gene?

Answer 338

Normal expression of P1

Question 339

All of the following are characteristics of Kidd antibodies except?

Answer 339

Naturally occurring

Question 340

Which RBCs are resistant to lysis?

Answer 340

Jk(a-B-)

Question 341

What MN phenotype is found in highest frequency in the white population?

Answer 341

M+N+

Question 342

Anti-M will react strongest with which cells?

Answer 342

M+N-

Question 343

The Lu gene shares chromosome 19 with other blood group gene?

Answer 343

All of the above

Question 344

All of the following are grouped with the para-Kell antigens except:

Answer 344

K11

Question 345

What anemia will result in an increased expression of i antigens, which exceeds that found on control cord cells?

Answer 345

CDA type II

Question 346

The Kell gene is located on the long arm of which chromosome?

Answer 346

7

Question 347

At what age does I antigen become detectable on the infants cells

Answer 347

18 months

Question 348

What characteristic differenitiates Ss antigens from MN antigens?

Answer 348

Enzyme degradation

Question 349

A person who inherits alleles Fya and Fyb will carry which antigens on their RBCs

Answer 349

Both Fya and Fyb antigen

Question 350

What is the IBST designation for the Ii blood groups?

Answer 350

207

Question 351

On which malaria receptor site is Duffy antigen dependent?

Answer 351

Junction receptor

Question 352

The structures that carry the P antigens also carry which determinants?

Answer 352

All of the above

Question 353

The genes that code for GPA and GPB are closely linked on the long arm of which chromosome?

Answer 353

4

Question 354

Persons who expresses the phenotype P2 are a risk for developing anti-P1 when handling what animal species

Answer 354

Pigeons

Question 355

What abnormal blood cell morphology is associated with the McLeod phenotype?

Answer 355

Acanthocytes

Question 356

What is the ISBT designation for the Lutheran blood group system?

Answer 356

LU

Question 357

How are lipids dissociated from the RBC membrane for biochemical studies?

Answer 357

Organic solvents

Question 358

Persons who are negative for Duffy antigens are less likely to contract which of the following diseases?

Answer 358

malaria

Question 359

What type of Hemolytic transfusion reactions (HTR) occurs more frequently in patients with Jk antibodie?

Answer 359

Delayed

Question 360

Anti-I is found in association with what microorganism?

Answer 360

Mycoplasma pneumonia

Question 361

Autoantibodies to Jka have been found in patients taking

Answer 361

Methyldopa

Question 362

What adult phenotype is rich in I antigen and common to the white population?

Answer 362

• i1

Question 363

Most blood group alleles are

Answer 363

Codominant

Question 364

What is the most common genetic combination in the Kell blood group system?

Answer 364

• kKpbJsbK11

Question 365

All of the following are characteristics of Duffy antibody except:

Answer 365

They are not implicated in HDN

Question 366

What sequence of antigens coincides with strongest immunogen to weakest immunogen?

Answer 366

D, K, Fya, Fyb

Question 367

Anti-N will react stronger with which phenotype?

Answer 367

M-N+

Question 368

The Ii antigens are found on the membranes of which structures?

Answer 368

All of the above

Question 369

Where are the Kidd antigens found?

Answer 369

RBCs

Question 370

Anti-N is known to occur in ____________ patients undergoing dialysis with equipment sterilized by formaldehyde?

Answer 370

Renal

Question 371

Approximately what % of the black populations are s-?

Answer 371

3%

Question 372

What can be done to rule in anti-M when only M+N+ RBCs are available?

Answer 372

Decrease the serum to cell ratio

Question 373

What fatal disease is associated with the McLeod phenotype?

Answer 373

Chronic granulomatous disease

Question 374

What is the etiology of chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?

Answer 374

Phagocytes are unable to generate hydrogen peroxide, which is used to kill invading bacteria

Question 375

What are the antibody characteristicss of Fy3, Fy4, and Fy5?

Answer 375

All of the above

Question 376

What biochemical observations signify a protein composition to the Kell antigens?

Answer 376

Inactivation at 56 C

Question 377

Most Kell autoantibodies are directed agains which antigens that are usually undefined?

Answer 377

High-frequency

Question 378

Black persons who genotype as Fy4Fy4 will phenotype as

Answer 378

Fya(a-b-)

Question 379

What is the ISBT designation for the Kell system?

Answer 379

006

Question 380

What Kell phenotype is found in highest frequency in her white population?

Answer 380

K-k+

Question 381

Anti-i is found in association with what disease?

Answer 381

IM

Question 382

What is the ISBT designation for the Kidd blood group system?

Answer 382

009

Question 383

What portion of GPA reacts with anti-EnaFR?

Answer 383

Ficin resistant

Question 384

How is the Luke (LKE) system related to the P blood group system?

Answer 384

Anti-LKE reacts with all P1 and P2 individuals

Question 385

At birth, infant cells are rich in _______, and _____ is nearly undetectable

Answer 385

• i/I

Question 386

All of the following are true about the Kell antigen except?

Answer 386

It is destroyed by ficin treamment

Question 387

What is the biochemical structure of the P system antigens?

Answer 387

Glycophinogolipids

Question 388

Which of the following are true concerning the I and i antigens?

Answer 388

I and I antigens have a reciprocal relationship

Question 389

Anti-Lu3 will be compatible with donor blood from individuals with which of the following phenotypes?

Answer 389

Lu(-b-)

Question 390

Where are the P antigens found?

Answer 390

All of the above

Question 391

What amino acid is specific for S antigens?

Answer 391

Methionine

Question 392

Why does anti-Lia go undetected in routine testing?

Answer 392

Most reagent cells are Lu(a-)

Question 393

Why are the U antigen included in the MNSs blood group system?

Answer 393

All U-negative RBCs were also S-s

Question 394

Duffy antigens are destroyed by

Answer 394

Ficin

Question 395

A person who inherits the In(Lu) gene will not ecxpress which antigens?

Answer 395

Lua

Question 396

DDT, when used alone, can destroy antigens in which blood group system?

Answer 396

Kell

Question 397

The gene that codes for P1 is located on which chromsomes?

Answer 397

22

Question 398

What class of immunoglobulin makes up anti-Lua?

Answer 398

All of the above

Question 399

Which population has the greatest frequency of the Fy(a-b-) phenotype?

Answer 399

Black

Question 400

What is the most common Lutheran phenotype in the white population ?

Answer 400

Lu(a-b+)

Question 401

Anti-Lua is destroyed by what enzyme?

Answer 401

Trypsin

Question 402

Which organ removes cells coated with Jk antibodies from circulation?

Answer 402

Liver

Question 403

Autoantibodies to U antigen may be found in patients with?

Answer 403

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Question 404

What name is attached to the ENa antigen?

Answer 404

Envelope

Question 405

What is the unique about the Kpa antigens?

Answer 405

It suppresses the expression of k and Jsb

Question 406

All of the following characteristics are consistent with benign anti-I except:

Answer 406

It does not bind complement

Question 407

Why are the M and N antigens important for paternity testing?

Answer 407

Antigens are well developed at birth

Question 408

Serologic tests determine a persons:

Answer 408

Phenotype

Question 409

What effect do enzymes-treated cells have on anti-I detection
?

Answer 409

Enhances reactivity

Question 410

A patient who had a viral infection suspected to be IM may develop which antibody?

Answer 410

Anti-i

Question 411

Type I H antigen is secretions is a product of which of the following genes?

Answer 411

Se

Question 412

A patient who recently recovered from mycoplasma pneumoniae infection may develop which antibody?

Answer 412

Anti-I

Question 413

Antibodies to the blood groups below exhibit dosage except:

Answer 413

Kell

Question 414

RBCs antigens are written using which of these conventions?

Answer 414

Genes are written in italics

Question 415

Which of the following techniques/reagents may be useful in increasing the reactivity of anti-M?

Answer 415

Acidified serum techniques

Question 416

You have a patient with anti-P1. Theoretically. How many units would be compatible if you set up 10 units of blood?

Answer 416

2

Question 417

Enzymes that destroy the antigens of which of the following blood groups?

Answer 417

All of the above

Question 418

Which antigen is antithetical partner to s?

Answer 418

MN

Question 419

Which of the following blood groups is inherited from the parents but absent at birth?

Answer 419

Fya

Question 420

Which of the following are written in the order of allele, antigen, and phenotype?

Answer 420

A^1, A1, and Av1

Question 421

All of the following antigens are found on reagent screening cells except:

Answer 421

Jsa

Question 422

What screening cells are used primarily for testing donor units for unexpected antibodies?

Answer 422

Pooled

Question 423

When performing the elution procedure, the solution containing the recovered antibody is called:

Answer 423

The eluate

Question 424

What is the purpose of Coombs control cells?

Answer 424

All of the above

Question 425

What test might rouleaux cause in interference?

Answer 425

Reverse ABO grouping

Question 426

What is elution?

Answer 426

A technique used to dissociate IgG antibodies from sensitized RBCs

Question 427

The process of removing antibody from serum by combining a serum sample with appropriate RBCs under optimal condition is called:

Answer 427

Absorption

Question 428

How does LISS enhance antibody detection in the antibody screen?

Answer 428

Increases the rate at which antibody binds to RBCs antigens

Question 429

Which cells are employed to remove autoantibody from patient serum without removing any alloantibody from serum?

Answer 429

Patient RBCs

Question 430

Why is it important to math the lot number on the panel sheet with the lot number on the panel cells?

Answer 430

Pattern of reactions will change from lot to lot

Question 431

A person developed an antibody to the LISS reagent. What test will not be affected by this circumstance?

Answer 431

DAT

Question 432

Which of the following statements is correct concerning cold antibody screens?

Answer 432

Patient serum is incubated with group O adult and cord RBCs at 4C

Question 433

Routine pretransfusion testing consist odd all of the following except:

Answer 433

a DAT

Question 434

A positive Autocontrol in antibody detection procedures is usually indicative of

Answer 434

Positive DAT

Question 435

In interpreting an antibody screen, which of the following questions might be asked to decipher the class of antibody?

Answer 435

In what phase did the reaction occur?

Question 436

Why is enzyme treatment used in antibody ID?

Answer 436

Enzymes aid in the separation and ID of multiple antibodies and the absorption of autoantibody from patient serum

Question 437

Which of the following is a mechanism of an elution procedure?

Answer 437

Disruption of structural complementarity of antigen and antibody

Question 438

Neutralization of antibody is applicable to all of the following blood except?

Answer 438

Rh

Question 439

What determines if a RBC antibody is clinically significant?

Answer 439

Shortened RBC survival

Question 440

Why are screening cells group O ?

Answer 440

To prevent interference with anti-A and anti-B in patient serum

Question 441

Cold-reactive autoantibodies can be selectively removed from patient serum by adsorption with autologous RBC. What other cells can be used?

Answer 441

Rabbit RBCs

Question 442

Why is rouleaux not usually found in the AHG phase of antibody screens?

Answer 442

Patient serum is washed away before adding AHG

Question 443

What is the most common use of adsorption?

Answer 443

Removal of autoantibody from patient serum

Question 444

What is a positive DAT

Answer 444

In vivo sensitization of RBC with antibody

Question 445

Which is the second phase of a hemagglutination reaction?

Answer 445

Agglutination

Question 446

What test is used to confirm the efficacy of chloroquine treatment?

Answer 446

DAT

Question 447

What antibody is associated with a mixed-field reaction?

Answer 447

Sda

Question 448

What is tested is an antibody screen?

Answer 448

Patient serum is tested against group O reagent screening cells

Question 449

What effect does ZZAP reagent have on sensitized RBCs?

Answer 449

All of the above

Question 450

What is a possible explanation for nonreactive eluate?

Answer 450

Positive DAT due to drugs

Question 451

What might a positive antibody screen and a negative auto control indicate?

Answer 451

All alloantibody has been detected

Question 452

When might you suspect multiple antibodies in a patents serum?

Answer 452

All of the above

Question 453

In what circumstance would an alloadsorption be performed?

Answer 453

Multiple antibodies in serum

Question 454

When are antibody titration studies warranted?

Answer 454

During pregnancy

Question 455

What test must be performed on a patient with a warm autoantibody in their serum before transfusing

Answer 455

Warm autoadsorption

Question 456

What is the first step in reading hemagglutination reactions?

Answer 456

Checking supernatant for hemolysis

Question 457

What is the purpose of saline washing in the antibody screen procedure?

Answer 457

Removal of unbound IgG that would neutralize the AHG reagent

Question 458

All of the following antigens are interacted by proteolytic enzymes except

Answer 458

C

Question 459

When should multiple antibodies be suspected in a positive antibody screen?

Answer 459

Cells react at different phases and strengths

Question 460

Tests with which AHG reagents can determine if IgG, complement, or both are coating RBCs?

Answer 460

Polyspecific

Question 461

Which of the following is known as the “sensitization phase” in the antibody screen?

Answer 461

37 C incubation

Question 462

What is an antigen profile sheet?

Answer 462

An insert listing the antigenic makeup of each vial of screening cells

Question 463

What makes up autologous control?

Answer 463

Patient serum and patient cells

Question 464

What is the final step in antibody ID?

Answer 464

Phenotype patients RBCs for corresponding antigen

Question 465

Cells that have antibody attached to them but are still separated from one another are:

Answer 465

Sensitized

Question 466

What is the advantage of having a 3-cells panel screen versus a 2-cell panel screen?

Answer 466

All of the above

Question 467

Name a disease in which your positive D control might be positive

Answer 467

Mulitple myeloma

Question 468

The electrical force that exists between RBCs is

Answer 468

All of the above

Question 469

Pseudoagglutination:

Answer 469

All of the above

Question 470

Of the antibodies listed below, which down not fir with the others in terms of optimal temperature of reactivity?

Answer 470

Anti-E

Question 471

Antibodies formed as the result of RBC stimulation of the patient are known as:

Answer 471

Immune

Question 472

Antibodies resulting from exposure to pollen, fungus, or bacteria are known as:

Answer 472

Naturally occurring

Question 473

The AABB’s standards for blood bands and transfusion services requires antibody screen of all populations listed below except

Answer 473

Prenatal patients

Question 474

In which section of the blood bank laboratory would blood be issued for transfusion?

Answer 474

Main laboratory

Question 475

Electronic cross matching?

Answer 475

Must confirm current with historical recipients ABO group

Question 476

What tests are involved when a physician orders a 4-unit cross match on a patient?

Answer 476

ABO, Rh, antibody screen, IS crossmatch

Question 477

Which of the following might be used to investigate a cold autoantibody?

Answer 477

Rabbit erythrocyte stroma

Question 478

A positive DAT may be seen in:

Answer 478

All of the above

Question 479

Why are monoclonal anti-D reagents preferred over the slide test reagents?

Answer 479

They contain a low protein concentration and are not prone to false-positive reactions

Question 480

If an intrauterine transfusion is indicated, which of the following is acceptable?

Answer 480

Only type O RBC

Question 481

Immediate spin resulting in agglutination may be caused by

Answer 481

Cold reacting the allo- or autoantibodies

Question 482

Which cells are used for donors antibody screen?

Answer 482

Pooled screening cells (2 donors)

Question 483

Which of the following would prolong labeling of the packed RBC unit?

Answer 483

None of the above

Question 484

What one forward-typing reagent can be used to confirm O units collected from another facility?

Answer 484

Anti-A, B

Question 485

All of the following procedures might be done in an investigation of an ABO discrepancy’s except:

Answer 485

Neutralization studies with urine

Question 486

The label on the recipients pretransfusion specimen

Answer 486

Must duplicate patient wristband information

Question 487

Where can an ID band be placed on a double arm amputee?

Answer 487

All of these

Question 488

How are 8 units of cryoprecipitate usually issued?

Answer 488

As one pooled unit

Question 489

A three-cell antibody screening set provides _____ antigen expression in all major blood group systems except Kell

Answer 489

Homozygous

Question 490

All of the following viral test are required for donor processing except

Answer 490

CMV

Question 491

What is the main concern for obsteric patients in prenatal testing?

Answer 491

Antibody that causes HDN

Question 492

In which department of the blood bank laboratory would an ABO discrepancy be resolved?

Answer 492

Reference laboratory

Question 493

A proper blood bank specimen is good for how many days after it is drawn from a patient that has a had a prior transfusion within 90 days?

Answer 493

3 days

Question 494

Which of the following options are suitable requirements for product labeling?

Answer 494

All of the above

Question 495

Why would an Rh type be ordered on a cord blood sample?

Answer 495

To determine mothers candidacy for RhIG if she is Rh-negative

Question 496

The advantages of electronic crossmatching compared to serologic cross match include

Answer 496

All of these

Question 497

Why can the Rh-hr control eliminated from donor processing?

Answer 497

An Rh-negative unit of blood typed as an Rh-positive would only be transfused to an Rh positive patient

Question 498

Patient blood management programs

Answer 498

Are based on patient evidence

Question 499

Personalized medicine involves

Answer 499

All of these

Question 500

Which patient is most likely to require irradiated products?

Answer 500

Patient undergoing a bone marrow transplant

Question 501

Possible reasons for incompatibilities after initial spin during a crossmatch include

Answer 501

All of these reasons

Question 502

After completing an antibody screen using the gel testing method, results after centrifugation yield a pellet of unagglutinated cells at the bottom of the micro tube and a thin layer of cells at the top by gel column. This situation commonly indicates

Answer 502

That fibrin from serum that has not clotted completely

Question 503

The indicator cells used to detect antibodies in a solid phase technology are:

Answer 503

AHG-coated RBCs

Question 504

Which of the following factors are likely to cause false-positive results while using gel technology

Answer 504

All of the above

Question 505

The FDA has approved the _______ for application of gel technology

Answer 505

ABO, Rh, DAT, antibody screen and ID, as well as cross matching

Question 506

When performing an antibody screen by gel technology, the following steps are eliminated

Answer 506

The saline wash and control check cells

Question 507

The gel system has all of the following advantages over the traditional tube procedure except

Answer 507

Different grading system

Question 508

Which of the following test is not available for both the gel testing method and solid phase technology?

Answer 508

DAT

Question 509

If you had a lipemic and icteric sample that needed to have an antibody screen done, which of the following would obtain the dest results ?

Answer 509

SPRCA

Question 510

In a gel-based technology the solid band at the top of the gel indicates a ________, whereas formation of a pellet at the bottom of the micro tubes indicates_______

Answer 510

4+ reaction/ a negative reaction

Question 511

Using the affinity column technique, a serologic reaction that forms a fine RBC band at the top of the gel column and a RBC button at the bottom of the gel column in interpreted as:

Answer 511

Mixed-field

Question 512

Low ionic strength saline (LISS) is added to antibody screening methods for which of the following test systems>?

Answer 512

SPRCA

Question 513

The washing procedure is applicable to which of the following serologic methods?

Answer 513

Solid phase and tube system

Question 514

A layer of RBCs agglutinates at the tip of the gel media, and a pellet of unagglutinated RBCs forms at the bottom. These finings are comparable to which of the following reactions in the test tube’?

Answer 514

Mixed-field

Question 515

Which of the following is a factor in possible false-negative and false-positive results when using the gel systems to screen for antibodies

Answer 515

All of the above

Question 516

Which of the following statements is most accurate? A mixed- field in the gel system

Answer 516

Needs to have further testing performed

Question 517

Which of the following substances may interfere with gel technology but not SPRCA technology?

Answer 517

All of the above

Question 518

SPRCA testing requires the use of all these specialized microplate equipment except:

Answer 518

Thermal cycler

Question 519

Special pipette are required for this method

Answer 519

Column agglutination technology

Question 520

True or False: An anti-M detected by using gel AHG antibody screening cards is considered clinically insignificant

Answer 520

False

Question 521

If a prospective blood donor has participated in aphersis donation , at least how much time must pass before he or she can donate whole blood?

Answer 521

48 hours

Question 522

A whole blood donor who has taken Tegison should be:

Answer 522

Permanently deferred

Question 523

What is the deferral period for a donor who has received a live attenuated Vaccine for rubella?

Answer 523

4 weeks

Question 524

A woman received a transfusion of packed RBCs while delivering her baby. Six months later she wanted to donate a unit of blood back to the American Red Cross. If the woman meet all other criteria for donation, is she allowed to donate at this time?

Answer 524

No. She needs to wait 6 more months

Question 525

A patient who recently stopped taking clopidogrel (Plavix) needs to donate platelets. How long must te patient defer donation after completing the medication?

Answer 525

14 days

Question 526

What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential autologous donor?

Answer 526

11 g/dL

Question 527

What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential allogeneic donor?

Answer 527

12.5 g/dL

Question 528

Which of the following is the only pheresis procedure that require administration of a growth factor to the donor?

Answer 528

Leukopheresis

Question 529

A blood donor with a history of hepatitis B should be excluded

Answer 529

Permanently

Question 530

An autologous unit should be donated what time period prior to the patients surgery/need?

Answer 530

72 hours

Question 531

The following blood donors regularly give blood. Which donor may donate on September 11th?

Answer 531

A 28 year old man who had plateletpheresis on August 24th

Question 532

How many times can a person meeting all the optimal criteria donate an apheresis unit of platelets per year?

Answer 532

24 times

Question 533

Autologous blood donations may occur as

Answer 533

All of these

Question 534

What is the last time a patient can donate for an autologous unit before surgery?

Answer 534

3 days before the scheduled surgery

Question 535

Which of the following tests is optimal for the collecting facility for an autologous donation ?

Answer 535

Antibody screen

Question 536

Which of the following tests is not optional for the transfusing facility for an autologous donation?

Answer 536

Group & type

Question 537

There is a decreased risk of each of these when using autologous donations except;

Answer 537

Bacterial contamination

Question 538

Blood product collections and component manufacturing but not donor selection, is regulated by the:

Answer 538

CBER

Question 539

Which of the following accredits blood banks?

Answer 539

CAP

Question 540

A blood transfusion service is scheduled for an inspection. What of the following agencies may be conducting the inspection?

Answer 540

Any of these

Question 541

Which of the following statement is true regarding directed donations?

Answer 541

Directed donations may need irradiation to precent GVHD

Question 542

Which of the following serologic tests is required for directed donations?

Answer 542

All of these

Question 543

When should mixing of the blood bag be performd>?

Answer 543

Periodically during collection

Question 544

Nausea, twitching and muscle spasms during blood donations are categorized as:

Answer 544

Mild reactions

Question 545

A donor has fainted during blood collection. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action?

Answer 545

Place wam compresses on the donor’s forehead

Question 546

In addition to signs experienced during a mild reaction to blood donation, a moderate reaction includes which of the following?

Answer 546

Loss of consciousness

Question 547

Convulsions may occur during blood donation as a result of

Answer 547

Any of these

Question 548

Ensuring the presence of an adequate airway is most important in which type of blood donation reaction?

Answer 548

Severe reactions

Question 549

Which statement concerning a hematoma is true?

Answer 549

A hematoma is a localized collection of blood under the skin

Question 550

Treating occurrence the hematoma development during blood donation involves?

Answer 550

Removing the tourniquet and needle from donors arm

Question 551

A 4-week deferral is required of donors exposed to which of these organisms?

Answer 551

Zika

Question 552

A 8-week deferral is required of donors exposed to which of these organisms?

Answer 552

Ebola

Question 553

A donor exposed to which of these organisms may be able to donate in as soon as as 2 weeks?

Answer 553

Babesia

Question 554

In order for a donor to be infected with West Nile Virus he/she must be bitten by a mosquito that has first bitten which reservoir hosts?

Answer 554

Birds

Question 555

Which is the most economical way to test for West Nile virus?

Answer 555

MP-NAT with follow-up by ID-NAT on positives

Question 556

A donor who was repeatedly reactive with anti-HBc may be considered for re-entry if agates 8 weeks if which of these tests are negative?

Answer 556

All of these must be negative

Question 557

Prions are

Answer 557

Spongiform organism that resist deactivation

Question 558

Donors must be screened for which virus that causes a neurological disorder of myelopathy?

Answer 558

HTLV

Question 559

How long is the donation deferral for persons who visit malaria-endemic countries?

Answer 559

3 years

Question 560

Which of theses countries is NOT a malaria-endemic country?

Answer 560

Austria

Question 561

A U.S. military officer was deployed to Belgium from 1982 to 1985. How long is his deferment from blood donations once returning to the U.S.?

Answer 561

Indefinitely

Question 562

A 25 year old patient who had travelled to Ireland in the last year has been experiencing neurological abnormalities since returning to the US several months ago. Which of the following is most likely?

Answer 562

Creutfeldt-Jakob disease with no accumulation of prion proteins

Question 563

A person infected with HIV-1 is diagnosed with AIDS-related condition (ARC). What antibodies will be present in the patients serum at this stage?

Answer 563

Anti-p24 and anti-gp41

Question 564

The cytomegalovirus and EBV belong to which family of viruses?

Answer 564

Herpesvirdae

Question 565

The hepatitis C virus is thought to be included in which family?

Answer 565

Flaviviridae

Question 566

HIV belongs to which family ?

Answer 566

Retroviridae

Question 567

Why is transmission of CMV through blood components not a significant risk to most recipients?

Answer 567

Most recipients are CMV-positive

Question 568

How is the hepatitis A virus usually spread?

Answer 568

Oral-fecal route

Question 569

This disease can be transmitted through blood transfusion and is characterized by sponge-like lesions of the brain

Answer 569

Cretzfeldt-Jakob disease

Question 570

According to the CDC, an HIV-positive person is considered to have AIDS according to what criterion?

Answer 570

Fewer than 200 CD4+ T cells per uL

Question 571

Which two infectious agents share the same vector?

Answer 571

Babesia and borrelia

Question 572

All of the following viruses have been associated with TAH except

Answer 572

Hepatitis E

Question 573

HBsAG is what part of the hepatitis B virus?

Answer 573

Coat protein

Question 574

Which of the following parasites has not been associated with transmission via blood transfusion?

Answer 574

None of the above

Question 575

In the HIV-1 virus ______ is a core protein

Answer 575

P24

Question 576

What is the causative agent for Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

Answer 576

Rickettsia Rickettsii

Question 577

The hepatitis B virus belongs to which family?

Answer 577

Hepadviridae

Question 578

Which test can reveal a symptomatic patient with TAH?

Answer 578

ALT

Question 579

What treatment is recommended for chronic liver disease due to hepatitis C virus infection?

Answer 579

Alpha interferon

Question 580

Which test for HIV infection depends on amplification of HIV integrated in the DNA of infected cells?

Answer 580

PCR

Question 581

What is the incubation period hepatitis A virus in transfusion-associated hepatitis?

Answer 581

40-60 days

Question 582

The hepatitis A virus belongs to which family of viruses?

Answer 582

Picornarviridae

Question 583

Persons infected with the Hepatitis C virus may develop what disease?

Answer 583

All of the above

Question 584

The most sensitive test for the detection of HIV infection is the

Answer 584

PCR

Question 585

Why are donors deferred for 6 months following receipt of blood products?

Answer 585

To permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections

Question 586

What marker usually is not detected when the hepatitis-B infected patient enters the convalescent phase?

Answer 586

HBeAg

Question 587

Which of the following is indicated when a recipient of blood or blood components develops a viral disease?

Answer 587

Donor look-back

Question 588

Which of the following patients would be at a greater risk for CMV infection?

Answer 588

An allogenic bone marrow transplant recipient

Question 589

How can hepatitis A infection poses a severe threat to chronically transfused individuals who carry the hepatitis B virus ?

Answer 589

Superinfection by hepatitis D virus

Question 590

Which cell is invaded by the HIV viruses?

Answer 590

Lymphocyte

Question 591

What is the source of hepatitis B immune globin (HBIG)?

Answer 591

Persons with a high titer of anti-HBs

Question 592

The “look back” process includes notifying donors of abnormally with

Answer 592

All of these

Question 593

Which of the following is not included in the signs and symptoms of TAH?

Answer 593

Splenomegaly

Question 594

In an individual infected with Hepatitis B virus, which of the following is detected first?

Answer 594

HBsAg

Question 595

Pathogen inactivation intervention includes all of these except

Answer 595

Millipore filtration

Question 596

Which test is now used in the processing of all source plasmas for pathogen inactivation verification?

Answer 596

NAT

Question 597

Lipid-enveloped viruses are inactivated by used of:

Answer 597

Detergent

Question 598

The current risk of enveloped virus transmission is very low because of

Answer 598

A combination of all of these

Question 599

Pathogen inactivation using psoralen activated by ultraviolet light is most effective in:

Answer 599

Platelet concentrates

Question 600

Pathogen reduction systems may not be effective against which agents?

Answer 600

Prions

Question 601

True or False: a person with acute hepatitis B is immune to infection from other hepatitis viruses

Answer 601

False

Question 602

A whole blood donation contains a volume of 350 mL. Which of the following is true regarding this unit
?

Answer 602

FFP cannot be made from this unit

Question 603

A unit of RBCs has man expiration date of 11/15/12. A patient currently on a fludarabine regimen requires irradiated packed RBCs. The unit is irradiated for this patient on 11/02/12. What is the correct expiration date post-irradiation?

Answer 603

11/15/12

Question 604

Packed RBCs must have a final Hct of less than or equal to :

Answer 604

80%

Question 605

Leukoreduced packed RBCs must have an absolute WBC of less than and contain at least what % of original RBC mass?

Answer 605

5 X 10^6/85

Question 606

What is the minimal pH required for platelets?

Answer 606

6.2

Question 607

Cryoprecipitate is indicate for all of the following disorders except

Answer 607

Hemophilia B

Question 608

A patient has a baseline platelet count of 30,000/uL. Upon receiving a platelet pool of 4 random platelets, what would you expect the post-transfusion platelet count to be?

Answer 608

50,000/uL

Question 609

What is the expiration time for platelet concentrates that have been pooled?

Answer 609

4 hours

Question 610

Which of the following of platelet concentrates from single units of whole blood must procedure a product that yields a minimum of

Answer 610

5.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in 75% of units tested

Question 611

Normally, what % of 35 day old RBCs should be circulating 24 hours after transfusion?

Answer 611

70%

Question 612

What is the ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood in a unit of whole blood?

Answer 612

14 mL of anticoagulant-preservative for every 100 mL of whole blood collected

Question 613

A unit of whole blood must be stored at what temperature??

Answer 613

1-6 C

Question 614

What is the shelf life for acid-citrate dextrose? (ACD)

Answer 614

21 days

Question 615

What is the shelf life for whole blood collected in citrate-phosphate-double dextrose? (CP2D)

Answer 615

21 days

Question 616

What is the shelf life of whole blood collected in citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine?

Answer 616

35 days

Question 617

How are RBCs separated from whole blood?

Answer 617

All of these

Question 618

Within what time after collection of whole blood must RBCs be separated from whole blood in order for platelet and plasma components to be prepared?

Answer 618

8-24 hours

Question 619

A unit of packed RBCs must be stored at what temperature?

Answer 619

1-6C

Question 620

What are platelets obtains from apheresis donations called?

Answer 620

Single donor platelets (SDPs)

Question 621

Manufacturing RDPs is accomplished by using all fo the following methods except

Answer 621

Apheresis collection

Question 622

A unit of packed platelets must be stored at what temperature?

Answer 622

20-24 C

Question 623

Units of platelets are stored under which of these conditions

Answer 623

Constant agitation

Question 624

What is the shelf-life of platelets if the unit is tested for bacterial contamination just prior to issuing?

Answer 624

7 days

Question 625

What is the shelf-life of frozen RBCs?

Answer 625

10 years

Question 626

A unit of cryopreserved RBs must be stored below what temperature?

Answer 626

-65C

Question 627

What is the expiration date of deglycerolized unit of RBCs

Answer 627

24 hours

Question 628

Which statement about frozen platelet plasma is correct?

Answer 628

The expiration of frozen plasma stored at-65 C is 7 years

Question 629

Frozen plasma is thawed at what temperature

Answer 629

30-37C

Question 630

Which statement about liquid plasma is correct?

Answer 630

All of these are correct

Question 631

Liquid plasma is prepared from a unit whole blood collected in CPDA-1 on July 28th, what is the expiration date of this plasma?

Answer 631

September 7th

Question 632

A unit of granulocyte would contain at least what concentration of granulocytes?

Answer 632

1 x 10^10

Question 633

A unit of granulocytes prepared on April 13 at 10:00 AM and is irradiated at 2:00 pm the same day. What is the expiration date?

Answer 633

April. 14th, 10 AM

Question 634

Plasma factor concentrates are separated into various proteins by manipulating which variable?

Answer 634

All of these

Question 635

Viruses are inactivated in units of plasma concentrate by all of these methods except

Answer 635

Freezing

Question 636

Which factor concentrate has almost completely replaced cryoprecipitate as the product of choice to treat patients with hemophilia A?

Answer 636

FVIII

Question 637

Xenographic forms of factor VIII are made from which source of plasma?

Answer 637

Porcine plasma

Question 638

What is the half life of immune serum globulin?

Answer 638

18-32 days

Question 639

How is the preparation of PPF different than that of NSA?

Answer 639

PPF contains less albumin and more globulins than NSA

Question 640

What is the storage temperature for normal serum albumin?

Answer 640

2-10C

Question 641

What is the shelf-life for normal serum albumin?

Answer 641

5 years

Question 642

What is the storage temperature for plasma protein fraction?

Answer 642

2-10 C

Question 643

What is the shelf life for plasma protein fractions?

Answer 643

5 years

Question 644

Which of the following does NOT describe the preparation of antithrombin?

Answer 644

Apheresis of a single donor sensitized donor

Question 645

In which animal has transgenic methods produced rAT in the milk?

Answer 645

Goats

Question 646

Which of the following best describes the principle of the Kleihaur-Betke test?

Answer 646

D-positive indicator cells form rosettes around fetal Rh-positive RBCs

Question 647

What tests are indicated for cord blood specimens if the mother has made anti-K

Answer 647

ABO, Rh, antibody screen

Question 648

Which severe outcome can be caused by indirect bilirubin levels greater than 18 mg/dL in the newborn?

Answer 648

Bilirubinemia

Question 649

All of the following are goals of an exchange transfusion except:

Answer 649

Correct anemia

Question 650

Why is suppression of erythropoiesis an advantage of exchange transfusion ?

Answer 650

Decreases the risk of iron overload

Question 651

Why is revere grouping omitted in neonate ABO grouping?

Answer 651

Maternal antibodies mask the ABO antibodies of the neonate

Question 652

A cord blood specimen from a Jaundice infant should be tested for which of the following?

Answer 652

All of the above

Question 653

Why is the immediate spin eliminated in the prenatal antibody screen?

Answer 653

To reduce the detection of IgM antibodies

Question 654

Which of the following reagents can be used to determine the immunoglobin class of anti-M?

Answer 654

Chloroquine

Question 655

All of the following are characteristics of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) except:

Answer 655

The antibody is IgM

Question 656

What is physiological mechanism of Rh-immune globulin?

Answer 656

Attachment of fetal Rh-negative RBC in maternal circulation, inhibiting production of anti-D

Question 657

Which of the following treatments uses ultraviolet light to treat hyperbilirubinemia after the infant is delivered?

Answer 657

Amniocentesis

Question 658

In HDFN, the IgG antibodies are directed against which antigen on the fetal RBCs?

Answer 658

Viral

Question 659

Which RBC morphology is most characteristic in ABO HDFN and absent in Rh HDFN?

Answer 659

Micro spherocytes

Question 660

How is intrauterine transfusion performed?

Answer 660

RBCs are injected into the fetal peritoneal cavity

Question 661

Immunization of the mother can be caused by as little as________ D-positive fetal cells

Answer 661

1 mL

Question 662

Active immunization induced by Rh(D) antigen can be prevented by the concurrent administration of:

Answer 662

Alpha-1 protease inhibitor

Question 663

Due to a short supply of O-negative packed cells, an Rh-negative patient was transfused with 1 unit of Rh-positive RBCs. Calculate the number of Rh-immune globulin wails needed to protect against 250 mL of Rh-positive packed cells

Answer 663

23

Question 664

In order for the mother to be considered for Rh-immune globulin, her Rh type must be _______, and her newborn must be_______

Answer 664

Du-negative/Du-negative

Question 665

What is the most clinical manifestation of ABO HDFN?

Answer 665

Hyperkalemia

Question 666

Which of the following RBCs is appropriate for neonatal transfusions?

Answer 666

Group AB, CMV-negative

Question 667

The laboratory is presented with a case of HDFN due to ABO incompatibility. The mother is group O and the infant is Group B. The most appropriate type of blood to use for an exchange transfusion for this infant is:

Answer 667

B

Question 668

The most important serologic test for diagnosis of HDFN is the _____ with anti-IgG reagents

Answer 668

Elution

Question 669

Which of the following antbodies have not been known to cause HDFN?

Answer 669

Anti-D

Question 670

What is the physiological path of indirect bilirubin produced as a result of red blood cell destruction in HDFN?

Answer 670

Indirect bilirubin is transported across the placenta and excreted via maternal kidneys

Question 671

All of the following are true regarding antibody titration o maternal IgG antibodies except:

Answer 671

RBCs should consist of the same genotype for each titration

Question 672

The D-positive fetal cell sin Rh-HDN are_____

Answer 672

Amorphic

Question 673

Why is the Rh-positive firstborn of an Rh-negative mother unaffected by Rh HDFN?

Answer 673

The plasma volume of the other is the mother is tripled during the first pregnancy which dilutes anti-D

Question 674

Besides the Rh antibodies what other RBC antibody ins common to cause severe HDFN/

Answer 674

Anti-Lea

Question 675

The results of a Kleihauer-Bette stain indicate a Fe to maternal need of 40 mL of whole blood. How many vials of Rh-immune globulin would be required?

Answer 675

2

Question 676

What effect does ABO incompatibility between mother and fetus have on maternal sensitization to Rh antigen?

Answer 676

The chance of maternal sensitization to Rh antigen is decreased

Question 677

Which of the following assays is used to calculate the amount of fetomaternal hemorrhage in a postpartum specimen?

Answer 677

Rosette test

Question 678

On the event of clinically significant antibody found in the mother’s serum, which of the following must be performed to determine its concentration?

Answer 678

Elution

Question 679

What is the cause of of HDFN?

Answer 679

Destruction of the fetus’s RBCs by antibody produced by the mother

Question 680

What life-threatening disorder is characterized by a severe anemia, effusions and ascites from hepatomegaly and splenomegaly?

Answer 680

Hydros fetalis

Question 681

What physiological phenomenon associated erythroblastosis fetalis with HDFN?

Answer 681

Release of nucleated RBCs into circulation of neonate inflicted with HDFN

Question 682

In which type of HDFN is the firstborn affected?

Answer 682

ABO

Question 683

Cannulation of the umbilical vein under ultrasound guidance is known as

Answer 683

Cordocentesis

Question 684

Why are premature newborns more likely to require exchange transfusion than full-term infants?

Answer 684

Premature newborn livers are too underdeveloped to conjugate bilirubin

Question 685

Blood transfusions tot he fetus and premature infants should be_____ to prevent graft-versus-host disease

Answer 685

Gamma irradiated

Question 686

Which IgG subclass carries more potecncy in RBC hemolysis?

Answer 686

IgG3

Question 687

Which of the following mother/infant blood types would be considered at risk for ABO HDFN?

Answer 687

Mother is group O; baby is group B

Question 688

When is the antenatal dose of Rh-immune globulin given?

Answer 688

28 weeks

Question 689

Rh-immune globulin should be given within how many hours after delivery?

Answer 689

72 hours

Question 690

Which prenatal serological tests are recommended during the first trimester?

Answer 690

All of the above

Question 691

Anti-D in the serum of third trimester pregnant woman with a titer of 16 is indicative of:

Answer 691

Active immunization

Question 692

How are units for exchange transfusion prepared?

Answer 692

Group O RBCs and group AB

Question 693

Why does the rate of RBC destruction after brith decrease in an infant diagnosed with HDFN?

Answer 693

Maternal antibody is no longer entering infant circulation via the placenta

Question 694

What is done to prevent HDFN caused by maternal anti-Jka antibody formation?

Answer 694

Monitor the mothers antibody level

Question 695

What is the role of the technologist in the diagnosis and clinical management of HDFN?

Answer 695

Serological diagnosis of maternal alloimmunization

Question 696

True or false: Rh-immune globulin is of no benefit after a person has been actively immunized and formed anti-D

Answer 696

True

Question 697

True or Faalse: the antibody titer of maternal antibody is directly proportional to severity of HDFN

Answer 697

False

Question 698

All Rh-negative recipients who are transfused with as little as 1 mL of Rh-positive cells will develop anti-D

Answer 698

False

Question 699

Which of the following can be found in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia in the presence of hypoplastic marrow?

Answer 699

Reticulocytopenia

Question 700

Most cases of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia will be DAT-positive with which of the following?

Answer 700

Both Anti-IgG and Anti-C3d

Question 701

Cold autoanti-H is more prevelant in which blood group?

Answer 701

A1B

Question 702

RBCs sensitized in which drug-induced hemolytic anemia mechanism act as “innocent bystanders”?

Answer 702

Immune complex

Question 703

Which drug can cause production of autoantibody?

Answer 703

Methyldopa

Question 704

In warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the autoantibody will frequently demonstrate______-like specificity?

Answer 704

Rh

Question 705

All of the following are clinical manifestations of cold hemagglutination disease (CHD) except:

Answer 705

Hepatosplenomegaly

Question 706

A patient with a positive DAT needs to be phenotyped for Jka. What reagent can be used on RBCs to ensure accurate typing?

Answer 706

Chloroquine diphosphate

Question 707

In which of the following is the DAT reactive with anti-C3 only?

Answer 707

Cold hemagglutination disease

Question 708

Which of the following characterizes an alloimmune response in immune hemolytic anemia?

Answer 708

The patient produces anti-K to transfused RBCs

Question 709

How can persons with CHD avoid hemolytic episodes?

Answer 709

Move to a warm climate

Question 710

The onset of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA) may be precipitated by:

Answer 710

All of the above

Question 711

If a false-positive reaction was suspected with anti-D in the forward grouping due to the presence of a cold autoantibody, which of the following would show reactivity?

Answer 711

All of the above

Question 712

Which of the following factors distinguishes a cold autoantibody produced in a patient with IM from the produced in a patient with pneumonia?

Answer 712

Anti-i specificity

Question 713

Cold hemagglutination disease represents what % of autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) cases?

Answer 713

18

Question 714

In the case of an AB-positive individual, which test must be performed to ensure that warm-reacting autoantibody is not causing false-positive reactions?

Answer 714

Rh control

Question 715

Which of the following procedures can be used to resolve interference due to anti-I?

Answer 715

Cold autoadsoprtion and pre warm technique

Question 716

How might a technologyish detect a patient with drug-induced hemolytic anemia?

Answer 716

Positive DAT

Question 717

In a patient who has been recently transfused, a positive DAT may be due to

Answer 717

Alloantibody coating transfused donor cells.

Question 718

How is RCBC destruction characterized in drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia via immune complex mechanism?

Answer 718

Intravascular hemolysis precipitated by complement activation

Question 719

What technique can be used to identify an alloantibody in the presence of a cold auto agglutinin

Answer 719

Prewarming

Question 720

Which of the following describes the drug adsorption (hapten) mechanism?

Answer 720

Drugs bind firmly to proteins of the RBC membrane

Question 721

What is the most common drug associated with the drug-adsorption mechanism?

Answer 721

Penicillin

Question 722

What % of AIHA cases are abuses by warm reacting autoantibodies?

Answer 722

70%

Question 723

Why do clotted specimens yield positive DAT results with anti-C3 in the presence of a benign cold autoagglutinin?

Answer 723

Complement can be activated in vitro

Question 724

Approximately what % of AIHA cases are due to paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)?

Answer 724

1-2%

Question 725

All of the following are classification of immune hemolytic anemia except:

Answer 725

Hyper immune

Question 726

What is one indication a positive DAT might be due to alloantibody coating donor RBCs?

Answer 726

Microscopic mixed-field appearance

Question 727

What is the primary goal for treatment in patients with autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

Answer 727

Treat the underlying disease

Question 728

A cold antibody titer greater than_______at 4C is characteristic of pathological CHD

Answer 728

1,000

Question 729

Persons diagnosed with pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumonia may produce a cold autoantibody with_______ specifcity

Answer 729

Anti-I

Question 730

Which alloantibody is frequently present in the serum of i adults ?

Answer 730

Anti-I

Question 731

A benign cold autoagglutination may cause inteference in antibody screening procedures when:

Answer 731

Polyspecific AHG reagents are used in the test procedure

Question 732

Which of the following is a characteristic RBC morphology seen on a PB smear from a patient with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

Answer 732

Spherocytes

Question 733

How is the serology work up for an autoantibody produced by a drug-induced hemolytic anemia different from other autoantibody workups?

Answer 733

The antibody will only be reactive with RBCs in the presence of the drug

Question 734

What treatment for warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia aids in the reduction of antibody and removes a potent site of RBC damage and destruction?

Answer 734

Hemoglobinuria

Question 735

In which case might you see an anti-i?

Answer 735

Mononucleosis

Question 736

Which of the following forward typing reagents may generate false-positive results in a patient with a warm-reacting autoantibody?

Answer 736

Anti-D

Question 737

What is the recommended treatment for drug-induced hemolytic anemia caused by the immune complex mechanism?

Answer 737

Cessation of drug administration

Question 738

Immune hemolytic anemia is defined as:

Answer 738

A shortened RBC survival mediated through humoral antibody production

Question 739

What reagent cell type is used in the immune complex formation test to detect drug-anti drug interaction?

Answer 739

Group O

Question 740

What is the most frequent antibody specificity in CHD?

Answer 740

Anti-I

Question 741

Which of the following is a characteristic of of autoantibodies?

Answer 741

Antibody reacts with high-incidence antigens

Question 742

All of the following are characteristics of benign cold autoagglutinins except

Answer 742

Antibodies gave a title greater than 64 at 4C

Question 743

Which cells contain the most i antigen?

Answer 743

Cord blood

Question 744

Which theory supports production of autoantibodies?

Answer 744

Loss of T-cell suppressor activity upon self-antigens leads to production of autoantibody

Question 745

How can cold autoantibody interference with ABO grouping be avoided?

Answer 745

Washing cells with normal saline warmed to 37 C

Question 746

In cases of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia, what subclass of IgG is most efficient in binding complement?

Answer 746

IgG3

Question 747

Which of the following regarding the immune complex mechanism in serologic testing is true

Answer 747

The DAT will be positive with monospecific C3 but negative with IgG

Question 748

Which drug-induced mechanism does not result in a hemolytic episode?

Answer 748

Membrane modification

Question 749

A 28 year old female with cold hemagglutinin diseases has a positive DAT. When the DAT is repeated using mono specifc reagent, which of the following is most likely to be detected?

Answer 749

IgM

Question 750

The antigen I is often

Answer 750

The EDTA prevents compliments binding in-vitro

Question 751

A DTAT was performed on a patient suspected of having autoimmune hemolytic anemia. The following results were obtained:PS AHG 3+, Anti-IgG 2+, anti-C3d negative. These results mean:

Answer 751

The patients cells are coated with IgG

Question 752

Cold panel results obtained are:
A1 cells: 4+
A2 cells: 4+
O cells: 4+
O cord cells: 0
These results suggest which antibody?

Answer 752

I

Question 753

Approximately what % of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia will produce a positive DAT with not IgG and C3d antibodies?

Answer 753

67%

Question 754

*RhIg is given when:

Answer 754

Mother is Rh negative and baby is Rh positive

Question 755

*besides. Rh what causes HDFN

Answer 755

Anti-k

Question 756

What are the 4 type of autologous donation?

Answer 756

Pre-operative
Intra-operative
Post-operative
Acute normovolemic hemodilution

Question 757

What temperature are leukoreduced RBCs:

Answer 757

1-6C

Question 758

What temperature is cryoprecipitate thawed at?

Answer 758

20-24C

Question 759

What temperature is RhIg stored at?

Answer 759

1-6C

Question 760

What is the purpose of dialysis in uremic patients?

Answer 760

Removal by-products of protein metabolism that renders vWF and platelets nonfunctional

Question 761

Which of the following is not indication for fresh frozen plasma (FFP) transfusion?

Answer 761

Factor VIII deficiency

Question 762

The rejection of the transplantation of platelets from one individual to another is termed or defined as:

Answer 762

Platelet refractoriness

Question 763

Which of the following may be serious manifestation of FFP transfusion in congenital factor deficiencies?

Answer 763

Pulmonary edema

Question 764

All coagulation factors are produced in the liver expect

Answer 764

-vWF

Question 765

What is the advantage of performing a type and screen for patients schedule for surgery instead of crossmatching units for possible transfusion?

Answer 765

Increases the availability of of donor units in the inventory

Question 766

How are RBC aliquoted prepared for a neonate transfusion?

Answer 766

Blood is transferred from collection bag to satellite bag and withdrawn using a syringe

Question 767

Which of the following is an indication for immunglobulin administration?

Answer 767

Hepatitis A

Question 768

Deglycerolized RBCs can be sued interchangeably with washed RBCs, because both procedures

Answer 768

All of the above

Question 769

Oncology patients usually receive repeated RBC and platelet transfusions because of

Answer 769

All of the above

Question 770

Which of the following is not a function of the hospital transfusion committee?

Answer 770

FDA certification

Question 771

Liquid plasma is not indicated from factor_______ deficiency

Answer 771

V

Question 772

Why are fresh blood units (less than 7 days old) preferred for a neonate transfusion?

Answer 772

They reduce the risks of Hyperkalemia

Question 773

All of the following are consistent with graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) except

Answer 773

Transplantation of “immunologically naive” T lymphocytes

Question 774

The pathological cause of a decreased RBC mass includes

Answer 774

All of the above q

Question 775

Bleeding disorders may be caused by

Answer 775

Dysfunction of platelets

Question 776

Which of the following are not at risk for developing cytomegalovirus (CMV) via CMV-positive blood products?

Answer 776

CMV-positive heart transplantation recipients

Question 777

Which platelet pheresis product should be irradiated?

Answer 777

A directed donation given by a mother to her son

Question 778

Why is whole blood contraindicated for patients with severe chronic anemia?

Answer 778

The plasma volume of these patients is increased

Question 779

How is donor platelet survival determined in the recipient?

Answer 779

Platelet count increment (1 hour after transfusion)

Question 780

Immunoglobulin prepared from pooled plasma is primarily

Answer 780

IgG

Question 781

A blood component should be transfused within

Answer 781

4 hours

Question 782

Cryoprecipitated AHF can be used in the treatment of

Answer 782

• vWD

Question 783

Why is it recommended that factor VIII concentrates be used in patient with vWD?

Answer 783

Because of variability in vWF content

Question 784

What whole blood component contained in pheresis granulocyte concentrate warrants crossmatching of this product?

Answer 784

RBCs

Question 785

How is the whole blood component contained in pheresed granulocyte concentrate warrants crossmatching of this product?

Answer 785

The anticoagulant in donor blood prevents activation of the coagulation system

Question 786

In addition to nonhemolytic febrile transfusion reactions, what other indication exists for washed RBCs?

Answer 786

IgA-deficient patient with anti-IgA

Question 787

Whip of the following is an indication for plasma transfusion in a patient who has been massively transfused?

Answer 787

PTT greater than 60 seconds

Question 788

In what disease state is acquired antithrombin III deficiency manifested?

Answer 788

DIC

Question 789

Who is a risk for transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TAGVHD)?

Answer 789

All of the above

Question 790

Which class of vWD provides the lest amount of vWF?

Answer 790

Type III

Question 791

Which of the following methods provides the purest factor VIII concentrates?

Answer 791

DNA technology

Question 792

What is the expiration on washed RBCs?

Answer 792

24 hours

Question 793

What is used to anti-coagulate the shed blood obtained from intraoperative salvage?

Answer 793

Citrate and heparin

Question 794

Why is essential that irradiated blood components be used in bone marrow transplant recipients?

Answer 794

Bone marrow recipients are on immunosuppressive therapy

Question 795

Persons making pre deposit donations for planned surgery will take iron supplements to replenish iron and stimulate

Answer 795

Erythropoiesis

Question 796

Platelets prepared from______ are referred to as random donor platelets

Answer 796

Whole blood units

Question 797

Hemophilia A is clinically apparent when the factor VII level is less than than:

Answer 797

10%

Question 798

Which of the following is not an indication for transfusing platelets?

Answer 798

Massive transfusion, platelet count 250,000/uL

Question 799

Which type of filter is used in routine blood administration sets to remove gross clots from all blood products?

Answer 799

170 um

Question 800

Which type of autologous transfusion, successful in liver transplants, involves collecting 1 to 3 units from the patient before surgery, using crystalloid to replace blood volume and reinfusing blood at the end of surgery?

Answer 800

Intraoperative hemodilution

Question 801

Factor VIII is treated by which of the following to ensure sterility for HIV and hepatitis B and C?

Answer 801

All of the above

Question 802

Which of the following should be done when selecting units for a hypoxia neonate?

Answer 802

Hgb S testing

Question 803

What is the source of hyper immune globulins used in the prevention of hepatitis B?

Answer 803

Plasma donors whose sera demonstrate a high titer of hepatitis B antibody

Question 804

Why is the increase in hemoglobin and hematocrit evident more quickly in RBC transfusion than in whole blood transfusions?

Answer 804

Blood volume adjustment is less when RBCs are transfused

Question 805

Factor IX concentrates constrain which factors (otherwise known as “prothrombin complex”

Answer 805

II, VII, IX, X

Question 806

What is suspected when the hematocrit has decreased by 4% and the total bilirubin level is increased 5 days after transfusion?

Answer 806

Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

Question 807

The rejection of platelets in multiply transfused patients is called

Answer 807

Refractoriness

Question 808

What is the immunologic principle of RhIG administration?

Answer 808

Anti-D attaches to Rh-positive cells of the infant in maternal circulation and are subsequently removed by cells of the reticuloendothelial system, preventing sensitization

Question 809

Vitamin K is essential for the carboxylation of which coagulation factors?

Answer 809

II, VII, IX, X

Question 810

Leukoreduction filters are in the transfusion of RBCs and platelets to prevent

Answer 810

FNHTR

Question 811

Which of the following factors are found in therapeutic levels in FFP?

Answer 811

All of the above

Question 812

A patient with severe hemolytic anemia had a pulse of 120 beats per minute and respiratory rate of 37 breaths per minute. What blood component is indicated for this patients?

Answer 812

RBCs

Question 813

Which of the following Rh-negative patients may be transfused with Rh-positive units when few O-negative units are available in an emergency?

Answer 813

Middle-aged male

Question 814

What is the recommended treatment for mild vWD?

Answer 814

DDAVP

Question 815

Neonatal exchange transfusion is performed using which blood preservatives?

Answer 815

Both B and C can be safely used

Question 816

Why is thrombocytopenia a manifestation of a massive transfusion?

Answer 816

Platelet are diluted by resuscitation fluids and stored blood

Question 817

Which blood products is used in the treatment of DIC?

Answer 817

All of the above

Question 818

All of the following are characteristics of protien C except

Answer 818

It enhances factors V and VIII

Question 819

Cryoprecipitate is not used to treat which condition?

Answer 819

Hemophilia B

Question 820

What is the only blood component that provides concentrates of vWF?

Answer 820

Cryoprecipitated AHF

Question 821

Antithrombin III concentrates are used in the treatment of:

Answer 821

Hereditary antithrombin III deficiency caused by venous thrombosis

Question 822

Which IV solution is not recommended for dilution of blood components because of RBC damage?

Answer 822

Dextrose

Question 823

How can GVHD be prevented in transplant recipients?

Answer 823

Irradiation of cellular component

Question 824

A patient with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) would require _____ in the event of a blood transfusion

Answer 824

A blood warmer

Question 825

What disease state may require exogenous fibrinogen replacaement?

Answer 825

All of the above

Question 826

All blood components should be transfused within what time period to avoid bacterial cotamination issues?

Answer 826

4 hours

Question 827

Cryoprecipitate AHF contains how much fibrinogen?

Answer 827

150-250 mg

Question 828

Which of the following criteria warrants a granulocyte concentrate transfusion?

Answer 828

A septic patient unresponsive to antibiotics

Question 829

Each Cryoprecipitate unit contains at least how much factor VIII/

Answer 829

80 units

Question 830

What is the most efficient way to remove leukocytes from RBCs units?

Answer 830

Leukreduction filters

Question 831

What blood component is responsible for most allergic reactions?

Answer 831

Plasma

Question 832

What plasma product is used to replace fluid in patients undergoing plasmapheresis procedures?

Answer 832

Albumin

Question 833

What is the best-tolerated form of transplantation in humans?

Answer 833

RBCs

Question 834

What transfusion therapy is indicated for a patient who is found to be refractory to random platelets?

Answer 834

Apheresis platelets from an HLA-compatible donor

Question 835

What Hb level is considered critical and may warrant a RBC transfusion?

Answer 835

7 g/dL

Question 836

How is a coagulation factor unit defined?

Answer 836

Activity in 1 mL of pooled plasma

Question 837

Cryoprecipitate AHF contains factor VIII. What other coagulation factor is present?

Answer 837

I

Question 838

What component is indicated for patients who have had moderate to severe allergic transfusion reactions and have anti-IgA antibodies became of IgA deficiency?

Answer 838

Washed RBCs

Question 839

Which components provides a concentrated source of fibrinogen?

Answer 839

Cryoprecipitate

Question 840

Poor increment in the platelet count 1 hour following platelet transfusion is most commonly cause by:

Answer 840

Splenomegaly

Question 841

Granulocytes for transfusion should

Answer 841

Be ABO and Rh-compatible with the recipient;s serum

Question 842

In anemia uncomplicated by low plasma proteins or shock, the transfusion of

Answer 842

Packed RBCs is most desirable

Question 843

For which of the following transfusion candidates would CMV-negative blood be most likely indicated?

Answer 843

Pregnant women

Question 844

What are the requirements for a transfusion to be classified as a massive in an adult?

Answer 844

10 units within 24 hours

Question 845

What does the first transfusion in a massive transfusion protocol consists of?

Answer 845

2 units uncrossmathed group O whole blood

Question 846

Treatment of post-transfusion purpura (PTP) with_______ is not advocated in medical practice

Answer 846

Platelet transfusions

Question 847

A transfusion reaction investigation should include all of the following except

Answer 847

Neocyte transfusion

Question 848

What should be done in the transfusion process when the patient temperature spikes from 37.5C to 38.5 C within in 30 minutes of transfusion?

Answer 848

Stop the transfusion and keep the IV line open

Question 849

What groups are at risk for graft-versus hose disease (GVHD) as a result of transfusion?

Answer 849

Option B and C

Question 850

A patient with two or more documented febrile nonhemolytic transfusion (FNHTRs) should receive ________ blood components

Answer 850

Leukopoor

Question 851

Which of the following questions should be asked when investigating a transfusion reaction?

Answer 851

How many millimeters of RBCS were transfused

Question 852

What measure can be taken to prevent transfusion-associated hypothermia?

Answer 852

Transfusion of product using a blood warmer

Question 853

Which of the following products may lead to sepsis in a patient when contaminated with E. Coli?

Answer 853

All of the above

Question 854

All of the following are disease that can mimic a transfusion reaction except?

Answer 854

AML

Question 855

Persons with a documented history anaphylactic reactions should be transfused with _________blood products

Answer 855

Washed

Question 856

What would be the result of group B blood given to a group O patient?

Answer 856

Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction

Question 857

For a patient who has suffered an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the primary treatment goal should be to:

Answer 857

Reverse hypotension and minimize renal damage

Question 858

The plasma level of unconjugated bilirubin is elevated in

Answer 858

Intravascular and Extravascular hemolysis

Question 859

Which of the following is an indicator of acute immune hemolytic transfusion reaction?

Answer 859

increased bilirubin

Question 860

A negative direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is found in al of the following transfusion reactions exceptL

Answer 860

Acute immune hemolytic transfusion reaction

Question 861

Which of the following is false? (2)

Answer 861

RBCs are phagocytized by macrophages in the spleen and liver in intravascular reactions

Question 862

A 35 year old woman was transfused with 1 unit of packed RBCs. The nurse monitoring the transfusion noticed hives on the patients arm and an increase in body temperature. What is the choice of treatment for this patient?

Answer 862

Antihistamines

Question 863

Why is an FNHTR should not be suspected when fever is the sole symptom exhibited by the patient

Answer 863

Fever can be the result of many other underlying maladies

Question 864

Which of the following results when large excesses of free Hb are released into the blood?

Answer 864

Hemoglobinemia

Question 865

What is a cause of death in GVHD?

Answer 865

Infection

Question 866

The principle clinical signs of extravasular hemolysis include

Answer 866

positive DAT

Question 867

All of the following are symptoms of an allergic reaction except

Answer 867

Anemia

Question 868

What treatment is recommended following a bacterial contamination reaction

Answer 868

Broad-spectrum antibodies

Question 869

In the US, fatalities associated with transfusion are required to be reported to which organization?

Answer 869

CDC

Question 870

Which of the following is not a finding associated with intravascular hemolytic reaction?

Answer 870

Methemalbumin decreases

Question 871

Which of the following is the most common transfusion reaction reported to blood banks

Answer 871

Febrile reaction

Question 872

Treatment in the event of an anaphylactic or anaphylactoid reaction should include all of the following except

Answer 872

Immediately administering PPF

Question 873

Hypothermia as a result of cold fluid replacement can result in all of the following except

Answer 873

Citrate toxicity

Question 874

Which of the following organisms have been implicated in bacterial contamination reaction?

Answer 874

Yersinia enterocolitica

Question 875

What is the team of medical officers who investigate all reported cases of transfusion related fatalities?

Answer 875

CBER

Question 876

What is the physiological mechanism of histamine?

Answer 876

Histamine is released when the allergen-reagin complex attachés to the surface of tissue mast cells, increasing vascular dilation and permeability

Question 877

How can depletion and dilution of coagulation factors be avoided in a massively transfused patient ?

Answer 877

Prudent use of platelets and FFP

Question 878

A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction is most often the result of

Answer 878

An anamnestic response in a patient who has been previously sensitized by transfusion or pregnancy

Question 879

Who developed the imputability criteria for reporting cases of transfusion fatalities?

Answer 879

NHSN

Question 880

Which of the following is consistent with bacterial contamination reactions?

Answer 880

The organism thrives in cold temperatures

Question 881

What is the most common preventable error occurring among the nursing and medical staff that results in a transfusion-related death?

Answer 881

Improper patient ID

Question 882

Which mechanism may play a role in fever development in an FNHTR?

Answer 882

Release of pyrogen from transfused WBCs

Question 883

how could a potential alloimmunization due to anti-K be prevented?

Answer 883

Matching of donor and recipient RBC phenotype

Question 884

Which of these is/are involved in hemovigilance?

Answer 884

All of these

Question 885

What is the most frequent cause of circulatory overload?

Answer 885

Transfusion of a unit at too fast a rate

Question 886

What is meant by the term iatrogenic
?

Answer 886

Physican-caused

Question 887

What is the purpose of performing serial Hb and Hct after a blood transfusion?

Answer 887

To mother the therapeutic or nontherapeutic response

Question 888

Upon investigation of a DHTR, what should be included in the medical history ?

Answer 888

All of the above

Question 889

Which of the following clinical manifestation is not included in the physically or chemically induced transfusion reactions?

Answer 889

Hemosidrosis

Question 890

All of the following are immediate nonhemolytic transfusion reactions, except

Answer 890

PTP

Question 891

Which of the following is indicative of GVHD?

Answer 891

Pancytopenia

Question 892

A patient transfused with 2 units of packe RBCs demonstrated signs of a transfusion reaction just before the second unit was completely infused. Hypotension, fever and back pain are the immediate symptoms. Blood work reaveals a 3% drop in Hct and prolong PT. What therapy is given to correct the PT?

Answer 892

FFP

Question 893

Which of the following is not a symptom of non cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

Answer 893

Hypervolemia

Question 894

Which of the following may be a factor in a non immune transfusion reaction?

Answer 894

Circulatory overload

Question 895

Which of the following urinalysis results represents hemolysis?

Answer 895

Reagent strip is positive for blood in absence of intact RBC’s microscopic

Question 896

Physical or chemical damage of the transfused RBCs can result in

Answer 896

Intravascular hemolysis

Question 897

A O-positive patient transfused with A-positive RBCs would experience which of the following

Answer 897

Acute hemolysis

Question 898

What is the primary mediator of an allergic response?

Answer 898

Histamine

Question 899

The presence of intact RBCs in microscopic urinalysis examination indicates

Answer 899

Bleeding

Question 900

Immediate transfusion reaction procedures consist of all of the following except:

Answer 900

Serum haptoglobin

Question 901

What symptom would not usually by found in a bacterial contamination reaction?

Answer 901

Tachycardia

Question 902

What test is indicated for the detection of HLA antibodies?

Answer 902

Lymphocyte panels

Question 903

What may be found in the serum of a person who is exhibiting signs of a noncardiogenic pulmonary edema reaction?

Answer 903

Anti-leukocyte antibody

Question 904

Which of the following describe the etiology of GVHD?

Answer 904

T lymphocytes from donor blood reacts with major and minor histocompatibility antigens in the patient

Question 905

A severe manifestation of alloimmunization might include

Answer 905

Platelet refractoriness

Question 906

Which patient are not at risk for circulatory overload>?

Answer 906

Patients with iron-deficiency anemia

Question 907

What type of hemolysis accompanies an anaphylactic reaction?

Answer 907

None of the above

Question 908

Which of the following therapies is not advocated in circulatory overload?

Answer 908

Whole blood units

Question 909

Which of the following should be collected immediately from a patent exhibiting signs of a septic reaction to blood products?

Answer 909

Blood cultures

Question 910

Changes that occur to RBC’s upon storage include an increase in

Answer 910

Calcium

Question 911

Which of the following indicates a hemolytic process?

Answer 911

Pre-transfusion plasma is yellow, post-transfusion plasma is red

Question 912

What is a common finding in a DHTR?

Answer 912

Jaundice

Question 913

Persons with PTP exhibit thrombocytopenia with platelet counts as low as 10,000 per uL. What other complications might be present?

Answer 913

Hematuria

Question 914

Which of the following is not characteristic of an anaphylactic reaction?

Answer 914

Electrophoretic levels of IgA

Question 915

What type of hemolysis is implicated in a DHTR caused by primary alloimmunization?

Answer 915

Extravascular

Question 916

Which of the following dest describes a transfusion reaction?

Answer 916

Any unfavorable transfusion-related event occurring in a patient during or after transfusion of blood components

Question 917

In a NHTR, patient antibody attaches to the specific foreign donors RBC antigen, causing sensitization of RBCs, which are removed by the

Answer 917

Reticuloendothelial system

Question 918

Which of the following is characterized by a rapid onset of thrombocytopenia due to anamestic production of platelet antibody?

Answer 918

PTP

Question 919

What is the length of time required from production of antibody in a DHTR caused by an anamnestic immune response?

Answer 919

3-7 days

Question 920

All of the following signs are consistent with circulatory overload except

Answer 920

Fever

Question 921

The most important initial step in evaluating a suspected hemolytic transfusion reaction is to

Answer 921

Reconfirm the patients identity and reexamine all pre-transfusion that has no medical explanation other than blood component transfusion

Question 922

Besides Hb, what other protein can cause a pink discoloration of serum or plasma in association with muscle trauma?

Answer 922

Myoglobin

Question 923

Alloimmunization may result from which of the following

Answer 923

Prior exposure to donor blood components

Question 924

Circulatory overload is cause by which of the following?

Answer 924

All of these

Question 925

Alloimmunization is categorized as what type of transfusion reaction?

Answer 925

Delayed nonhemolytic

Question 926

Which of the following should be collected 5-7 hours after transfusion for unconjugated bilirubin determination?

Answer 926

Clotted blood specimen

Question 927

What is the pathophysiological cause surrounding anaphylactic and anaphylactoid reactions?

Answer 927

A patient who is deficient in IgA develops IgA antibodies via sensitization from transfusion or pregnancy

Question 928

The specific cell product used for treating sepsis is the

Answer 928

Granulocyte

Question 929

Photopheresis is effective against what malignant disorder?

Answer 929

Cutaneous T cell lymphoma

Question 930

Plasma exchange is most effective when ______ is considered the pathological substance

Answer 930

IgM

Question 931

What is an example of a continuous flow centrifugation (CFC) instrument?

Answer 931

COBE spectra

Question 932

What effect does aspirin have on platelets?

Answer 932

Prevents platelet aggregation

Question 933

Which of the following incorporates membrane filtration technology with intermittent flow centrifugation (IFC) apheresis?

Answer 933

Fenway autospheresis-C

Question 934

What is the definition of apheresis?

Answer 934

Separation or removal of blood component from whole blood

Question 935

Which cell type is densest in the WBC layer when anticoagulated blood is centrifuged?

Answer 935

Granulocyte

Question 936

When a sample of whole blood is spun, distinct layers form. What cell line or lines make up the Buffy coat?

Answer 936

WBC and platelets

Question 937

A child undergoing apheresis may require CFC to minimize

Answer 937

Extracorporeal volume

Question 938

A normal healthy donor undergoes a procedure to obtain platelets that will be transfused to a patient is representative of

Answer 938

Components apheresis collection

Question 939

In what circumstances is a plasmpheresis donor rejected from donation?

Answer 939

Serum protien = 5.0 g/dL

Question 940

What other technique is available for neonates with sepsis when apheresis is unavailable

Answer 940

A Buffy coat prepared from a whole blood unit less than 12 hours old

Question 941

Which of the following is an indication for therapeutic apheresis?

Answer 941

B and C

Question 942

Which of the following factors influenced the need for apheresis technology ?

Answer 942

The blood component need of patients on chemotherapy

Question 943

All of the following statements are consistent with photopheresis except

Answer 943

The patient is given an oral dose of piroxicam, which binds to the RNC of all nucleated cells

Question 944

Which of the following statements best describes the apheresis concept?

Answer 944

Blood is removed from an individual, anticoagulated, and separated, the desired component is retained and the remaining portions are returned to the donor/patients

Question 945

What is the physicological cause of citrate toxicity in cytapheresis procedures?

Answer 945

The anticoagulant in plasma contains citrate, which binds calcium, lowering the body ionized calcium

Question 946

FFP is not the optimal product for replacement fluids for a therapeutic plasma exchange procedure. For which patient is FFP the optimal product of choice?

Answer 946

All of the above

Question 947

What possible risk exists when hydroxyethyl starch (HES) concentration has exceeded the renal threshold and excretion is retarded? q

Answer 947

Blockage of the reticuloendothelial system

Question 948

All of the following statements are consist with CFC except?

Answer 948

Reinfusions to the patient completes one cycle

Question 949

Currently, the immuno affinity column has FDA licensure for treating what disease state?

Answer 949

Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)

Question 950

What is the disadvantage of choosing FFP for fluid replacement in persons under going therapeutic plasmapheresis ?

Answer 950

All of the above

Question 951

The platelet count ________ of plateletpheresis donor must be_______ prior to the procedure

Answer 951

> 150 x 10^9 per L

Question 952

A donors estimated total blood volume was determined to be 4,500 mL before a plasmapheresis procedure. The extracorporeal blood volume should not exceed:

Answer 952

675 mL

Question 953

In plateletpheresism, which blood component in returned to the donor

Answer 953

A and C

Question 954

Antiplatelet medications have differing deferral time periods. Which of the following doses not match?

Answer 954

Feldene- 7 days

Question 955

_______ testing is performed on platelet apheresis products to make sure that HIV, WNV, and hepatitis c are not present

Answer 955

Nucleic acid

Question 956

Plasmapheresis is synonymous with what term?

Answer 956

Plasmas exhange

Question 957

Erythrocytapheresis is successful in which of the following conditions?

Answer 957

Malaria

Question 958

What is the primary anticoagulant used in pheresis procedures

Answer 958

Citrate

Question 959

What variables are necessary to calculate the donors total blood volume ?

Answer 959

All of the above

Question 960

Fatalities that result from therapeutic aphersis have primarily been caused by

Answer 960

Cardiac arrest and arrhythmia

Question 961

Leukopheresis may be indicated when the WBC count exceeds

Answer 961

100,000 per uL

Question 962

Which apheresis method carries the additional risk of retuning RBCs to the worn individual and yielding the smallest volume of selected blood component/?

Answer 962

Manual aphersis

Question 963

Which immunoadsorbent has an affinity for IgG classes 1, 2 and 4 and their immune complexes?

Answer 963

Staphylococcal protein A

Question 964

What can be done to prevent the development of HLA alloimmunization and platelet refractoriness?

Answer 964

Ruched the number of leukocytes in the platelet product

Question 965

Which of the following is not indication for plasmapheresis ?

Answer 965

To decrease iron deposition in tissues in chronically transfused patients

Question 966

All of the following constitute variables of apheresis procedures except

Answer 966

Blood type

Question 967

What is therapeutic plasmapheresis?

Answer 967

The removal of large volumes of patient plasma

Question 968

The hematopoietic progenitor cells that eventually repopulate the bone marrow and also circulate in the blood are called

Answer 968

Peripheral blood stem cells

Question 969

A person participating in a serial aphersis program would not

Answer 969

Lose more than 25 ml of RBCs per week

Question 970

How is HES used in apheresis production

Answer 970

As a sedimenting against to separate WBCs from RBCs

Question 971

While undergoing plasmapheresis, the donor experienced numbness around his mouth which is indicative of citrate toxicity. How can this be treated?

Answer 971

Administrating exogenous calcium

Question 972

The concentrate obtained from plateletpheresis via a closed system is store for 5 days at room temperature. What must the pH be at the end of storage?

Answer 972

> = 6.0

Question 973

When is isolation of PBSCs via apheresis equipment indicated?

Answer 973

All of the above

Question 974

The method in which a specific ligand is bound to an insoluble matrix in a column and plasma is perfused over the column with select removal pathogenic substance and return of patients plasma is known as

Answer 974

Immunoadsorption

Question 975

Which of the following conditions would necessitate a plasmapheresis procedure

Answer 975

Barbiturate poisoning

Question 976

During a plasmapheresis procedure, the RBCs must be returned within how many hours of phlebotomy?

Answer 976

2 hours

Question 977

Citrate used as an anticoagulant in aphersis procedures is removed from the body by:

Answer 977

Being metabolized in the liver

Question 978

What effect do steroids have on Leukopheresis?

Answer 978

Increase the vascular pool of granulocytes

Question 979

Which patients are at the most risk for platelet refactoriness where they come alloimmunized to HLA antigens on platelets?

Answer 979

Leukemic patients

Question 980

One unit of apheresed platelets should increase the platelet count ______

Answer 980

20,000-60,000 per uL

Question 981

Compatibility testing is required for granulocyte concentration if the RBC contamination is greater than

Answer 981

5 mL

Question 982

What does the Hct need to be (regardless of gender) for a double RBC collection?

Answer 982

40%

Question 983

The removal of bile acids from patient plasma can be assisted through the use of the which adsorbent during plasmapheresis procedures?

Answer 983

Charcoal

Question 984

The removal of endotoxins from patient plasma can be assisted through the use of which adsorbent during plasmapheresis procdures?

Answer 984

Polymyxin B

Question 985

The removal of granulocytic cells from patient plasma can be assisted through the use of which adsorbent during plasmapheresis procdures?

Answer 985

Cellulose acetate

Question 986

What is the purpose of washing the cells after the initial cell-serum incubation in the Amos-modified antibody screen procedure?

Answer 986

To remove aggregated immunoglobin in the serum

Question 987

How is induction of tolerance achieved in kidney transplantation ?

Answer 987

Blood transfusion before transplant

Question 988

How are the heavy chains of major histocompatibilty complex (MHC) classes I and II molecules transported into the cell membrane?

Answer 988

Heavy chains are inserted through the membrane via hydrophobic residues

Question 989

Which of the following is a phenomenon in which an antiserum directed against one HLA determinant reacts with other HLA antigenic determinants?

Answer 989

Cross reactivity

Question 990

HLA-DR typing requires a ______ suspension

Answer 990

B-lymphocyte

Question 991

HLA testing is useful in what other area of study?

Answer 991

All of the above

Question 992

All of the following disease have been associated with a significant HLA correlation except:

Answer 992

Fanconi’s anemia

Question 993

Why is histocompatibility testing negated in both lung and heart transplants?

Answer 993

The cold ischemic time is too short

Question 994

What is the most important step for increasing the number of bone marrow transplants performed?

Answer 994

Expand the donor pool to include both related and unrelated individuals

Question 995

What is meant be the term public as applied to HLA antibodies?

Answer 995

Binding to epitopes shard by more than one HLA gene product

Question 996

What is the definition of total ischemic time in heart transplantation?

Answer 996

The amount of time there is nit blood flow through the organ

Question 997

The MHC class I region encodes for all of the following gene except:

Answer 997

HLA-DR

Question 998

Which of the following is an example of linkage disequilibrium?

Answer 998

The actually occurrence of haplotype HLA-A1 and HLA-B8 is 8%; the expected occurrence based on gene frequencies is 2%

Question 999

What does HLA stand for

Answer 999

Human leukocyte antigen

Question 1000

Why are monoclonal antibodies able to detect a broad range of epitopes?

Answer 1000

They are derived through xenoimmunization

Question 1001

How is complement detected in HLA testing?

Answer 1001

Uptake of trypan blue dye

Question 1002

The majority of HLA alloantibodies are ________ immunoglobulins

Answer 1002

IgG

Question 1003

How is histocompatibility testing different from RBC testing?

Answer 1003

None of the above

Question 1004

The surface marker, or antigen, detected in histocompatibility testing of a single individual is referred to as HLA

Answer 1004

Phenotype

Question 1005

Which of the following is acceptable for cytotoxicity techniques

Answer 1005

ACD

Question 1006

What is the main purpose of crossmatching before transplantion ?

Answer 1006

To identify antibody in the serum of the potential recipient to antigens present on donor tissues

Question 1007

Recipient lymphocytotoxic HLA-antibody to donor antigens is associated with:

Answer 1007

Haplotype

Question 1008

The genetic region that contains surface antigens or receptors responsible for the recognition and elimination of foreign tissues is referred to as:

Answer 1008

MHC

Question 1009

How many targets are required for HLA antibody screening?

Answer 1009

30

Question 1010

How might platelet survival be improved in a patient receiving platelets despite a near perfect HLA match between recipient and donor?

Answer 1010

Remove leukocytes from the donor unit

Question 1011

In HLA testing, what is the purpose of mineral oil contained in the testing well?

Answer 1011

To prevent evaporation of antisera during incubation

Question 1012

Kidney transplant are used to treat which disease?

Answer 1012

End-stage renal disease

Question 1013

Which MHC region encodes for complement proteins?

Answer 1013

Class III

Question 1014

Between which two loci are recombination (crossing over) most likely to occur?

Answer 1014

HLA-A and HLA-DP

Question 1015

What does the R signify in the HLA-DR locus?

Answer 1015

Subregion of D

Question 1016

MHC class II molecules are expressed on all of the following except

Answer 1016

Platelets

Question 1017

A common technique used for HLA class II typing that involves amplification of specific DNA sequences for hybridization is called

Answer 1017

PCR

Question 1018

In testing for HLA-D antigens ______ typing cells of each phenotype are set up in an MLR as______ against the test cells.

Answer 1018

Homozygous/stimulators

Question 1019

What is most important pretransplant test performed on the recipient in a heart transplantion?

Answer 1019

HLA-antibody screen

Question 1020

How are monoclonal HLA antibodies (MoAbs) produced?

Answer 1020

The fusion of HLA antibody, producing B cells with plasmacytoma lines

Question 1021

Why are the T cells unacceptable for cytotoxicity testing using fluorescent labeling?

Answer 1021

T cells lack immunoglobulin on their surface

Question 1022

What kidney transplant strategy is satisfied through matching of the donor and recipient antigens?

Answer 1022

Reduction of graft “foreigness

Question 1023

A double lung transplant is indicated in which of the following disorders?

Answer 1023

Cystic fibrosis

Question 1024

A patient who has been presensitized to foreign HLA antigens will demonstrate _______if the donor tissue expresses the same antigens

Answer 1024

Graft rejection

Question 1025

The primary indication for pancreas transplantation is

Answer 1025

Diabetes

Question 1026

The HLA-A locus antigens A2, A23, A24, and A28 make up the

Answer 1026

A2-CREG

Question 1027

Which of the following specificities designates the HLA-C gene?

Answer 1027

Cw

Question 1028

Which of the following is NOT a rule for HLA nomenclature?

Answer 1028

The allele group is designated by the fourth numeric field

Question 1029

What is placed between the gene name and the numerical identified for the allele to differentiate between the gene nomenclature and HLA serologic reactivity?

Answer 1029

Asterisk

Question 1030

Which of these is NOT the purpose of the virtual crossmatch?

Answer 1030

Eliminating the serologic testing process

Question 1031

Which of these is not a concern in the virtual crossmatch?

Answer 1031

The type of organ that is being transplanted

Question 1032

True or false: patients who have presensitized to HLA antigens have a much higher graft Survival rate in liver transplantation than non sensitized patients

Answer 1032

False

Question 1033

True or false: the majority of cross-reactive alloantibodies detect HLA specificities of allelic molecules coded by the same locus

Answer 1033

True

Question 1034

How do internal assessments differ from compliance inspections?

Answer 1034

Internal assessments are more frequent than compliance inspections

Question 1035

Why might a laboratory adopt in individualized quality control plan (IQCP)?

Answer 1035

To do all of these

Question 1036

Employee training takes place

Answer 1036

After hiring and after implementing new procedures

Question 1037

What is the function of the quality committee or quality council?

Answer 1037

To set priorities for quality improvements

Question 1038

What is the main purpose of linking Current Good Manufacturing Practices (CGMPs) to process control?

Answer 1038

To build quality into the manufacturing process from the beginning to the end

Question 1039

A physician complains that she has not received, what measure is taken to determine equivalency?

Answer 1039

Lot-to-lot testing of new and old numbers of reagent

Question 1040

Which of the following is not regarded as an instrument?

Answer 1040

Cuvette

Question 1041

Which of the following might lead to unacceptable quality control results?

Answer 1041

All of the above

Question 1042

Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

Answer 1042

A blood donor

Question 1043

Which statement concerning compliance programs is false?

Answer 1043

Programs are designed to evaluate effectiveness of blood bank laboratories

Question 1044

A standard operating procdure (SOP) is:

Answer 1044

A set of directions for how to perform a particular task

Question 1045

What phase is synonymous with “quality management”?

Answer 1045

Organization-wide quality assurance

Question 1046

All of the following are transfusion service quality assurance indicators used to monitor patient care except

Answer 1046

Number of therapeutic units drawn

Question 1047

Which of the following statements concerning equipment is true?

Answer 1047

Frequency of testing is determined by manufacturer recommendations

Question 1048

Which continuous improvement cycle component ensures the finished product has met required specifications?

Answer 1048

Assess

Question 1049

As part of postemployment departmental training, a medical technologist was given 10 known blood samples to analyze for ABO specificity. This is referred to as

Answer 1049

A competence assessment

Question 1050

Process improvement teams address all of the following issues except

Answer 1050

Filing a grievance

Question 1051

Calibrating equipment prior to use is considered which function of quality?

Answer 1051

Quality control

Question 1052

Daily testing the reactivity of blood typing reagents is considered which function of quality?

Answer 1052

Quality control

Question 1053

Which of the following is not part of an individualized quality control plan (IQCP)?

Answer 1053

New instrument validation

Question 1054

Which of these need NOT be evaluated during a risk assessment?

Answer 1054

Patient opinion survey

Question 1055

Which of these should be evaluated during risk assessment?

Answer 1055

All of these

Question 1056

Quality assessment monitors include reviews of all of these except

Answer 1056

Vendor management system

Question 1057

A quality framework in the blood bank ensues all of the following except

Answer 1057

Blood bank operation are customized to individual staff preferences

Question 1058

Which of the following relationships is NOT considered a quality essential of an organization?

Answer 1058

Blood ban, personnel links to their families

Question 1059

Which of the following is NOT an internal customer for the transfusion service?

Answer 1059

Patient receiving blood products

Question 1060

Laboratory safety training must include which of these for blood bank personnel?

Answer 1060

All of these

Question 1061

Competency assessment for blood bank personnel includes all of these except

Answer 1061

Cross-training into other areas of the laboratory

Question 1062

Which of these records may reviewed during competency assessment for blood bank personnel?

Answer 1062

All of these

Question 1063

What is a flowchart?

Answer 1063

A tool that displays all the elements involved in a process

Question 1064

What is the purpose of a flowchart?

Answer 1064

All of these

Question 1065

Which of these does NOT describe a flowchart?

Answer 1065

Is useless in obtaining better control of a process

Question 1066

Testing all activities in a new process to ensure that the process will work in the live environment is a function of

Answer 1066

Validation studies

Question 1067

The use of different colored sera for blood bank reagents is an example of

Answer 1067

Process control

Question 1068

Which of these is part of process control ?

Answer 1068

All of these

Question 1069

An outcomes of performing procedures and testing is called a

Answer 1069

Result

Question 1070

Copies of regulations and accreditation requirements are examples of

Answer 1070

Documents

Question 1071

Examples of documents include

Answer 1071

All of the above

Question 1072

Examples of forms include

Answer 1072

All of the above

Question 1073

A good document control process does all of these except

Answer 1073

Eliminates the need to document all changes or corrections to procedures

Question 1074

Which of the following statements is true?

Answer 1074

Remedial action does not uncover the real cause of the nonconformance

Question 1075

An action taken to identify and eliminate the cause of nonconformance is what type of action?

Answer 1075

Corrective

Question 1076

An action taken to reduce or eliminate the potential for a nonconformance is what type of action?

Answer 1076

Preventive

Question 1077

The process of define, measure. Analyze, improve and control is known as which process?

Answer 1077

Six sigma

Question 1078

A Pareto chart is used at what stage of the DMAIC process

Answer 1078

Define

Question 1079

Using a SIPOC diagram occurs at what stage of DMAIC process?

Answer 1079

Define

Question 1080

Understanding the cause of and effect relationships occurs at what stage of the DMAIC process?

Answer 1080

Analyze

Question 1081

Using the DOE tool occurs as what stage of the DMAIC process?

Answer 1081

Improve

Question 1082

Ensuring that the implemented changes are sustained occurs at what stage of the DMAIC process?

Answer 1082

Control

Question 1083

The cost of good quality (COGQ) does NOT include which of these?

Answer 1083

Nonconformance costs

Question 1084

Conformance costs may include

Answer 1084

All of these

Question 1085

The cost incurred for calibration materials and reagents is an example of what type of cost?

Answer 1085

Internal evaluation costs

Question 1086

The cost incurred for proficiency testing and periodic licensure or accreditation inspections is what type of cost?

Answer 1086

External evaluation costs

Question 1087

Which of these costs is a cost of poor quality (COPQ)

Answer 1087

Nonconformance costs

Question 1088

The cost incurred when discarding donated blood units is an example of what type of cost?

Answer 1088

Internal failure costs

Question 1089

The cost incurred with customer product recalls is an example of what type of cost?

Answer 1089

External failure cost

Question 1090

Both the blood bank and the entire medical laboratory use which of the following?

Answer 1090

All of these

Question 1091

Many transfusion-transmitted acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (TTAIDS) lawsuits have been dismissed because of

Answer 1091

Inability to prove negligence

Question 1092

What is the meaning of tort reform?

Answer 1092

Protecting of specialty practices from punitive or excessive awards by state legislatures

Question 1093

What kind of cases stimulated state legislatures to enact protection for blood banks through so-called bood shield statues?

Answer 1093

TTH

Question 1094

What body of government is authorized to pass laws?

Answer 1094

All of the above

Question 1095

Why are physicians selected as the “respondent superior” in negligent cases?

Answer 1095

Physicians give the order to transfuse

Question 1096

Which of the following situations is grounds for a plaintiff claim under invasion of privacy?

Answer 1096

All of the above

Question 1097

What is the rationale surrounding the Doctrine of Charitable immunity??

Answer 1097

Courts provide immunity from excess liability for nonprofit organizations

Question 1098

Liability for negligence includes all of the following except`

Answer 1098

Failure to meet the duty was indirectly responsible for harm suffered by injured party

Question 1099

How does the doctrine of informed consent protect the donor?

Answer 1099

By requiring that information be provided to the donor in a manner that he or she can understand and ask questions about, if so desired

Question 1100

What would be the effect of redefining blood banking outside the realm of medical practice in litigation cases??

Answer 1100

Expert medical testimony would not be needed to establish standard of care

Question 1101

How is battery conceptualized in transfusion medicine ?

Answer 1101

A donor claim never to have agreed to be stuck by a needle

Question 1102

In regard to donor histories, the federal government has put an emphasis on______ in the hope of acquiring more descriptive information from persons who may be injected with HIV

Answer 1102

Face-to-face oral questions

Question 1103

What would be the plaintiffs claim for a case involving a donor or defendant who intentionally donated HIV-positive blood for transfusion purposes?

Answer 1103

Wrongful death

Question 1104

All of the following are emerging concerns of transfusion medicine except

Answer 1104

Antibody testing procedures

Question 1105

Blood banks are federally regulated which of the following?

Answer 1105

FDA

Question 1106

In transfusion services, who is liable for the actions of employees as determined by federal law?

Answer 1106

Physician

Question 1107

The _______ is an example of a voluntary standard, as related to transfusion Medicine

Answer 1107

AABB standards

Question 1108

Who determines the professional standard of care in a negligence lawsuits ?

Answer 1108

Expert witnesses

Question 1109

Plaintiffs have prevailed in TTAID multimillion-dollar medical malpractice suits against physicians for which of the following arguments?

Answer 1109

The patient did not needs a transfusion based on clinical data

Question 1110

Which of the following best describes strict liability?

Answer 1110

Manufacturers are legally liable for all harm that occurs through use of a product

Question 1111

Which of the following species of organisms are known to infect RBCs in storage?

Answer 1111

All of the above

Question 1112

What is the legal basis for lawsuits filed against as a result of transfusion?

Answer 1112

Civil actions for tort and tort liability

Question 1113

All of the following injuries from component collection maybe grounds for a civil suit except

Answer 1113

A hematoma

Question 1114

Vivian cases involving TTAIDS in the 1980s, when plaintiffs argued infected patients were insufficiently warned of the hazards of transfusion, were unsuccessful in their litigation efforts because

Answer 1114

Scientific knowledge was limited, as stated by experts

Question 1115

Lawsuits against blood collection agencies from improper donor screening can be ruled in favor of blood center if which of the following occurs?

Answer 1115

Scientific knowledge was limited, as stated by experts

Question 1116

Lawsuits against blood collection agencies for improper donor screening can be ruled in favor of the blood center if which of the following occurs?

Answer 1116

All of these

Question 1117

Lawsuits against blood collection agencies for improper donor screening can be ruled in favor of the plaintiff if which of the following occurs?

Answer 1117

Any of these

Question 1118

How must a standard operating procedure (SOP) be written in order to stand up against legal scrutiny?

Answer 1118

All of these

Question 1119

In the absence of federal law, what justification can provide precedence for future decisions

Answer 1119

State

Question 1120

Donors who were protected in the past from subpoena in cases of transfusion-transmitted diseases now may be questioned by the court. How might the donors identity be handled?

Answer 1120

Any of these