unit 2+3 Flashcards

1
Q

By what DIC are RBLs received at each base?

A

XCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What FCI format do you use to load an authorized/in-use detail?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What agencies are required to use MILSTRIP procedures?

A

All branches of service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What records are established by processing a FIL input?

A

Item record and repair cycle record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What combinations of codes determine the requisition priority to be used at the SOS?

A

FAD and UND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of redistribution is a lateral support shipment?

A

Nondirected, Special

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What product is used for weapons or COMSEC reconciliation?

A

R46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What RICs are used on lateral support shipments?

A

JLS or D***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What code on the MICAP report identifies the reason for the out-of-stock condition that made the MICAP request necessary?

A

Cause Code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN after picking up the property?

A

Degraded Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What listing identifies the out-of-balance conditions as a result of comparing the authorized quantity against the in-use and due-out quantities?

A

Q10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What relationship code identifies items that can be used in place of other items only for particular uses or under certain conditions?

A

S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What TRIC is used to process a due-out cancellation?

A

DOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Who may sign for equipment items?

A

Only the primary or alternate equipment custodian, or organization commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the source of data for TRN processing?

A

Part II of the AFTO from 350

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How long will FSC maintain all documentation that pertains to time change items?

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What term defines the average quantity used daily?

A

Daily Demand Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What section must be notified of all cancellations of equipment due-outs?

A

Equipment Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How often are RBLs updated?

A

Quarterly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of this is NOT a situation when you CAN’T input a 601 request into AFEMS?

A

Regular weapons

21
Q

What status type has the worst effect on an account?

A

Cancellations

22
Q

What must you load to the item record to allow multiple quantities of DIFM items to process?

A

Multiple difm flag

23
Q

What input loads or changes the item record nomenclature, shelf-life code, quantity unit pack, and the DEMIL code?

A

FNL

24
Q

What MICAP delete code indicates error reporting?

A

9

25
Q

What listing provides AWP due-outs, due-ins, and status detail records?

A

D19

26
Q

Processing supply difficulty reports must not take more than how many calendar days?

A

7

27
Q

How many copies of the AF Form 2005 are prepared for order requests?

A

2

28
Q

What 100-percent status is required for a priority 03 requisition, when is an in-line follow-up performed?

A

Four days after the requisition date

29
Q

How often should you conduct an inspection of on-the-shelf TCTO items assigned the TCTO flag?

A

Monthly

30
Q

What form will be used in preparation for turn-in?

A

AF form 2005

31
Q

What input changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack?

A

FCU

32
Q

What management notice reflects the total base assets position of a killed request?

A

I023

33
Q

Within what period must ARC images be worked before another is output?

A

5 Days

34
Q

What does the gaining base process to receive the shipment and establish an on-hand quantity and detail to obtain accountability?

A

FED

35
Q

What product is used to review and validate ASLs?

A

R35

35
Q

What is the authority which establishes the number of items to be issued to an individual, activity, or military organization?

A

Basis of Issue

36
Q

What is the maximum number of items authorized in a base-level I&SG?

A

24

36
Q

What TEX code is used in a DOR input to force release a due-out?

A

3

37
Q

What acivity code is used to process EAID turn-ins?

A

E

38
Q

What program is used to perform reconciliation between XVF records and base level WRM authorizations?

A

S05

39
Q

Which of these is NOT a different type of MILSTRIP status?

A

Issue

39
Q

What form is used to request equipment items where the approval authority is at base level or below?

A

2005

40
Q

What MMC code does not identify COMSEC on the item record?

A

CM

41
Q

What code provides maintenance activities with repair-level responsibilities, support methods, and disposition instructions?

A

SMR

42
Q

Which type of RSP is used to support an organization in-pace for the first 30 days of wartime operations?

A

IRSP

43
Q

What type of redistribution results from a local management decision?

A

Non-directed Redistribution

44
Q

With what activity code, organization code, and demand code are requests for transfer submitted?

A

S;005; N

45
Q

How often are priority due-outs validated?

A

Monthly