Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CSD 3335 > Unit 2 (C2, P2, C3, & C9) Exam > Flashcards

Unit 2 (C2, P2, C3, & C9) Exam Flashcards

1
Q

TTR = ?

A

Type Token Ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Type Token Ratio a measure of?

A

Measure of semantics diversity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define TTR (Type Token Ratio).

A

A ratio of the Number of Different Words (NDW) to the Total Number of Words (TNW) in a sample.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

NDW = ?

A

Number of Different Words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define NDW (Number of Different Words)

A

A language sample of fixed length which is a good measure of semantic diversity. Strongly correlated with age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

TNW = ?

A

Total Number of Words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define TNW (Total Number of Words)

A

A general measure of verb output which significantly increases with age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe how TNW significantly increases with age.

A
  1. At 3 yr TNW = 205 words in a 50 word utterance

2. At 8 yrs TNW = 379 words in a 50 word utterance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the score range that children should exhibit with TTR?

A

2-8 years = from 0.42 - 0.50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Interpret the meaning of a TTR score > 0.50.

A

A TTR score > 50 means that there is greater variability and flexibility in the child’s language.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Interpret the meaning of a TTR score > 0.42.

A

A TTR score < 0.42 means that the child tends to use the same words over and over again.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do very low TTR scores mean?

A

Very low TTR scores indicate

  1. Preservative or stereotypic behavior
  2. Word retrieval problems
  3. Restricted vocabulary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define speech act.

A

A linguistic unit of communication consisting of conceptual information (i.e.: proposition) and an intention (i.e.: illocutionary force).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When is the foundation for speech acts laid?

A

Early in communicative attempts of the young child.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What comes first in terms of use: primitive speech acts or sentence structure?

A

Primitive speech acts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the age range for perlocutionary speech acts?

A

0-10 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the age range for illocutionary speech acts?

A

10-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

With this type of speech act, behavior has consequences but does not have communicative intent.

A

Perlocutionary speech act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

With this type of speech act, behavior has communicative goals but does not use the forms of the target language.

A

Illocutionary speech act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the age range of locutionary speech acts?

A

12+ months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

With this type of speech act, behavior has communicative intentions and adult-like forms.

A

Locutionary speech act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List the characteristics of Dore’s Primitive Speech Acts (9).

A
  1. Labeling
  2. Repeating
  3. Answering
  4. Requesting Action
  5. Requesting Answer
  6. Calling
  7. Greeting
  8. Protesting
  9. Practicing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

One or more words that function as a label produced while attending to an object.

A

Labeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

One or more words that respond to an adult question or statement and are produced while attending to the adult utterance. The child addresses the adult but does not necessarily wait for a response.

A

Answering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

One or more words or a prosodic pater that repeats part of the adult utterance and is produced while attending to the adult utterance.

A

Repeating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

One or more words or a prosodic pattern that functions as a request for an action and is produced while attending to an object or an event.

A

Requesting action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

One or more words that are used to obtain another’s attention.

A

Calling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

One or more words that function as a request for an answer.

A

Requesting answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

One or more words that are used to mark arrival or leave-taking and are produced while attending to the adult or an object. The child addresses the adult or object and doesn’t necessarily wait for a response.

A

Greeting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

One or more words or a prosodic pattern that expresses disapproval of or dislike for an object or action and is produced while attending to the adult.

A

Protesting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dore suggests that this is a “catch all” category that should be used whenever an utterance cannot be assigned clearly to another category.

A

Practicing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

PLS-5 = ?

A

Preschool-Language Scale-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Authors PLS-5 (3)

A
  1. Zimmerman
  2. Steiner
  3. Pond
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is the PLS-5 administered?

A

Pointing or verbal response to pictures and objects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Completion time PLS-5

A

45-60 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Scores for PLS-5 (7)

A
  1. Total language
  2. Auditory comprehension
  3. Expressive communication
  4. Standard scores
  5. Growth scores
  6. Percentile ranks
  7. Language age equivalents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Supplemental tests for PLS-5

A
  1. Articulation Screener
  2. Language Sample
  3. Home Communication Questionnaire
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What age range is the PLS-5 appropriate for?

A

7-11 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A normative sample is collected in more than …..

A

45 states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What norms are reported for the PLS-5?

A

3 month intervals for children:
Birth - 11 mos

6 month intervals for children:
12 mos - 7 years, 11 mos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Materials needed for the PLS-5 (21)

A
  1. 2 rattles
  2. 3 cups
  3. Bowls
  4. Spoons
  5. Washcloth
  6. 2 Cars
  7. Ball
  8. Windup Toy
  9. Squeaky Duck
  10. Keys on Key Ring
  11. Bubbles
  12. Sheets of paper
  13. Watch or clock with 2nd hand
  14. Washable toy bear
  15. Comb
  16. Box of 8 crayons
  17. Pitcher
  18. 2 Children’s Books
  19. Opaque box with lid
  20. 8 blocks
  21. Sealable plastic bags
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What should be a primary concern to a clinician working with the Birth-5 population?

A

The family and their role in care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Why should the family be a primary concern to a clinician working with the Birth-5 population?

A

B/C the family is…
1. A constant in the child’s life (this cannot be said about many of the providers they work with)

B/C the family…
2. Provides a natural context within which to practice skills taught in therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The child’s health care team must work with the family to achieve collaboration and trust through (3).

A
  1. Effective listening
  2. Mutual respect
  3. Shared understanding
45
Q

List the first 4 of the 8 Tenets of Family-Centered Care.

A
  1. The family is the constant in the changing care that is provided to the child.
  2. There is diversity of families (each family has their own culture).
  3. Recognize that all families have strengths (these strengths will form the building blocks for successful services).
  4. Notice and respect the expert knowledge parents bring to the assessment process.
46
Q

List the last 4 of the 8 Tenets of Family-Centered Care.

A
  1. Truly care for the family.
  2. Identify family needs (be flexible to accommodate these needs).
  3. Create a context of growth and empowerment.
  4. Recognize that families cope in different ways.
47
Q

What does making family-centered care a part of the assessment and treatment process lead to (What outcomes)?

A
  1. Increased satisfaction
  2. Decreased costs
  3. Increased family involvement
  4. Enhanced family coping
48
Q

What is an individualized family service plan (IFSP)?

A

An intervention plan for birth-3 yrs (infants, toddlers, and their families).

49
Q

What is the purpose of an IFSP?

A
  1. Addresses development plan and goals for the child.
  2. Identify the needs and provide necessary supports for the family.
  3. Comprehensive services for the child and family (not just education).
50
Q

What is included in an IFSP (4).

A
  1. Objective measures of child’s present level of physical, cognitive, social, emotional, communicative, and adaptive development.
  2. Family’s resources, priorities, and concerns for the child within the family.
  3. Major outcomes expected for expected for the child and family; criteria, procedures, and timelines, and concerns for the child within the family.
  4. Specific early intervention services needed to meet the needs of the child and family.
51
Q

When developing an IFSP, what are the first four things that must be included under “Specific early intervention services needed to meet the needs of the child and family” component?

A
  1. Frequency, intensity, and method of treatment.
  2. Environments services will be provided in
    A. Justification if not in natural environment
  3. Location of services
  4. Payment arrangements
52
Q

When developing an IFSP, what are the next four thins that must be included under “Specific early intervention services needed to meet the needs of the child and family” component?

A
  1. List of services and funding sources.
  2. Initiation of dates and anticipated duration
  3. Name and discipline of service coordinator
  4. Plan to transition to preschool services
53
Q

IEP = ?

A

Individualized Education Plan

54
Q

What is an IEP?

A

A plan for children 3-5 years with speech and language disorders. *

55
Q

What is the focus on in an IEP?

A

The child and not the family but the family is still an integral participant in the process.

56
Q

What do parents have the right to do with a proposed IEP?

A

To accept or reject the IEP and request changes be made to the IEP.
They must approve the plan being proposed for the child before any program is initiated.

57
Q

List the purposes of language intervention (2).

A
  1. To teach language behavior

2. To make the child a better communicator.

58
Q

List the results of intervention (4).

A
  1. Change or eliminate the underlying program.
  2. Change the disorder.
  3. Compensation strategies (minimize the impact of disability)
  4. Change the child’s environment
59
Q

How can intervention change behavior (3)?

A
  1. Facilitation
  2. Maintenance
  3. Induction
60
Q

Define maintenance.

A

Helping the child keep skills they have

61
Q

Define induction

A

What the clinician does to allow child to acquire a skill they wouldn’t have acquired.

62
Q

Define facilitation.

A

Increases the rate the child will acquire skill.

63
Q

Define descriptive development approach.

A

Suggests that the goals a clinician chooses for a client are those aspects of language for which the child is functioning at a lower level than other aspects of language.

64
Q

Define long-term goals.

A

Involve results that will often take months or years to achieve which can include raising scores on a standardized achievement test, reading at a level commensurate with age and grade level, or successfully completing a multi-year therapy program.

65
Q

List examples of long-term goals as discussed in lecture (2).

A
  1. John will improve scores on the facial expression inventory.
  2. Ann will read at a level commensurate with her age and grade.
66
Q

Define short-term goals.

A

A specific objective the client must master before he or she is able to achieve long-term goals.

These focus on specific targets, units, tasks, or steps, and are usually achieved in a short time period.

These will usually change quickly as he or she masters those and new short-term goals are established.

67
Q

List examples of short-term goals as discussed in lecture (2)

A
  1. John will use appropriate facial expressions to convey happiness when speaking in 8 of 10 attempts.
  2. Ann will correctly read words with the vowel Y with 90% accuracy.
68
Q

Listen to goal sequence for language and short-term on recording! Develop FCs!

A

Listen to!

69
Q

Components of well-written goals (3)

A
  1. Performance
  2. Condition
  3. Criterion
70
Q

Define performance, a component of well-written goals.

A

What the clinician expects the client to do or perform to show mastery of the goal (EX: Jane will produce voiceless consonants).

71
Q

What types of verbs should be used in performance statements?

A

Verbs that are concrete and can be evaluated by the clinician (name, read orally, repeat orally, state, write, match, count, demand, draw, say, reach, remove, ETC).

72
Q

What types of verbs SHOULD NOT be used in performance statements for goal setting?

A

Verbs that could be interpreted differently by different people, such as know, understand, appreciate, enjoy, learn, believe).

73
Q

Define condition.

A

This part of the goal refers to the condition under which the performance is to be done (EX: Jane will produce voiceless consonants when preceding vowels).

74
Q

Make FCS on other examples of conditions.

A

Make FCs on other examples of conditions.

75
Q

Define criterion.

A

A part of a goal refers to how well the client is expected to perform the goal (EX: Jane will produce voiceless consonants when preceding vowels in 90% of the appropriate contexts).

76
Q

Give examples of criterion of goal setting as discussed in lecture (4).

A
  1. 90% of the time
  2. In 8 out of 10 attempts
  3. For three consecutive trials
  4. In 2 consecutive sessioins
77
Q

What criterion is usually used in speech-language therapy?

A

90%

78
Q

What criterion is often used for patients of intellectual disability or of young age?

A

80%

79
Q

Define highest priority in terms of prioritizing goals for language intervention.

A

Forms and functions the client uses in 10% to 50% of required contexts.

80
Q

Define high priority in terms of prioritizing goals for language intervention

A

Forms and functions used in 1% to 10% of required contexts but understood in receptive task format.

81
Q

Define lower priority in terms of prioritizing goals for language intervention.

A

Forms and functions used in 50% to 90% of required contexts. Forms the client does not use at all and does not demonstrate understanding of in receptive task formats.

82
Q

List the characteristics and goals of the clinician-directed approach (5).

A
  1. It is essentially a transitional behaviorist approach.
  2. They attempt to make the target linguistic stimuli highly salient.
  3. To reduce or eliminate irrelevant stimuli.
  4. To provide clear reinforcement to increase language behaviors.
  5. To control the clinical environment so that intervention is optimally efficient in changing language behavior.
83
Q

List the advantages of the CD approach (3).

A
  1. They allow the clinician to maximize opportunities for a child to use a new form.
  2. The unnatural nature of this type of therapy may be an advantage in itself.
  3. Evidence to support that children with lower IQs received the more benefit with a C.D. approach than did children with higher IQs.
84
Q

List the disadvantage of the CD approach.

A

There appears to be little carryover of the target into natural conversations.

85
Q

Define drill.

A

The clinician instructs the client concerning what response is expected and provides a training stimulus.

86
Q

Define prompts.

A

Lets the student know what is expected (i.e.: imitation)

87
Q

What occurs during drill with prompts?

A
  1. Prompts are usually faded.

2. Correct responses are reinforced.

88
Q

What type of drill is boring for both clinicians and clients?

A

Prompting

89
Q

Define drill play.

A

Uses the same basic components of drill with the addition of a motivating event.

90
Q

Give an example of drill play.

A

If you are working on naming clothing, then you might allow the child to chose which page from the clothing coloring book that she would like to color.

91
Q

Define modeling.

A

Uses a model as a training vehicle.

92
Q

Describe modeling (3).

A
  1. Uses a highly structured format but the child listens as the model provides lots of examples for the target structure.
  2. The child never has to imitate a structure immediately after the model.
  3. After the child has been exposed to numerous examples of the target, then the child is asked to talk like the model.
93
Q

Describe the effects of the CD approach on children’s production of new language forms.

A

It seems that CD approaches are highly effective in getting children to produce new language forms but not so effective in getting them to incorporate these forms into real communication, outside the structured clinic setting.

94
Q

What is an example of child-oriented approach?

A

Indirect language stimulation

95
Q

Define indirect language stimulation.

A

The clinician arranges an activity so that opportunities for the client to produce the target responses occur as a natural part of play.

96
Q

What does the clinician use a variety of in indirect language stimulation?

A

The clinician uses a variety of linguistic stimuli as instructional language when they seem appropriate in the context of the child’s activity.

97
Q

What does the indirection language stimulation not include?

A
  1. No tangible rein forcers
  2. No requirements that the child provide a response.
  3. No prompts or shaping of incorrect responses when they occur.
98
Q

Linguistic mapping consists of (7)

A
  1. Self talk
  2. Parallel talk
  3. Imitations
  4. Expansions
  5. Extension
  6. Build-ups and break-downs
  7. Recast sentences
99
Q

What is the goal of whole language and oral language development?

A

Not any specific language form but a general level of communication

100
Q

Make FCs for Whole Language and Oral Language Development.

A

FCs

101
Q

How does the child-oriented approach differ from the clinician-directed approach?

A

The child-oriented approach differs from the clinician directed approach in terms of naturalness, degree of adult control, use of external reinforcement, and adherence to pragmatic principles.

102
Q

List the major types of hybrid intervention (3).

A
  1. Focused stimulation
  2. Vertical structuring
  3. Enhanced milieu teaching
103
Q

Describe focused stimulation of hybrid intervention (2)

A
  1. The clinician provides multiple examples of the target in a structured interactive play context.
  2. The clinician provides the child with the opportunity to use the form, but when the child responds with something other than the target, the clinician responds contingently anyway, then goes on to give further models.
  3. The clinician gives noncorrective feedback similar to an expansion when the child makes an unsuccessful attempt.
  4. The clinician asks the child to attempt the form but if the child declines to do so, the clinician simply goes on giving additional models.
104
Q

Define vertical structuring.

A

A particular form of expansion used like focused stimulation to highlight target structures.

105
Q

Describe vertical structuring (4)

A
  1. The clinician responds to a child’s incomplete utterance with a contingent question.
  2. The child then responds to the question with another fragmentary remark.
  3. The clinician then takes the 2 pieces produced by the child and expands them into a more complete utterance.
  4. The child is not required by the clinician to imitate the expansion.
106
Q

Define enhanced milieu teaching.

A

Includes several different techniques that apply operant principles to quasi-naturalistic settings.

107
Q

List and describe the major components of enhanced milieu teaching (3).

A
  1. Environmental arrangement
  2. Responsive interaction
  3. Conversation based contexts that use child interest and initiation as opportunities for modeling and prompting communication in everyday settings.
108
Q

Who is enhanced milieu teaching appropriate for?

A
  1. Children who are able to imitate sounds and words
  2. Children who have a vocabulary of at least 10 words.
  3. Children who have an MLU between 1.0 and 3.5
109
Q

What is an appropriate environment for enhanced milieu teaching? How should a therapy environment be set up?

A
  1. Provide interesting materials
  2. Place within the child’s reach
  3. Sabotage - Give only part of the material, toys, snack
  4. Provide choices
  5. Create situation where the child is going to need assistance
  6. Take advantage of unexpected situations.

CSD 3335 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions