unit 1+4 (oopsies) Flashcards

1
Q

What input removes freeze code I?

A

IRC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What AFI directs AF organizations to designate formally, in writing; personnel authorized to accept controlled materiel?

A

AFI 31-404

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What management notice is output when a receipt or TIN is processed against a stock number that is coded as a suspect item?

A

I302

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is NOT a the criterion for an automatic adjustment after a physical inventory recount?

A

CIC 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is the self-inspection program conducted and performed?

A

According to local guidelines and checklists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How frequently should the storage conditions of chemical and petroleum products be inspected?

A

Monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What AFI publication describes the general duties and responsibilities for materiel management?

A

AFI 36-2101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is defined as Materiel that requires protection in the interest of national security?

A

Classified property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of acids must be stored under automatic water sprinklers?

A

Organic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What program writes inventory count records to a data base file and assigns freeze code C to all item records within the input parameter?

A

R12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What product do you use to reconcile recap sheets after the completion of the inventory to verify emergency issues were processed?

A

D04

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is defined as Classified or unclassified assemblies and subassemblies (containing no fissionable or fusionable materiel) identified by the military departments (MILDEP) that comprise or could comprise a standardized war reserve nuclear weapon (including equivalent training devices) as it would exist once separated/removed from its intended delivery vehicle?

A

NWRM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where are precious metals stored?

A

In a security Page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How are potential health-hazard item records marked?

A

IEX Code 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What publication can be used as a guide to identify potentially hazardous items?

A

Federal standard 313

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who determines which IEX code or flag should be loaded on the item record?

A

BES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What TEX code is used to process an NF/ND equipment turn-in (TIN) found-on-base (FOB) when ownership cannot be determined?

A

+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which is NOT a reason for processing an FCS?

A

Cancel a warehouse location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When a phase II, semiannual bench stock review is conducted, within what time frame must the review be accomplished?

A

Within 1 workweek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who do DMS personnel notify when DIFM asset turn-in times exceed requirements outlined in AFI 23–101?

A

Aircraft maintence Unit Leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is NOT a legacy program that ES-S provides the capability to query and view orders?

A

LIMS-EV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who handles all enlisted issues for a MAJCOM for the 2S career field?

A

MAJCOM Functional Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is DLA’s materiel management system?

A

Standard Automated Materiel Management Listing (SAMMS)

24
Q

How often are code components inventoried as designated in STRATCOM guidance?

A

15, 30, and/or 90 days interval

25
Q

What do warehouse personnel NOT have ensure is in place prior to storing property?

A

Quantity is Listed on asset

26
Q

What category of reusable containers has an exterior container usually made of metal, plastic, or synthetic materials?

A

Long Life

27
Q

Which item accounting process provides the total asset position of the item record requested, to include interchangeable and substitutes?

A

Due-Out Process

28
Q

How often are the keys and locks audited when padlocks are used to store classified materiel?

A

Monthly

29
Q

What TRIC is used to change the authorization or delete a bench stock item?

A

2BS

30
Q

How many days prior to the expiration date are type II shelf-life items scheduled for serviceability testing?

A

14-45 days

31
Q

Which form is used to submit permanent changes for production forecasting?

A

AF Form 2011

32
Q

What category DIREP is normally correct immediately?

A

Major Impact

33
Q

Which change input, transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to correct an identification error for serviceable items in storage?

A

FCH

34
Q

What is NOT a type of inventory?

A

Annual

35
Q

Which materiel handling principle results in reducing the costs of operation (i.e., the simplification of maintenance, repair, storage, and issue procedures)?

A

Standardized Equipment

36
Q

Which warehouse change document may be output when, due to a change in the controlled item code (CIC), an item must be relocated to a more secure area?

A

1SC

37
Q

At a minimum, how often must SDR data and MRA levels be validated?

A

Annually

38
Q

What are the storage requirements for Secret and Confidential materiel?

A

Class B Vault

39
Q

How are storage levels identified?

A

By a single capital letter

40
Q

What code is assigned to the item record of any warranty or guarantee item received?

A

IEX code b

41
Q

What thing is not needed to be checked when off-loading property?

A

NSN

42
Q

How long does document control maintain a copy of the D04 on disk?

A

2 year

43
Q

What materiel management function evaluates and controls the incoming SDR program?

A

Customer support

44
Q

What type of codes are used on the item record inquiry to obtain specific data from the computer?

A

record retrieval

45
Q

What document file code is used to indicate a source document is to be filed?

A

F

46
Q

What listing is used to monitor delinquent shipment-suspense details?

A

R40

47
Q

Which of these is not a CTH inquiry input format?

A

Serial number

48
Q

Which element is NOT responsible for processing record reversal inputs?

A

Equipment

49
Q

What is a warehouse refusal?

A

When a needed issue item is not found in the location, or when the quantity needed is not sufficient to fill the request

50
Q

How many divisions make up the SMAG-R?

A

Three

51
Q

When should a warehouse validation be completed?

A

Within 10 workdays of the start of a new inventory cycle or sample inventory

52
Q

What are the 4 major types of computer inquiries?

A

item record, detail record, part number record, and OTHER RECORDS

53
Q

What transaction adjusts the record balance and updates the applicable inventory accuracy records for a complete inventory?

A

IRC

54
Q

What form is used to process a turn-in (TIN) request?

A

AF form 2005

55
Q

What system provides transactional information to VLIPS?

A

Defense automated addressing system (DAAS)