Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

physiology allied health > Unit 2: CNS Sensory > Flashcards

Unit 2: CNS Sensory Flashcards

1
Q

what does structure determine

A

function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what symmetry do humans have

A

bilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

organization of the nervous system

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

anterior or rostral

A

front part of a structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

posterior or caudal

A

back part of a structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

dorsal

A

pointing out of the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ventral

A

pointing towards the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

lateral

A

towards the side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

medial

A

towards the middle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ipsilateral

A

same side of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

contralateral

A

opposite side of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

horizontal

A

a slice parallel to the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

coronal (transverse)

A

a slice vertical from front to back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

sagittal

A
  • a slice perpendicular to the ground
  • parallel to the neuraxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

hindbrain parts

A
  • myelencephalon
  • metencephalon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

myelencephalon

A
  • contains medulla oblongata
  • contains nuclei that control vital functions (breathing and skeletal muscle tone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

metencephalon

A
  • the cerebellum: receives information from sensory systems, muscles, and vestibular system; produce smooth movement
  • pons: a large bulge on the brain stem involved in sleep and arousal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

mesencephalon

A
  • one of the 3 divisions of the brainstem
  • basic physiological function (breathing, swallowing, heart beat)
  • gates sensory and motor information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

red nucleus

A

coordinates sensorimotor information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

substantia nigra

A

cells make dopamine and project to basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

periaqueductal grey matter

A

involved in pain suppression due to high concentration of endorphins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

forebrain parts

A
  • diencephalon
  • telencephalon (cerebrum)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

diencephalon

A
  • thalamus: interconnected nuclei receive information from the sensory systems (except olfactory) and relay information to sensory processing area in the cortex; learning and memory; slow sleep waves generated
  • hypothalamus: 22 nuclei and pituitary gland, control the ANS and endocrine system; key aspects of behavior (feeding, sex, sleep, temp. regulation, emotional behavior)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

telencephalon

A
  • hemispheres separated by the longitudinal fissure
  • hemispheres connected by the corpus callosum
  • grey matter and white matter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how much of the cerebrum is hidden in the gyri and sulci

A

2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

spinal cord function

A
  • neuronal link between PNS and brain
  • spinal reflex integration center
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves are there

A

31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

dorsal root meaning

A

afferent sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

ventral root mening

A

efferent motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

phrenology definition

A
  • skull mimicks personality
  • larger brain area (ex. forehead) indicates a greater tendency toward the faculty of that area
  • not valid as a scientific theory
  • first time a specific function was associated with a specific brain region
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

electrical stimulation

A
  • Luigi Rolando (1809)
  • provided proof that the CNS was electrically excitable and that brain functions are anatomically localized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

case of Phineas Gage

A
  • spike went through his skull
  • profound personality changes after the accident
  • personality improvement in Chile (using social and complex cognitive-motor skills)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

case of Patient Tan

A
  • diagnosed with epilepsy early in childhood
  • admitted to hospital at 21, could only say “tan” twice in a row
  • broca coined this disorder aphasia
  • good comprehension
  • broca reported softening in what would become known as broca’s area in a brain examination postmortem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

who coined the term aphasia

A

paul broca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

aphasi

A

absence of overt speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

paul broca patients

A
  • patient tan
  • patient lelong
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

case of patient lelong

A
  • reduced productive speech at 84 after a stroke
  • could only say 5 words (oui, non, tois, toujours, and lelo)
  • lelong had a lesion in the same region as patient tan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

broca’s area

A

the frontal lobe of the dominant sphere (left for most of righthanded people and half of left handed people)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

who first described receptive aphasia

A

carl wernicke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

receptive aphasia

A
  • impaired comprehension of their own speech
  • don’t realize their errors
  • associated with stroke, trauma, tumor, infections, and degenerative brain disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

wernicke’s area

A

a region of superior temporal gyrus in the dominant cerebral hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

types of aphasia

A
  • broca’s aphasia
  • wernicke’s aphasia
  • conduction aphasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

broca’s aphasia

A

difficulty in production of language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

receptive aphasia

A

difficulty in comprehension of language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

conduction aphasia

A
  • due to damage of arcuate fasciculus
  • patients are aware of their mistakes and try to fix them
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

arcuate fasciculus

A

the bundle of axons that connect broca’s area to wernicke’s area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

case of patient h.m.

A
  • hit his head while biking
  • intractable epilepsy after the accident (blocking out often, convulsions, could no longer work)
  • dr. scoville removed two finger-shaped slivers of tissue from his brain (anterior 2/3 of hippocampi, parahippocampal cortices, entorhinal cortices, piriform cortices, and amygdala)
  • seizers stopped but developed severe anterograde amnesia (short term memory intact, no new long-term memories) and retrograde amnesia (could not remember events from 3-4 days before surgery and some events up to 11 years before)
  • ability to form long-term procedural memories was intact (could learn new motor skills but not remember learning them)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

unit of structure of the CNS

A

neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

neuron - cell membrane

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

neuron - dendrites

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

neuron - cell body (soma)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

neuron - axon

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

neuron - axon hillock

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

neuron - myelin sheath

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

neuron - node of ranvier

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

neuron - synaptic end bulbs

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

neuron - axon terminal

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

pre- and postsynaptic neurons - presynaptic neuron

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

pre- and postsynaptic neurons - neurotransmitters

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

pre- and postsynaptic neurons - receptors

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

pre- and postsynaptic neurons - postsynaptic neuron

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

pre- and postsynaptic neurons - synaptic cleft

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

pre- and postsynaptic neurons - synaptic vesicles

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

pre- and postsynaptic neurons - axon terminal

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

action potential

A

electrical signals sent over a long distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

a plasma membrane is a ________________ ______________ that is composed of:

A
  • phospholipid bilayer
  • phospholipids
  • glycolipids
  • cholesterol
  • membrane protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

plasma membrane - extracellular matrix fibers

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

plasma membrane - glycoproteins

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

plasma membrane - carbohydrates

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

plasma membrane - glycolipid

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

plasma membrane - cytoplasm

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

plasma membrane - proteins

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

plasma membrane - cholesterol

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

plasma membrane - phospholipid

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

plasma membrane - cytoskeleton microfilaments

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

plasma membrane - intercellular space

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

phospholipid - hydrophobic tail

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

phospholipid - hydrophilic head

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

is the plasma membrane highly permeable?

A

no, it is selectively permeable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what do plasma membranes allow directly through

A
  • gas (COs, O2, N2, etc.)
  • small uncharged polar molecules (ethanol, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what do plasma membranes sometimes allow directly through

A

water (only in specific conditions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what plasma membranes never allow directly through

A
  • ions (K+, Ca2+, etc.)
  • charged polar molecules (amino acids, ATP, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

how do ions and charged polar molecules go across a plasma membrane

A
  • simple diffusion
  • facilitated diffusion (protein-mediated)
  • active transport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

which channel/carrier proteins are passive and which require energy

A

passive:
- facilitated diffusion

energy:
- active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

passive transport

A

down concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

why does active transport require energy

A

it goes against the concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

electrochemical gradient

A

combination of concentration and charge differences across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

facilitated diffusion

A

passive, down gradient using a protein channel or carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

channel proteins

A

selective pore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

carrier proteins

A

bind solutes tightly, undergo conformational changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

which transport maintains chemical imbalance necessary for life

A

active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

charge (Q)

A

net imbalance in the number of positively and negatively charged particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

current (I)

A
  • flow of electrically charged particles
  • charged particles = ions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

voltage (V)

A
  • difference in charge between inside and outside of the cell
  • represents an electrical potential energy gradient down which particles want to move
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

electrical gradient

A
  • influenced by the overall electrical charge
  • positive ions would flow toward negative charge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

chemical gradient

A
  • influenced by the individual concentration of a particular ion
  • all ions move from high to low concentration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

the direction that an ion moves depends on:

A
  • overall net effect of electrical and chemical (electrochemical) gradients
  • membrane permeability to ions (no channels = no movement)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

how is the electrochemical gradient maintained

A

Na+-K+ pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Na+-K+ pump

A
  • maintains Na+ and K+ gradients across the plasma membrane
  • abundant
  • P-type transport ATPase
  • phosphorylation changes the conformation of the pump, exposing binding side on the extracellular membrane
  • ionic imbalance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

ionic imbalance importance

A
  • intracellular pH control
  • osmotic control
  • transport
  • excitability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

how much of a cell’s energy foes to powering the Na+-K+ pump

A

1/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Na+-K+ pump step 1

A

binding cytoplasmic Na+ stimulates ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Na+-K+ pump step 2

A

phosphorylation causes conformational change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Na+-K+ pump step 3

A

Na+ is liberated outside and K+ binding sites are exposed inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Na+-K+ pump step 4

A

binding K+ triggers the release of the phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Na+-K+ pump step 5

A

release of phosphate restores original conformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Na+-K+ pump step 6

A

K+ is released and Na+ binding sites are exposed in the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

equilibrium potential

A

the electrical potential difference that exactly counterbalances diffusion due to the concentration difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

nernst equation

A
  • electrical potential required to oppose the movement of an ion across a permeable membrane
  • provides a measure of the chemical driving potential established by the concentration gradient for ion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

gating definition

A

transition between conducting and non-conducting (open and closed) states of an ion channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

goldman equation

A
  • defines membrane potential
  • accounts for relative permeability of the ions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

which axon was used to determine resting membrane potentials

A

squid giant axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

absolute refractory period

A
  • a period of complete resistance to stimulation
  • Na+ channel inactivation means after an action potential there is a brief period when no other action potentials can be generated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

relative refractory period

A
  • a period of partial resistance to stimulation
  • lasts as long as K channels are open
  • strong stimulus can trigger a new action potential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

contiguous conduction

A

conduction of action potentials in unmyelinated axons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

conduction speed definition

A

nerve impulse speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

conduction speed number

A

nerve impulse travels 1 meter in 0.1 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

c fibers job

A

carry sensory information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

are c fibers myelinated

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

c fiber damage causes what

A

neuropathic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

axon potential propagation speed depends on ….

A

how local currents spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

how local currents spread in axon potential propagation speed depends on

A
  • internal resistance of the axon
  • resistance of the axonal membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

do narrow axons have high or low internal resistance

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

to get a faster axon potential propagation speed the axon could be ….

A
  • wider
  • myelinated to increase membrane resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

myelin

A

a membrane component from glial cells that surrounds and insulates consecutive axon segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

saltatory conduction

A

the way an electrical impulse skips from node to node down the full length of an axon, speeding the arrival of the impulse at the nerve terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

myelinated fibers in the PNS

A

schwann cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

myelinated fibers in the CNS

A

oligodendrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

consequence of demyelination

A

multiple sclerosis (MS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

multiple sclerosis

A
  • autoimmune disease
  • myelin sheath degenerates and forms hardened scars
  • affected axons degenerate
  • slowing and block of AP conduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

multiple sclerosis risk factors

A
  • age (20-40 years old)
  • sex (women)
  • family history
  • certain infections (Epstein-Barr infection aka mono)
  • race (white)
  • temperate climate
  • vitamin d deficiency
  • other autoimmune diseases (thyroid disease, psoriasis, type 1 disease)
  • smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

peripheral nervous system function

A
  • sensory systems: detect external and internal stimuli
  • higher brain regions: process and integrate different information and make decisions
  • motor systems: execute decisions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

pns

A

fibers (other than brain and spinal cord) that carry information between CNS and other body parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

PNS divisions

A
  • afferent division
  • efferent division
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

PNS types of afferent divisions

A
  • visceral afferent
  • sensory afferent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

PNS afferent division

A

send information from internal and external environment to CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

PNS visceral afferent

A

incoming information from internal viscera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

PNS sensory afferent

A
  • somatic: sensation from body surface and proprioception
  • special senses: vision, hearing, smell, taste
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

PNS efferent division

A

send information from the CNS to muscles and glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

perception

A

conscious interpretation of external world derived from sensory input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

does pure sensory input give true reality perception

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

why does pure sensory input not give true reality perception

A
  • human receptors only detect a limited number of stimuli
  • limited resolution (information channels are not high-fidelity records)
  • information can be enhanced/suppressed when it reaches our brain
  • brain interprets and distors information to extract conclusions
  • interpretation affected by cultural, social, and personal experiences
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

stimulus

A

a change detectable by the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

different modalities of stimuli

A

heat, light, sound, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

stimulus receptors

A

structures at peripheral endings of afferent neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

receptors function

A

convert stimuli into electrical signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

stimulus sequence

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

sensory system parts

A

sensory receptors, their axonal pathways, and perception target areas in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

modalities

A

different classes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

specialized sensory receptors detect ….

A

different stimuli classes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

exteroceptors

A

specialized neurons on the outside of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

interoceptors

A

specialized neurons on the inside of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

exteroceptors/interoceptors function

A

transduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

transduction

A

the process of converting energy from a stimulus into electrical signals via receptor/generator potential which triggers an action potential if thresholds are reached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

photoreceptors sense and stimulus

A
  • vision
  • light
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

mechanoreceptors sense and stimulus

A
  • touch, balance, proprioception, hearing
  • mechanical energy (stretching muscle, hair cell movement)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

thermoreceptors sense and stimulus

A
  • temperature
  • heat and cold
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

chemoreceptors sense and stimulus

A
  • smell, taste
  • specific chemicals (O2, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

nociceptors sense and stimulus

A
  • pain
  • excessive pressure, temperature, specific chemicals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

where do primary afferent axons enter

A

the spinal cord through the dorsal roots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

where do primary afferent axon somas remain

A

spinal cord dorsal root ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

nerve fiber types

A
  • Aα
  • Aβ
  • Aδ
  • C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

efferent motor nerve fibers

A
  • Aγ
  • B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

which nerve fiber do skin receptors lack

A

Aα

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

are C fibers myelinated or unmyelinated

A

unmyelinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

nerve fiber axon diameter

A

bigger diameter = lower resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

unmyelinated voltage regulated channels function

A
  • account for ion leakage across the membrane
  • conduct impulses slowly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

where is there ion leakage in myelinated axons

A

Nodes of Ranvier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

where is graded potential generated

A

in a receptor cell or free nerve ending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

graded potential is proportional to …

A

stimulus strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

action potential is ….

A

all or nothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

receptor cell

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

free nerve ending

174
Q

stimulus intensity is encoded in …

A
  • actional potential frequency
  • the number of activated receptors
175
Q

single sensory unit stimulation weak versus strong simulus

176
Q

multiple sensory unit stimulation weak versus strong stimulus

177
Q

receptor potential

A
  • occur in seperate receptor cells
  • stimulus opens ion channels causing graded membrane potential
  • receptor cell releases chemical messenger
  • chemical messenger opens ion channels in afferent neuron action potential
  • if threshold is reached, actional potential is generated
178
Q

generator potential

A
  • occur in specialized nerve endings
  • stimulus opens ions channels causing local current flow
  • local current flow opens ion channels in afferent neuron action potential
  • if threshold reached, action potential is generated
179
Q

receptive field

A

a region of space in which the presence of a stimulus alters the firing of that neuron

180
Q

receptive field example

A
  • hair in the cochlea
  • skin
  • retina
181
Q

size and shape of receptive fields may change due to …

A
  • connectivity (convergence, divergence, inhibition)
  • synaptic properties
182
Q

receptor transduction necessary components

A
  • receptor must have specificity for the stimulus energy
  • receptive field stimulation
  • stimulus energy converted into a graded potential
  • generator potential in the associated sensory neuron must reach threshold
183
Q

adaptation

A

a change in sensitivity in the receptor cell to a long-lasting stimulus

184
Q

types of adaptation

A
  • PHASIC
  • TONIC
185
Q

PHASIC

A
  • primarily by rapidly-adapting receptors
  • pressure, touch, hearing, smell
  • adapt quickly, respond less if stimuli remains constant
  • allows us to shut out background noise
186
Q

TONIC

A
  • little adaptation by slowly adapating receptors
  • pain, proprioception, chemicals in the blood or CSF
  • adapt slowly, continue to respond even when stimulus remains constant
187
Q

why is continuous input in TONIC useful

A

body needs to make sontinuous response to the information or the stimulus needs to be constantly evaluated

188
Q

types of adaptational receptors

A
  • proprortional receptors
  • differential receptors
189
Q

proportional receptors

A

provide continuous information about stimulus

190
Q

differential receptors

A

signals changes in stimulus intensity

191
Q

adaptation mechanisms types

A
  • mechanical
  • chemical
192
Q

mechanical adaptation mechanisms

A

physical mechanical mechanism induces a receptor neuron response decrease

193
Q

where are specialized receptor endings for mechanial adaptation mechanisms

A

in Pacinian skin cells

194
Q

chemical adaptational

A

membrane enzymes or intracellular signalling mechanisms induce response termination

195
Q

where is chemical adaptation mechanism common

A

olfactory response

196
Q

phasic receptors of mechanical adaptation

A
  • specialized receptor ending of concentric connective tissue layers
  • sustained pressure causes layers to slip which dissipates stimulus intensity
197
Q

phasic receptors of chemical adaptation

A

adaptation mediated by Ca2+:
- Ca2+ binding calmodulin decreases CNGC activity
- Ca2+ regulates AC III activity decreases cAMP

198
Q

somatosensory system

A

neural sense concerned with body sensations

199
Q

soma

A

greek word for body

200
Q

somatosensory system divisions

A
  • cutaneous (skin)
  • visceral (internal organs and deep tissue)
  • proprioception (body and limb awareness)
201
Q

are somatosensory receptors distributed or concentrated

A

distributed

202
Q

different somatosensory receptors respond to …

A

different stimuli modalities

203
Q

touch begins at ….

204
Q

layers of the skin

A
  • epidermis (outer)
  • dermis (inner)
205
Q

glabrous definition

A

skin free from hair (palm of hands, soles of feet, face, and ears)

206
Q

which receptor is most common in relation to touch

A

mechanoreceptors

207
Q

somatosensory receptors

A
  • meissner’s corpuscle
  • merkel disc receptors
  • ruffini ending
  • pacinian corpuscle
  • bare nerve endings
208
Q

somatosensory receptors - meissner’s corpuscle

A
  • respond to touch
  • fine and discriminative touch in glabrous skin
209
Q

somatosensory receptors - merkel disc receptors

A

fiber connected to an epithelial cell

210
Q

somatosensory receptors - ruffini ending

A

slowly adapting touch receptor

211
Q

somatosensory receptors = pacinian corpuscle

A
  • rapidly adapting
  • vibration sensor
212
Q

somatosensory receptors - bare nerve endings

A

pain and hear stimulation

213
Q

if a sensory neuron supplies a large area then …

A

touch discrimination will not be as fine

214
Q

where are receptive fields identified

A

neurons of the autitory, somatosensory, and visual systems

215
Q

more ? is dedicated to integrate information coming from the fingertips

A

brain tissue

216
Q

somatosensory ascendant pathways

A
  • 3rd order afferent
  • 2nd order afferent
  • 1st order afferent (primary sensory neuron)
217
Q

3rd order afferent

A
  • in thalamus
  • project to primary somatosensory cortex
218
Q

2nd order afferent

A
  • in spinal cord
  • synpase with 3rd order in thalamus
219
Q

1st order afferent (primary sensory neuron)

A
  • soma in peripheral sensory ganglion
  • peripheral axon branch innervates receptors
  • central axon synapses with 2nd order afferent neuron
220
Q

dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway carries information about …

A
  • fine touch
  • vibration (ex: hand moving over surface)
  • stimuli moving on skin
221
Q

dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway

222
Q

where does information from the dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway decussate

A

the medulla

223
Q

is the dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway ipsilateral or contralateral

A

contralateral (left side of body to right cortex, and vice versa)

224
Q

lateral inhibition function

A

highlight edges of stimulus (contrast enhancement)

225
Q

lateral inhibition

A

a neuron’s response to a stimulus is inhibited by the excitation of a neighboring neuron

226
Q

between two neurons which response will be inhibited

A

the weaker one

227
Q

where is lateral inhibition common

A

vision and hearing

228
Q

why is lateral inhibition good

A

enhances perception

229
Q

in lateral inhibition, primary neuron response is _________________ to the stimulus strength

A

proportional

230
Q

where does most somatosensory information get processed

A

primary somatosensory cortex

231
Q

where is the primary somatosensory cortex located

A

parietal lobe

232
Q

primary somatosensory cortex recieves inputs from….

A

ventral pallidum thalamic area

233
Q

how responsive are neurons in primary somatosensory cortex to somatosensory stimuli

234
Q

lesions in primary somatosensory cortex …

A

impair somatic sensation

235
Q

what happens when primary somatosensory cortex is electrically stimulated

A

evokes somatosensory experiences

236
Q

somatotopic representation

A

representation of body mapped on the cortical surface

237
Q

homunculus

A
  • distorted map
  • hands, fingers, and face receive greatest representation
238
Q

phantom limb syndrome

A

ascending pathways stimulate primary somatosensory cortex from adjacent representation but descendent pathways interpret incorrectly

239
Q

why do somatosensory cortexes reorganize

A
  • basis of experience
  • somatosensory input
240
Q

posterior parietal cortex function

A

different sensory modality traits converge for proper sensory representation

241
Q

agnosia

A

inability to recognize an object even though simple sensory skills are normal

242
Q

consequence of posterior parietal lesions

A

spatial neglect

243
Q

spatial neglect

A
  • ignore contralateral extrapersonal space
  • deny body parts (incomplete dressing)
  • incomplete copyings of drawing
  • body centered (memory recall depends on view point)
244
Q

is spatial neglect a simple sensory loss? explain

A

no, concerned with representing visual and somatosensory space and actions within it

245
Q

pain

A

an unpleasant sensory or emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage

246
Q

nociception

A

processing information about damaging stimuli by the nervous system where perception occurs

247
Q

nociceptors

A

free nerve endings found in every tissue in the body except the brain

248
Q

when are nociceptors activated

A
  • in the presence of intense thermal, mechanical, or chemical stimuli
  • tissue irritation or injury (releases chemicals that stimulate nociceptors)
249
Q

which fibers are connected to nociceptors

250
Q

spinothalamic pathway

251
Q

steps of vision

A
  • transmission and refraction of light by optics of the eye
  • transduction of light energy into electrical signals by photoreceptors
  • signal refinement by synaptic interactions within retinal neural connections
252
Q

visual processing path

253
Q

wavelength

A

the distance between two peaks of the electromagnetics wave

254
Q

rainbow effect

A

when white light diffracts through a prism it splits into a rainbow

255
Q

what does a mix of visual light wavelengths usually appear as

A

white light

256
Q

properties of visual light

A
  • reflection
  • refraction
  • absorption
257
Q

visual light property - reflection

A

light bouncing off of a surface

258
Q

visual light property - refraction

A
  • light rays bending when traveling
  • the eye acts as a camera bending the light to focus it in the retina
259
Q

visual light property - absorption

A
  • transfer of light energy to a particle
  • photoreceptors in the retina contain pigments that absorb light reflected by objects
  • black objects absorb all the visual light wavelengths, green absorb all except green, etc.
260
Q

frontal eye anatomy - macula

261
Q

frontal eye anatomy - fovea

262
Q

frontal eye anatomy - temporal retina (lateral)

263
Q

frontal eye anatomy - nasal retina (medial)

264
Q

frontal eye anatomy - optic disk

265
Q

frontal eye anatomy - blood vessels

266
Q

lateral eye anatomy - suspensory ligament

267
Q

lateral eye anatomy - ciliary body

268
Q

lateral eye anatomy - conjunctiva

269
Q

lateral eye anatomy - lens

270
Q

lateral eye anatomy - pupil

271
Q

lateral eye anatomy - aqueous humour

272
Q

lateral eye anatomy - cornea

273
Q

lateral eye anatomy - iris

274
Q

lateral eye anatomy - vitreous humor

275
Q

lateral eye anatomy - blood vessels

276
Q

lateral eye anatomy - optic disc

277
Q

lateral eye anatomy - optic nerve

278
Q

lateral eye anatomy - fovea

279
Q

lateral eye anatomy - sclera

280
Q

lateral eye anatomy - retina

281
Q

lateral eye anatomy - choroid

282
Q

lateral eye anatomy - extrinsic eye muscle

283
Q

cornea and lens optic function

A

diffract light (refraction) to focus it in the retina

284
Q

the lens will accommodate to different ____________

285
Q

retina

A

a layer of photoreceptors cells and glial cells that captures incoming photons and transmits them along neuronal pathways as both electrical and chemical signals for the brain to perceive a visual picture

286
Q

which nervous system is the retina a part of

287
Q

most direct pathway from the retina to the brain

A

photoreceptors -> bipolar cells -> ganglion cells

288
Q

which cells are the only ones that generate action potentials

A

ganglion cells

289
Q

the only light-sensitive cells

A

photoreceptors

290
Q

retina output

A

ganglion cell axons in the optic nerve that lead to higher CNS centers

291
Q

laminar organization definition

A

the way certain tissues are arranged in layers

292
Q

retina laminar organization

293
Q

retina interneurons

A

horizontal and amacrine cells

294
Q

horizontal cell function

A

modulate transmission from photoreceptors to bipolar cells

295
Q

amacrine cell function

A

modulate transmission from bipolar cells to ganglion cells

296
Q

photoreceptors

A

transform electromagnetic radiation into electrical signals

297
Q

photoreceptor types

A
  • rods
  • cones
298
Q

rods

A
  • night vision
  • one photopigment
  • black/white vision
  • many membrane disks
  • low spatial resolution but very sensitive to light
299
Q

cones

A
  • daylight vision
  • 3 photopigments
  • color vision
  • high spatial resolution but insensitive to light
  • does not operate in dim light
300
Q

fovea has ____ cones than rods

301
Q

periphery has ____ cones than rods

302
Q

central retina cell composition

A

individual photoreceptors feeding into individual ganglion cells

303
Q

periphery cell composition

A

many photoreceptors converge into individual ganglion cells

304
Q

periphery

A
  • more rods and greater input
  • higher sensitivity
  • larger receptor fields
  • lower resolution
305
Q

why is there lower sensitivity in the fovea

A
  • more cones and no convergence of input
  • one photoreceptor into one ganglion cell
306
Q

why is there higher resolution in the fovea

A
  • no convergence of input
  • one photoreceptor into one ganglion cell
  • direct light input
307
Q

which photopigment is in rods

308
Q

what do cone photopigments require to be activated

A

more energy

309
Q

3 cone types

A
  • red
  • blue
  • green
310
Q

how many types of light is each cone sensitive to

311
Q

result of all cones being equally active

A

white light

312
Q

which photopigment is in cones

313
Q

total number of cones in the eyes

314
Q

total number of rods in the eyes

A

100 million

315
Q

phototransduction

A

conversion of light energy into membrane potential changes

316
Q

result of graded changes in membrane potentials

A

change in transmitter release rate

317
Q

phototransduction in the dark

A
  • membrane depolarization
  • Ca2+ channels open
  • high transmitter release rate
318
Q

phototransduction in the light

A
  • membrane hyperpolarization
  • Ca2+ channels close
  • decreased transmitter release rate
319
Q

photoreceptor depolarization cause

A

dark (“current of Na+”)

320
Q

photoreceptor depolarization process

A
  • guanylyl cyclase produces cGMP in the dark
  • cGMP binds and activates Na+ channels
  • Na+ influx depolarizes the membrane
  • membrane depolarization induces Glutamate liberation
321
Q

photoreceptors hyperpolarization cause

322
Q

photoreceptors hyperpolarization process

A
  • absorption of light induces retinal cis isomer to become a trans isomer
  • conformational change and transduction
  • light activates rhodopsin and transducin
  • transducin binding GTP activates PDE
  • active PDE breaks down cGMP
  • low levels of cGMP promote channel closing
  • Na+ influx decreases, membrane hyperpolarizes
  • hyperpolarization reduces glutamate release
323
Q

what provides the isomers in photoreceptor polarization with conformational changes (trans to cis or cis to trans)

A

pigmented epithelium

324
Q

rhodopsin components

A

opsin + retinal

325
Q

transducin

A

a G protein

326
Q

what polarizes bipolar cells

327
Q

bipolar cell types

A
  • on center
  • off center
328
Q

on center bipolar cells are ________________________ by glutamate

A

hyperpolarized

329
Q

off center bipolar cells are ________________________ by glutamate

A

depolarized

330
Q

on center bipolar cells are ________________________ by light

A

depolarized

331
Q

off center bipolar cells are ________________________ by light

A

hyperpolarized

332
Q

on center bipolar cells

A

0 bound to glutamate during dark
- mGluR6 closes Na+ channels
- hyperpolarization reduces glutamate release, reduces mGluR6 binding, and allows Na+ channels to open

333
Q

off center bipolar cells

A

AMPA/Kainate R expression

334
Q

bipolar cell receptive field

A

area of retina where a stimulus will evoke a response

335
Q

bipolar cell receptive field center

A

direct connect from photoreceptors

336
Q

bipolar cell receptive field surround

A

connection from photoreceptors through horizontal cells

337
Q

bipolar cell receptive field rule

A

whatever response is triggered in the center, the opposite will be triggered by the surround

338
Q

ganglion cell receptive field

A

the area of a retina where a stimulus will evoke a response in that ganglion cell

339
Q

ganglion cell receptive field rule

A

light in the center will have the opposite effect than light in the surround

340
Q

ganglion cell types

A
  • on center
  • off center
341
Q

on center ganglion cells

A

produce action potentials when light is shone on the receptive field center

342
Q

off center ganglion cells

A

decrease action potentials when light is shone on the receptive field center

343
Q

photoreceptors are always hyperpolarized by _______ but …. ?

A
  • light
  • action potential firing in the ganglion cell may increase or decrease
344
Q

is the change in firing rate extremely high or low if receptive field center and surround are in the same illumination

A

there is no change (A,C, and E)

345
Q

is the change in firing rate extremely high or low if receptive field center and surround are in the contrast

A

greatest difference (B and E)

346
Q

antagonistic center/surround effect mediated by horizontal cells

A
  • reduced hyperpolarization of center cone
  • increased release of glutamate from center cone
  • hyperpolarization of bipolar cell
  • hyperpolarization and reduced firing of ganglion cell
347
Q

what do horizontal cells regulate

A

the amount of transmitter released by photoreceptor onto bipolar cell

348
Q

horizontal cell hyperpolarization

A

surround cone releases less glutamate onto horizontal cell

349
Q

ganglion cell response reflect …

A

differences in contrast

350
Q

vision neural level process

A
  • light energy converted to membrane potential changes. in photoreceptor cells through opsin -> transducin -> PDE -> CNG Channel -> Glutamate
  • glutamate information converted into membrane potential changes in bipolar (center on/off) and horizontal (surround on/off) cells
  • processed information converted into action potentials. in ganglion cells
  • transmitted to the brain via the optic nerve
351
Q

systems of the ear

A
  • auditory
  • vestibular
352
Q

vestibular system

A
  • balance
  • inform the brain of head and body position and how they are moving
353
Q

auditory system

A
  • hearing
  • detect sounds, localize, and identify sound nuances
354
Q

types of air that compose sound

A
  • compressed air
  • rarefied air
355
Q

frequency unit and equation

A

cycles/second (Hz)

356
Q

sound features

A
  • pitch
  • intensity
  • timbre
357
Q

pitch

A
  • tone
  • dependent on frequency
358
Q

intensity

A
  • loudness
  • depends on amplitude
359
Q

timbre

A
  • quality
  • depends on overtones
360
Q

sound amplitude

A

decibels (dB)

361
Q

auditory threshold

362
Q

speech freqeuncies

A

500-4000 Hz

363
Q

auditory thershold varies with …

364
Q

what do low and high frequencies require to be audible

A

higher sound levels

365
Q

what sounds can humans not hear and give examples

A
  • infra sound (whales, muscles moving)
  • ultra sound (bats)
366
Q

auditory system process

367
Q

3 main parts of the ear

A
  • outer ear
  • middle ear
  • inner ear
368
Q

outer ear features

A
  • pinna (auricle)
  • auditory canal
369
Q

ear - pinna

370
Q

ear - auditory canal

371
Q

middle ear features

A
  • ossicles: malleus, incus, stapes
  • tympanic membrane
372
Q

ear - ossicles

373
Q

ear - tympanic membrane

374
Q

inner ear features

A
  • labyrinth/semicircular canals
  • oval window
  • round window
  • auditory-vestibular nerve
  • cochlea
375
Q

ear - labyrinth/semicircular canals

376
Q

ear - oval window

377
Q

ear - round window

378
Q

ear - auditory-vestibular nerve

379
Q

ear - cochlea

380
Q

auditory system pathway

A
  • cochlea
  • brainstem
  • thalamus
  • primary auditory cortex
381
Q

middle ear amplification features

A
  • malleus
  • incus
  • stapes
  • oval window
  • cochlea
  • eustachian tube
  • tympanic membrane
  • auditory canal
382
Q

oval window pressure </> tympanic membrane pressure

383
Q

pressure equation

A

force/surface

384
Q

middle ear - malleus

385
Q

middle ear - incus

386
Q

middle ear - stapes

387
Q

middle ear - eustachian tube

388
Q

what connects the malleus to the skull

A

tensor tympani muscle

389
Q

what connects the stapes to the skull

A

stapedius muscle

390
Q

attenuation reflex

A
  • after a loud sound, tensor tympani muscle and stapedius muscle tense, impairing amplification system
  • protective reflex
  • adaptation to loud sounds
  • not hearing our own speech
391
Q

ear - tensor tympani muscle

392
Q

ear - stapedius muscle

393
Q

cochlea features

A
  • bony cochlear wall
  • scala vestibuli
  • scala media
  • tectorial membrane
  • basilar membrane
  • scala tympani
  • spiral ganglion
  • vestibular membrane
  • organ of corti
  • cochlear branch of vestibulocochlear nerve
394
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - bony cochlear wall

395
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - scala vestibuli

396
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - scala media

397
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - tectorial membrane

398
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - basilar membrane

399
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - scala tympani

400
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - spiral ganglion

401
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - cochlear branch of vestibulocochlear nerve

402
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - organ of corti

403
Q

(transverse section) cochlea - vestibular membrane

404
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - oval window

405
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - round window

406
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - tectorial membrane

407
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - basilar membrane

408
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - organ of corti

409
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - cilia

410
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - auditory nerves

411
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - perilymph

412
Q

(coronal section) cochlea - endolymph

413
Q

where do the scala vestibuli and scala tympani communicate

A

the apex of the cocohlea

414
Q

where does the perilymph flow

A

from vestibuli to tympani when stapes taps the oval window

415
Q

where does the endolymph flow

A

inside the scala media

416
Q

where is the basilar membrane widest and most flexible

417
Q

are individual frequencies detected by the same parts of the cochlea

418
Q

where in the cochlea are high frequencies detected

A

near oval window (stiff)

419
Q

where in the cochlea are low frequencies detected

A

near apex wide (flexible)

420
Q

organ of corti parts

A
  • outer hair cell
  • stereocilia
  • tectorial membrane
  • reticular lamina
  • modiolus
  • spiral ganglion
  • auditory nerve
  • inner hair cell
  • rods of corti
  • basilar membrane
421
Q

organ of corti - outer hair cell

422
Q

organ of corti - stereocilia

423
Q

organ of corti - tectorial membrane

424
Q

organ of corti - reticular lamina

425
Q

organ of corti - modiolus

426
Q

organ of corti - spiral ganglion

427
Q

organ of corti - auditory nerve

428
Q

organ of corti - inner hair cell

429
Q

organ of corti - rods of corti

430
Q

organ of corti - basilar membrane

431
Q

inner ear transduction process

A
  • upward displacement of basilar membrane creates force that laterally
    displaces stereocilia
  • mechanical displacement of the stereocilia in a lateral direction cause hair cell depolarization
  • downward displacement of the basilar membrane creates force that results in
    lateral displacement of the stereocilia in the opposite direction (hyperpolarization of the
    hair cell)

physiology allied health (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions