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physiology allied health > Unit 2: CNS Sensory > Flashcards

Unit 2: CNS Sensory Flashcards

1
Q

what does structure determine

A

function

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2
Q

what symmetry do humans have

A

bilateral

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3
Q

organization of the nervous system

A
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4
Q

anterior or rostral

A

front part of a structure

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5
Q

posterior or caudal

A

back part of a structure

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6
Q

dorsal

A

pointing out of the back

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7
Q

ventral

A

pointing towards the ground

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8
Q

lateral

A

towards the side

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9
Q

medial

A

towards the middle

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10
Q

ipsilateral

A

same side of the body

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11
Q

contralateral

A

opposite side of the body

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12
Q

horizontal

A

a slice parallel to the ground

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13
Q

coronal (transverse)

A

a slice vertical from front to back

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14
Q

sagittal

A
  • a slice perpendicular to the ground
  • parallel to the neuraxis
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15
Q

hindbrain parts

A
  • myelencephalon
  • metencephalon
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16
Q

myelencephalon

A
  • contains medulla oblongata
  • contains nuclei that control vital functions (breathing and skeletal muscle tone)
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17
Q

metencephalon

A
  • the cerebellum: receives information from sensory systems, muscles, and vestibular system; produce smooth movement
  • pons: a large bulge on the brain stem involved in sleep and arousal
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18
Q

mesencephalon

A
  • one of the 3 divisions of the brainstem
  • basic physiological function (breathing, swallowing, heart beat)
  • gates sensory and motor information
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19
Q

red nucleus

A

coordinates sensorimotor information

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20
Q

substantia nigra

A

cells make dopamine and project to basal ganglia

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21
Q

periaqueductal grey matter

A

involved in pain suppression due to high concentration of endorphins

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22
Q

forebrain parts

A
  • diencephalon
  • telencephalon (cerebrum)
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23
Q

diencephalon

A
  • thalamus: interconnected nuclei receive information from the sensory systems (except olfactory) and relay information to sensory processing area in the cortex; learning and memory; slow sleep waves generated
  • hypothalamus: 22 nuclei and pituitary gland, control the ANS and endocrine system; key aspects of behavior (feeding, sex, sleep, temp. regulation, emotional behavior)
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24
Q

telencephalon

A
  • hemispheres separated by the longitudinal fissure
  • hemispheres connected by the corpus callosum
  • grey matter and white matter
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25
Q

how much of the cerebrum is hidden in the gyri and sulci

A

2/3

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26
Q

spinal cord function

A
  • neuronal link between PNS and brain
  • spinal reflex integration center
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27
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves are there

A

31

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28
Q

dorsal root meaning

A

afferent sensory

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29
Q

ventral root mening

A

efferent motor

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30
Q

phrenology definition

A
  • skull mimicks personality
  • larger brain area (ex. forehead) indicates a greater tendency toward the faculty of that area
  • not valid as a scientific theory
  • first time a specific function was associated with a specific brain region
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31
Q

electrical stimulation

A
  • Luigi Rolando (1809)
  • provided proof that the CNS was electrically excitable and that brain functions are anatomically localized
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32
Q

case of Phineas Gage

A
  • spike went through his skull
  • profound personality changes after the accident
  • personality improvement in Chile (using social and complex cognitive-motor skills)
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33
Q

case of Patient Tan

A
  • diagnosed with epilepsy early in childhood
  • admitted to hospital at 21, could only say “tan” twice in a row
  • broca coined this disorder aphasia
  • good comprehension
  • broca reported softening in what would become known as broca’s area in a brain examination postmortem
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34
Q

who coined the term aphasia

A

paul broca

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35
Q

aphasi

A

absence of overt speech

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36
Q

paul broca patients

A
  • patient tan
  • patient lelong
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37
Q

case of patient lelong

A
  • reduced productive speech at 84 after a stroke
  • could only say 5 words (oui, non, tois, toujours, and lelo)
  • lelong had a lesion in the same region as patient tan
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38
Q

broca’s area

A

the frontal lobe of the dominant sphere (left for most of righthanded people and half of left handed people)

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39
Q

who first described receptive aphasia

A

carl wernicke

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40
Q

receptive aphasia

A
  • impaired comprehension of their own speech
  • don’t realize their errors
  • associated with stroke, trauma, tumor, infections, and degenerative brain disorders
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41
Q

wernicke’s area

A

a region of superior temporal gyrus in the dominant cerebral hemisphere

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42
Q

types of aphasia

A
  • broca’s aphasia
  • wernicke’s aphasia
  • conduction aphasia
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43
Q

broca’s aphasia

A

difficulty in production of language

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44
Q

receptive aphasia

A

difficulty in comprehension of language

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45
Q

conduction aphasia

A
  • due to damage of arcuate fasciculus
  • patients are aware of their mistakes and try to fix them
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46
Q

arcuate fasciculus

A

the bundle of axons that connect broca’s area to wernicke’s area

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47
Q

case of patient h.m.

A
  • hit his head while biking
  • intractable epilepsy after the accident (blocking out often, convulsions, could no longer work)
  • dr. scoville removed two finger-shaped slivers of tissue from his brain (anterior 2/3 of hippocampi, parahippocampal cortices, entorhinal cortices, piriform cortices, and amygdala)
  • seizers stopped but developed severe anterograde amnesia (short term memory intact, no new long-term memories) and retrograde amnesia (could not remember events from 3-4 days before surgery and some events up to 11 years before)
  • ability to form long-term procedural memories was intact (could learn new motor skills but not remember learning them)
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48
Q

unit of structure of the CNS

A

neurons

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49
Q

neuron - cell membrane

A
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50
Q

neuron - dendrites

A
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51
Q

neuron - cell body (soma)

A
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52
Q

neuron - axon

A
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53
Q

neuron - axon hillock

A
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54
Q

neuron - myelin sheath

A
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55
Q

neuron - node of ranvier

A
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56
Q

neuron - synaptic end bulbs

A
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57
Q

neuron - axon terminal

A
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58
Q

pre- and postsynaptic neurons - presynaptic neuron

A
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59
Q

pre- and postsynaptic neurons - neurotransmitters

A
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60
Q

pre- and postsynaptic neurons - receptors

A
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61
Q

pre- and postsynaptic neurons - postsynaptic neuron

A
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62
Q

pre- and postsynaptic neurons - synaptic cleft

A
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63
Q

pre- and postsynaptic neurons - synaptic vesicles

A
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64
Q

pre- and postsynaptic neurons - axon terminal

A
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65
Q

action potential

A

electrical signals sent over a long distance

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66
Q

a plasma membrane is a ________________ ______________ that is composed of:

A
  • phospholipid bilayer
  • phospholipids
  • glycolipids
  • cholesterol
  • membrane protein
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67
Q

plasma membrane - extracellular matrix fibers

A
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68
Q

plasma membrane - glycoproteins

A
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69
Q

plasma membrane - carbohydrates

A
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70
Q

plasma membrane - glycolipid

A
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71
Q

plasma membrane - cytoplasm

A
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72
Q

plasma membrane - proteins

A
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73
Q

plasma membrane - cholesterol

A
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74
Q

plasma membrane - phospholipid

A
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75
Q

plasma membrane - cytoskeleton microfilaments

A
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76
Q

plasma membrane - intercellular space

A
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77
Q

phospholipid - hydrophobic tail

A
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78
Q

phospholipid - hydrophilic head

A
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79
Q

is the plasma membrane highly permeable?

A

no, it is selectively permeable

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80
Q

what do plasma membranes allow directly through

A
  • gas (COs, O2, N2, etc.)
  • small uncharged polar molecules (ethanol, etc.)
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81
Q

what do plasma membranes sometimes allow directly through

A

water (only in specific conditions)

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82
Q

what plasma membranes never allow directly through

A
  • ions (K+, Ca2+, etc.)
  • charged polar molecules (amino acids, ATP, etc.)
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83
Q

how do ions and charged polar molecules go across a plasma membrane

A
  • simple diffusion
  • facilitated diffusion (protein-mediated)
  • active transport
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84
Q

which channel/carrier proteins are passive and which require energy

A

passive:
- facilitated diffusion

energy:
- active transport

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85
Q

passive transport

A

down concentration gradient

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86
Q

why does active transport require energy

A

it goes against the concentration gradient

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87
Q

electrochemical gradient

A

combination of concentration and charge differences across the membrane

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88
Q

facilitated diffusion

A

passive, down gradient using a protein channel or carrier

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89
Q

channel proteins

A

selective pore

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90
Q

carrier proteins

A

bind solutes tightly, undergo conformational changes

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91
Q

which transport maintains chemical imbalance necessary for life

A

active transport

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92
Q

charge (Q)

A

net imbalance in the number of positively and negatively charged particles

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93
Q

current (I)

A
  • flow of electrically charged particles
  • charged particles = ions
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94
Q

voltage (V)

A
  • difference in charge between inside and outside of the cell
  • represents an electrical potential energy gradient down which particles want to move
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95
Q

electrical gradient

A
  • influenced by the overall electrical charge
  • positive ions would flow toward negative charge
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96
Q

chemical gradient

A
  • influenced by the individual concentration of a particular ion
  • all ions move from high to low concentration
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97
Q

the direction that an ion moves depends on:

A
  • overall net effect of electrical and chemical (electrochemical) gradients
  • membrane permeability to ions (no channels = no movement)
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98
Q

how is the electrochemical gradient maintained

A

Na+-K+ pump

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99
Q

Na+-K+ pump

A
  • maintains Na+ and K+ gradients across the plasma membrane
  • abundant
  • P-type transport ATPase
  • phosphorylation changes the conformation of the pump, exposing binding side on the extracellular membrane
  • ionic imbalance
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100
Q

ionic imbalance importance

A
  • intracellular pH control
  • osmotic control
  • transport
  • excitability
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101
Q

how much of a cell’s energy foes to powering the Na+-K+ pump

A

1/3

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102
Q

Na+-K+ pump step 1

A

binding cytoplasmic Na+ stimulates ATP

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103
Q

Na+-K+ pump step 2

A

phosphorylation causes conformational change

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104
Q

Na+-K+ pump step 3

A

Na+ is liberated outside and K+ binding sites are exposed inside

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105
Q

Na+-K+ pump step 4

A

binding K+ triggers the release of the phosphate

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106
Q

Na+-K+ pump step 5

A

release of phosphate restores original conformation

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107
Q

Na+-K+ pump step 6

A

K+ is released and Na+ binding sites are exposed in the cytoplasm

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108
Q

equilibrium potential

A

the electrical potential difference that exactly counterbalances diffusion due to the concentration difference

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109
Q

nernst equation

A
  • electrical potential required to oppose the movement of an ion across a permeable membrane
  • provides a measure of the chemical driving potential established by the concentration gradient for ion
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110
Q

gating definition

A

transition between conducting and non-conducting (open and closed) states of an ion channel

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111
Q

goldman equation

A
  • defines membrane potential
  • accounts for relative permeability of the ions
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112
Q

which axon was used to determine resting membrane potentials

A

squid giant axon

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113
Q

absolute refractory period

A
  • a period of complete resistance to stimulation
  • Na+ channel inactivation means after an action potential there is a brief period when no other action potentials can be generated
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114
Q

relative refractory period

A
  • a period of partial resistance to stimulation
  • lasts as long as K channels are open
  • strong stimulus can trigger a new action potential
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115
Q

contiguous conduction

A

conduction of action potentials in unmyelinated axons

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116
Q

conduction speed definition

A

nerve impulse speed

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117
Q

conduction speed number

A

nerve impulse travels 1 meter in 0.1 seconds

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118
Q

c fibers job

A

carry sensory information

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119
Q

are c fibers myelinated

A

no

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120
Q

c fiber damage causes what

A

neuropathic pain

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121
Q

axon potential propagation speed depends on ….

A

how local currents spread

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122
Q

how local currents spread in axon potential propagation speed depends on

A
  • internal resistance of the axon
  • resistance of the axonal membrane
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123
Q

do narrow axons have high or low internal resistance

A

high

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124
Q

to get a faster axon potential propagation speed the axon could be ….

A
  • wider
  • myelinated to increase membrane resistance
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125
Q

myelin

A

a membrane component from glial cells that surrounds and insulates consecutive axon segments

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126
Q

saltatory conduction

A

the way an electrical impulse skips from node to node down the full length of an axon, speeding the arrival of the impulse at the nerve terminal

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127
Q

myelinated fibers in the PNS

A

schwann cells

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128
Q

myelinated fibers in the CNS

A

oligodendrocytes

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129
Q

consequence of demyelination

A

multiple sclerosis (MS)

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130
Q

multiple sclerosis

A
  • autoimmune disease
  • myelin sheath degenerates and forms hardened scars
  • affected axons degenerate
  • slowing and block of AP conduction
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131
Q

multiple sclerosis risk factors

A
  • age (20-40 years old)
  • sex (women)
  • family history
  • certain infections (Epstein-Barr infection aka mono)
  • race (white)
  • temperate climate
  • vitamin d deficiency
  • other autoimmune diseases (thyroid disease, psoriasis, type 1 disease)
  • smoking
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132
Q

peripheral nervous system function

A
  • sensory systems: detect external and internal stimuli
  • higher brain regions: process and integrate different information and make decisions
  • motor systems: execute decisions
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133
Q

pns

A

fibers (other than brain and spinal cord) that carry information between CNS and other body parts

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134
Q

PNS divisions

A
  • afferent division
  • efferent division
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135
Q

PNS types of afferent divisions

A
  • visceral afferent
  • sensory afferent
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136
Q

PNS afferent division

A

send information from internal and external environment to CNS

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137
Q

PNS visceral afferent

A

incoming information from internal viscera

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138
Q

PNS sensory afferent

A
  • somatic: sensation from body surface and proprioception
  • special senses: vision, hearing, smell, taste
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139
Q

PNS efferent division

A

send information from the CNS to muscles and glands

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140
Q

perception

A

conscious interpretation of external world derived from sensory input

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141
Q

does pure sensory input give true reality perception

A

no

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142
Q

why does pure sensory input not give true reality perception

A
  • human receptors only detect a limited number of stimuli
  • limited resolution (information channels are not high-fidelity records)
  • information can be enhanced/suppressed when it reaches our brain
  • brain interprets and distors information to extract conclusions
  • interpretation affected by cultural, social, and personal experiences
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143
Q

stimulus

A

a change detectable by the body

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144
Q

different modalities of stimuli

A

heat, light, sound, etc.

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145
Q

stimulus receptors

A

structures at peripheral endings of afferent neurons

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146
Q

receptors function

A

convert stimuli into electrical signals

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147
Q

stimulus sequence

A
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148
Q

sensory system parts

A

sensory receptors, their axonal pathways, and perception target areas in the brain

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149
Q

modalities

A

different classes

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150
Q

specialized sensory receptors detect ….

A

different stimuli classes

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151
Q

exteroceptors

A

specialized neurons on the outside of the body

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152
Q

interoceptors

A

specialized neurons on the inside of the body

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153
Q

exteroceptors/interoceptors function

A

transduction

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154
Q

transduction

A

the process of converting energy from a stimulus into electrical signals via receptor/generator potential which triggers an action potential if thresholds are reached

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155
Q

photoreceptors sense and stimulus

A
  • vision
  • light
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156
Q

mechanoreceptors sense and stimulus

A
  • touch, balance, proprioception, hearing
  • mechanical energy (stretching muscle, hair cell movement)
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157
Q

thermoreceptors sense and stimulus

A
  • temperature
  • heat and cold
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158
Q

chemoreceptors sense and stimulus

A
  • smell, taste
  • specific chemicals (O2, etc.)
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159
Q

nociceptors sense and stimulus

A
  • pain
  • excessive pressure, temperature, specific chemicals
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160
Q

where do primary afferent axons enter

A

the spinal cord through the dorsal roots

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161
Q

where do primary afferent axon somas remain

A

spinal cord dorsal root ganglia

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162
Q

nerve fiber types

A
  • Aα
  • Aβ
  • Aδ
  • C
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163
Q

efferent motor nerve fibers

A
  • Aγ
  • B
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164
Q

which nerve fiber do skin receptors lack

A

Aα

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165
Q

are C fibers myelinated or unmyelinated

A

unmyelinated

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166
Q

nerve fiber axon diameter

A

bigger diameter = lower resistance

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167
Q

unmyelinated voltage regulated channels function

A
  • account for ion leakage across the membrane
  • conduct impulses slowly
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168
Q

where is there ion leakage in myelinated axons

A

Nodes of Ranvier

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169
Q

where is graded potential generated

A

in a receptor cell or free nerve ending

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170
Q

graded potential is proportional to …

A

stimulus strength

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171
Q

action potential is ….

A

all or nothing

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172
Q

receptor cell

A
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173
Q

free nerve ending

A
174
Q

stimulus intensity is encoded in …

A
  • actional potential frequency
  • the number of activated receptors
175
Q

single sensory unit stimulation weak versus strong simulus

A
176
Q

multiple sensory unit stimulation weak versus strong stimulus

A
177
Q

receptor potential

A
  • occur in seperate receptor cells
  • stimulus opens ion channels causing graded membrane potential
  • receptor cell releases chemical messenger
  • chemical messenger opens ion channels in afferent neuron action potential
  • if threshold is reached, actional potential is generated
178
Q

generator potential

A
  • occur in specialized nerve endings
  • stimulus opens ions channels causing local current flow
  • local current flow opens ion channels in afferent neuron action potential
  • if threshold reached, action potential is generated
179
Q

receptive field

A

a region of space in which the presence of a stimulus alters the firing of that neuron

180
Q

receptive field example

A
  • hair in the cochlea
  • skin
  • retina
181
Q

size and shape of receptive fields may change due to …

A
  • connectivity (convergence, divergence, inhibition)
  • synaptic properties
182
Q

receptor transduction necessary components

A
  • receptor must have specificity for the stimulus energy
  • receptive field stimulation
  • stimulus energy converted into a graded potential
  • generator potential in the associated sensory neuron must reach threshold
183
Q

adaptation

A

a change in sensitivity in the receptor cell to a long-lasting stimulus

184
Q

types of adaptation

A
  • PHASIC
  • TONIC
185
Q

PHASIC

A
  • primarily by rapidly-adapting receptors
  • pressure, touch, hearing, smell
  • adapt quickly, respond less if stimuli remains constant
  • allows us to shut out background noise
186
Q

TONIC

A
  • little adaptation by slowly adapating receptors
  • pain, proprioception, chemicals in the blood or CSF
  • adapt slowly, continue to respond even when stimulus remains constant
187
Q

why is continuous input in TONIC useful

A

body needs to make sontinuous response to the information or the stimulus needs to be constantly evaluated

188
Q

types of adaptational receptors

A
  • proprortional receptors
  • differential receptors
189
Q

proportional receptors

A

provide continuous information about stimulus

190
Q

differential receptors

A

signals changes in stimulus intensity

191
Q

adaptation mechanisms types

A
  • mechanical
  • chemical
192
Q

mechanical adaptation mechanisms

A

physical mechanical mechanism induces a receptor neuron response decrease

193
Q

where are specialized receptor endings for mechanial adaptation mechanisms

A

in Pacinian skin cells

194
Q

chemical adaptational

A

membrane enzymes or intracellular signalling mechanisms induce response termination

195
Q

where is chemical adaptation mechanism common

A

olfactory response

196
Q

phasic receptors of mechanical adaptation

A
  • specialized receptor ending of concentric connective tissue layers
  • sustained pressure causes layers to slip which dissipates stimulus intensity
197
Q

phasic receptors of chemical adaptation

A

adaptation mediated by Ca2+:
- Ca2+ binding calmodulin decreases CNGC activity
- Ca2+ regulates AC III activity decreases cAMP

198
Q

somatosensory system

A

neural sense concerned with body sensations

199
Q

soma

A

greek word for body

200
Q

somatosensory system divisions

A
  • cutaneous (skin)
  • visceral (internal organs and deep tissue)
  • proprioception (body and limb awareness)
201
Q

are somatosensory receptors distributed or concentrated

A

distributed

202
Q

different somatosensory receptors respond to …

A

different stimuli modalities

203
Q

touch begins at ….

A

the skin

204
Q

layers of the skin

A
  • epidermis (outer)
  • dermis (inner)
205
Q

glabrous definition

A

skin free from hair (palm of hands, soles of feet, face, and ears)

206
Q

which receptor is most common in relation to touch

A

mechanoreceptors

207
Q

somatosensory receptors

A
  • meissner’s corpuscle
  • merkel disc receptors
  • ruffini ending
  • pacinian corpuscle
  • bare nerve endings
208
Q

somatosensory receptors - meissner’s corpuscle

A
  • respond to touch
  • fine and discriminative touch in glabrous skin
209
Q

somatosensory receptors - merkel disc receptors

A

fiber connected to an epithelial cell

210
Q

somatosensory receptors - ruffini ending

A

slowly adapting touch receptor

211
Q

somatosensory receptors = pacinian corpuscle

A
  • rapidly adapting
  • vibration sensor
212
Q

somatosensory receptors - bare nerve endings

A

pain and hear stimulation

213
Q

if a sensory neuron supplies a large area then …

A

touch discrimination will not be as fine

214
Q

where are receptive fields identified

A

neurons of the autitory, somatosensory, and visual systems

215
Q

more ? is dedicated to integrate information coming from the fingertips

A

brain tissue

216
Q

somatosensory ascendant pathways

A
  • 3rd order afferent
  • 2nd order afferent
  • 1st order afferent (primary sensory neuron)
217
Q

3rd order afferent

A
  • in thalamus
  • project to primary somatosensory cortex
218
Q

2nd order afferent

A
  • in spinal cord
  • synpase with 3rd order in thalamus
219
Q

1st order afferent (primary sensory neuron)

A
  • soma in peripheral sensory ganglion
  • peripheral axon branch innervates receptors
  • central axon synapses with 2nd order afferent neuron
220
Q

dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway carries information about …

A
  • fine touch
  • vibration (ex: hand moving over surface)
  • stimuli moving on skin
221
Q

dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway

A
222
Q

where does information from the dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway decussate

A

the medulla

223
Q

is the dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway ipsilateral or contralateral

A

contralateral (left side of body to right cortex, and vice versa)

224
Q

lateral inhibition function

A

highlight edges of stimulus (contrast enhancement)

225
Q

lateral inhibition

A

a neuron’s response to a stimulus is inhibited by the excitation of a neighboring neuron

226
Q

between two neurons which response will be inhibited

A

the weaker one

227
Q

where is lateral inhibition common

A

vision and hearing

228
Q

why is lateral inhibition good

A

enhances perception

229
Q

in lateral inhibition, primary neuron response is _________________ to the stimulus strength

A

proportional

230
Q

where does most somatosensory information get processed

A

primary somatosensory cortex

231
Q

where is the primary somatosensory cortex located

A

parietal lobe

232
Q

primary somatosensory cortex recieves inputs from….

A

ventral pallidum thalamic area

233
Q

how responsive are neurons in primary somatosensory cortex to somatosensory stimuli

A

very

234
Q

lesions in primary somatosensory cortex …

A

impair somatic sensation

235
Q

what happens when primary somatosensory cortex is electrically stimulated

A

evokes somatosensory experiences

236
Q

somatotopic representation

A

representation of body mapped on the cortical surface

237
Q

homunculus

A
  • distorted map
  • hands, fingers, and face receive greatest representation
238
Q

phantom limb syndrome

A

ascending pathways stimulate primary somatosensory cortex from adjacent representation but descendent pathways interpret incorrectly

239
Q

why do somatosensory cortexes reorganize

A
  • basis of experience
  • somatosensory input
240
Q

posterior parietal cortex function

A

different sensory modality traits converge for proper sensory representation

241
Q

agnosia

A

inability to recognize an object even though simple sensory skills are normal

242
Q

consequence of posterior parietal lesions

A

spatial neglect

243
Q

spatial neglect

A
  • ignore contralateral extrapersonal space
  • deny body parts (incomplete dressing)
  • incomplete copyings of drawing
  • body centered (memory recall depends on view point)
244
Q

is spatial neglect a simple sensory loss? explain

A

no, concerned with representing visual and somatosensory space and actions within it

245
Q

pain

A

an unpleasant sensory or emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage

246
Q

nociception

A

processing information about damaging stimuli by the nervous system where perception occurs

247
Q

nociceptors

A

free nerve endings found in every tissue in the body except the brain

248
Q

when are nociceptors activated

A
  • in the presence of intense thermal, mechanical, or chemical stimuli
  • tissue irritation or injury (releases chemicals that stimulate nociceptors)
249
Q

which fibers are connected to nociceptors

A

c fibers

250
Q

spinothalamic pathway

A
251
Q

steps of vision

A
  • transmission and refraction of light by optics of the eye
  • transduction of light energy into electrical signals by photoreceptors
  • signal refinement by synaptic interactions within retinal neural connections
252
Q

visual processing path

A
253
Q

wavelength

A

the distance between two peaks of the electromagnetics wave

254
Q

rainbow effect

A

when white light diffracts through a prism it splits into a rainbow

255
Q

what does a mix of visual light wavelengths usually appear as

A

white light

256
Q

properties of visual light

A
  • reflection
  • refraction
  • absorption
257
Q

visual light property - reflection

A

light bouncing off of a surface

258
Q

visual light property - refraction

A
  • light rays bending when traveling
  • the eye acts as a camera bending the light to focus it in the retina
259
Q

visual light property - absorption

A
  • transfer of light energy to a particle
  • photoreceptors in the retina contain pigments that absorb light reflected by objects
  • black objects absorb all the visual light wavelengths, green absorb all except green, etc.
260
Q

frontal eye anatomy - macula

A
261
Q

frontal eye anatomy - fovea

A
262
Q

frontal eye anatomy - temporal retina (lateral)

A
263
Q

frontal eye anatomy - nasal retina (medial)

A
264
Q

frontal eye anatomy - optic disk

A
265
Q

frontal eye anatomy - blood vessels

A
266
Q

lateral eye anatomy - suspensory ligament

A
267
Q

lateral eye anatomy - ciliary body

A
268
Q

lateral eye anatomy - conjunctiva

A
269
Q

lateral eye anatomy - lens

A
270
Q

lateral eye anatomy - pupil

A
271
Q

lateral eye anatomy - aqueous humour

A
272
Q

lateral eye anatomy - cornea

A
273
Q

lateral eye anatomy - iris

A
274
Q

lateral eye anatomy - vitreous humor

A
275
Q

lateral eye anatomy - blood vessels

A
276
Q

lateral eye anatomy - optic disc

A
277
Q

lateral eye anatomy - optic nerve

A
278
Q

lateral eye anatomy - fovea

A
279
Q

lateral eye anatomy - sclera

A
280
Q

lateral eye anatomy - retina

A
281
Q

lateral eye anatomy - choroid

A
282
Q

lateral eye anatomy - extrinsic eye muscle

A
283
Q

cornea and lens optic function

A

diffract light (refraction) to focus it in the retina

284
Q

the lens will accommodate to different ____________

A

distances

285
Q

retina

A

a layer of photoreceptors cells and glial cells that captures incoming photons and transmits them along neuronal pathways as both electrical and chemical signals for the brain to perceive a visual picture

286
Q

which nervous system is the retina a part of

A

CNS

287
Q

most direct pathway from the retina to the brain

A

photoreceptors -> bipolar cells -> ganglion cells

288
Q

which cells are the only ones that generate action potentials

A

ganglion cells

289
Q

the only light-sensitive cells

A

photoreceptors

290
Q

retina output

A

ganglion cell axons in the optic nerve that lead to higher CNS centers

291
Q

laminar organization definition

A

the way certain tissues are arranged in layers

292
Q

retina laminar organization

A
293
Q

retina interneurons

A

horizontal and amacrine cells

294
Q

horizontal cell function

A

modulate transmission from photoreceptors to bipolar cells

295
Q

amacrine cell function

A

modulate transmission from bipolar cells to ganglion cells

296
Q

photoreceptors

A

transform electromagnetic radiation into electrical signals

297
Q

photoreceptor types

A
  • rods
  • cones
298
Q

rods

A
  • night vision
  • one photopigment
  • black/white vision
  • many membrane disks
  • low spatial resolution but very sensitive to light
299
Q

cones

A
  • daylight vision
  • 3 photopigments
  • color vision
  • high spatial resolution but insensitive to light
  • does not operate in dim light
300
Q

fovea has ____ cones than rods

A

more

301
Q

periphery has ____ cones than rods

A

less

302
Q

central retina cell composition

A

individual photoreceptors feeding into individual ganglion cells

303
Q

periphery cell composition

A

many photoreceptors converge into individual ganglion cells

304
Q

periphery

A
  • more rods and greater input
  • higher sensitivity
  • larger receptor fields
  • lower resolution
305
Q

why is there lower sensitivity in the fovea

A
  • more cones and no convergence of input
  • one photoreceptor into one ganglion cell
306
Q

why is there higher resolution in the fovea

A
  • no convergence of input
  • one photoreceptor into one ganglion cell
  • direct light input
307
Q

which photopigment is in rods

A

rhodopsin

308
Q

what do cone photopigments require to be activated

A

more energy

309
Q

3 cone types

A
  • red
  • blue
  • green
310
Q

how many types of light is each cone sensitive to

A

one

311
Q

result of all cones being equally active

A

white light

312
Q

which photopigment is in cones

A

opsins

313
Q

total number of cones in the eyes

A

6 million

314
Q

total number of rods in the eyes

A

100 million

315
Q

phototransduction

A

conversion of light energy into membrane potential changes

316
Q

result of graded changes in membrane potentials

A

change in transmitter release rate

317
Q

phototransduction in the dark

A
  • membrane depolarization
  • Ca2+ channels open
  • high transmitter release rate
318
Q

phototransduction in the light

A
  • membrane hyperpolarization
  • Ca2+ channels close
  • decreased transmitter release rate
319
Q

photoreceptor depolarization cause

A

dark (“current of Na+”)

320
Q

photoreceptor depolarization process

A
  • guanylyl cyclase produces cGMP in the dark
  • cGMP binds and activates Na+ channels
  • Na+ influx depolarizes the membrane
  • membrane depolarization induces Glutamate liberation
321
Q

photoreceptors hyperpolarization cause

A

light

322
Q

photoreceptors hyperpolarization process

A
  • absorption of light induces retinal cis isomer to become a trans isomer
  • conformational change and transduction
  • light activates rhodopsin and transducin
  • transducin binding GTP activates PDE
  • active PDE breaks down cGMP
  • low levels of cGMP promote channel closing
  • Na+ influx decreases, membrane hyperpolarizes
  • hyperpolarization reduces glutamate release
323
Q

what provides the isomers in photoreceptor polarization with conformational changes (trans to cis or cis to trans)

A

pigmented epithelium

324
Q

rhodopsin components

A

opsin + retinal

325
Q

transducin

A

a G protein

326
Q

what polarizes bipolar cells

A

glutamate

327
Q

bipolar cell types

A
  • on center
  • off center
328
Q

on center bipolar cells are ________________________ by glutamate

A

hyperpolarized

329
Q

off center bipolar cells are ________________________ by glutamate

A

depolarized

330
Q

on center bipolar cells are ________________________ by light

A

depolarized

331
Q

off center bipolar cells are ________________________ by light

A

hyperpolarized

332
Q

on center bipolar cells

A

0 bound to glutamate during dark
- mGluR6 closes Na+ channels
- hyperpolarization reduces glutamate release, reduces mGluR6 binding, and allows Na+ channels to open

333
Q

off center bipolar cells

A

AMPA/Kainate R expression

334
Q

bipolar cell receptive field

A

area of retina where a stimulus will evoke a response

335
Q

bipolar cell receptive field center

A

direct connect from photoreceptors

336
Q

bipolar cell receptive field surround

A

connection from photoreceptors through horizontal cells

337
Q

bipolar cell receptive field rule

A

whatever response is triggered in the center, the opposite will be triggered by the surround

338
Q

ganglion cell receptive field

A

the area of a retina where a stimulus will evoke a response in that ganglion cell

339
Q

ganglion cell receptive field rule

A

light in the center will have the opposite effect than light in the surround

340
Q

ganglion cell types

A
  • on center
  • off center
341
Q

on center ganglion cells

A

produce action potentials when light is shone on the receptive field center

342
Q

off center ganglion cells

A

decrease action potentials when light is shone on the receptive field center

343
Q

photoreceptors are always hyperpolarized by _______ but …. ?

A
  • light
  • action potential firing in the ganglion cell may increase or decrease
344
Q

is the change in firing rate extremely high or low if receptive field center and surround are in the same illumination

A

there is no change (A,C, and E)

345
Q

is the change in firing rate extremely high or low if receptive field center and surround are in the contrast

A

greatest difference (B and E)

346
Q

antagonistic center/surround effect mediated by horizontal cells

A
  • reduced hyperpolarization of center cone
  • increased release of glutamate from center cone
  • hyperpolarization of bipolar cell
  • hyperpolarization and reduced firing of ganglion cell
347
Q

what do horizontal cells regulate

A

the amount of transmitter released by photoreceptor onto bipolar cell

348
Q

horizontal cell hyperpolarization

A

surround cone releases less glutamate onto horizontal cell

349
Q

ganglion cell response reflect …

A

differences in contrast

350
Q

vision neural level process

A
  • light energy converted to membrane potential changes. in photoreceptor cells through opsin -> transducin -> PDE -> CNG Channel -> Glutamate
  • glutamate information converted into membrane potential changes in bipolar (center on/off) and horizontal (surround on/off) cells
  • processed information converted into action potentials. in ganglion cells
  • transmitted to the brain via the optic nerve
351
Q

systems of the ear

A
  • auditory
  • vestibular
352
Q

vestibular system

A
  • balance
  • inform the brain of head and body position and how they are moving
353
Q

auditory system

A
  • hearing
  • detect sounds, localize, and identify sound nuances
354
Q

types of air that compose sound

A
  • compressed air
  • rarefied air
355
Q

frequency unit and equation

A

cycles/second (Hz)

356
Q

sound features

A
  • pitch
  • intensity
  • timbre
357
Q

pitch

A
  • tone
  • dependent on frequency
358
Q

intensity

A
  • loudness
  • depends on amplitude
359
Q

timbre

A
  • quality
  • depends on overtones
360
Q

sound amplitude

A

decibels (dB)

361
Q

auditory threshold

A

0 dB

362
Q

speech freqeuncies

A

500-4000 Hz

363
Q

auditory thershold varies with …

A

frequency

364
Q

what do low and high frequencies require to be audible

A

higher sound levels

365
Q

what sounds can humans not hear and give examples

A
  • infra sound (whales, muscles moving)
  • ultra sound (bats)
366
Q

auditory system process

A
367
Q

3 main parts of the ear

A
  • outer ear
  • middle ear
  • inner ear
368
Q

outer ear features

A
  • pinna (auricle)
  • auditory canal
369
Q

ear - pinna

A
370
Q

ear - auditory canal

A
371
Q

middle ear features

A
  • ossicles: malleus, incus, stapes
  • tympanic membrane
372
Q

ear - ossicles

A
373
Q

ear - tympanic membrane

A
374
Q

inner ear features

A
  • labyrinth/semicircular canals
  • oval window
  • round window
  • auditory-vestibular nerve
  • cochlea
375
Q

ear - labyrinth/semicircular canals

A
376
Q

ear - oval window

A
377
Q

ear - round window

A
378
Q

ear - auditory-vestibular nerve

A
379
Q

ear - cochlea

A
380
Q

auditory system pathway

A
  • cochlea
  • brainstem
  • thalamus
  • primary auditory cortex
381
Q

middle ear amplification features

A
  • malleus
  • incus
  • stapes
  • oval window
  • cochlea
  • eustachian tube
  • tympanic membrane
  • auditory canal
382
Q

oval window pressure </> tympanic membrane pressure

A

>

383
Q

pressure equation

A

force/surface

384
Q

middle ear - malleus

A
385
Q

middle ear - incus

A
386
Q

middle ear - stapes

A
387
Q

middle ear - eustachian tube

A
388
Q

what connects the malleus to the skull

A

tensor tympani muscle

389
Q

what connects the stapes to the skull

A

stapedius muscle

390
Q

attenuation reflex

A
  • after a loud sound, tensor tympani muscle and stapedius muscle tense, impairing amplification system
  • protective reflex
  • adaptation to loud sounds
  • not hearing our own speech
391
Q

ear - tensor tympani muscle

A
392
Q

ear - stapedius muscle

A
393
Q

cochlea features

A
  • bony cochlear wall
  • scala vestibuli
  • scala media
  • tectorial membrane
  • basilar membrane
  • scala tympani
  • spiral ganglion
  • vestibular membrane
  • organ of corti
  • cochlear branch of vestibulocochlear nerve
394
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - bony cochlear wall

A
395
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - scala vestibuli

A
396
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - scala media

A
397
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - tectorial membrane

A
398
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - basilar membrane

A
399
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - scala tympani

A
400
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - spiral ganglion

A
401
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - cochlear branch of vestibulocochlear nerve

A
402
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - organ of corti

A
403
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - vestibular membrane

A
404
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - oval window

A
405
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - round window

A
406
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - tectorial membrane

A
407
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - basilar membrane

A
408
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - organ of corti

A
409
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - cilia

A
410
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - auditory nerves

A
411
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - perilymph

A
412
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - endolymph

A
413
Q

where do the scala vestibuli and scala tympani communicate

A

the apex of the cocohlea

414
Q

where does the perilymph flow

A

from vestibuli to tympani when stapes taps the oval window

415
Q

where does the endolymph flow

A

inside the scala media

416
Q

where is the basilar membrane widest and most flexible

A

the apex

417
Q

are individual frequencies detected by the same parts of the cochlea

A

no

418
Q

where in the cochlea are high frequencies detected

A

near oval window (stiff)

419
Q

where in the cochlea are low frequencies detected

A

near apex wide (flexible)

420
Q

organ of corti parts

A
  • outer hair cell
  • stereocilia
  • tectorial membrane
  • reticular lamina
  • modiolus
  • spiral ganglion
  • auditory nerve
  • inner hair cell
  • rods of corti
  • basilar membrane
421
Q

organ of corti - outer hair cell

A
422
Q

organ of corti - stereocilia

A
423
Q

organ of corti - tectorial membrane

A
424
Q

organ of corti - reticular lamina

A
425
Q

organ of corti - modiolus

A
426
Q

organ of corti - spiral ganglion

A
427
Q

organ of corti - auditory nerve

A
428
Q

organ of corti - inner hair cell

A
429
Q

organ of corti - rods of corti

A
430
Q

organ of corti - basilar membrane

A
431
Q

inner ear transduction process

A
  • upward displacement of basilar membrane creates force that laterally
    displaces stereocilia
  • mechanical displacement of the stereocilia in a lateral direction cause hair cell depolarization
  • downward displacement of the basilar membrane creates force that results in
    lateral displacement of the stereocilia in the opposite direction (hyperpolarization of the
    hair cell)

physiology allied health (6 decks)

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