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Nurs 316 > Unit 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

nurse is aware of the importance of potassium and sodium for normal physiologic functions of a client. The rapid movement of potassium and sodium in actions is known as:
A. primary active transport.
B. vesicular transport.
C. endocytosis.
D. exocytosis.

A

A.

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2
Q

Which describes the function of the nucleus?
A. It is basically the site of protein synthesis in the body.
B. It initiates the process of aerobic metabolism.
C. It contains the genetic code for the individual.
D. It is the transformer of cellular energy.

A

C. Genetic code

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3
Q

When exercising outside on an extremely warm day, the client can feel his heart pounding very rapidly. Thinking in terms of the ability of the aorta to stretch to accommodate more blood circulating during exercise and the warm environment, this is an example of the function of which fibrous protein?
A. Ligaments
B. Elastin
C. Collagen
D. Reticular
Clear Response

A

B. Elastin

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4
Q

When describing the structures of the cell membrane, how does the pathophysiology instructor identify the various roles/functions this membrane is responsible for? Select all that apply.
A. Acts as a filter so that small water molecules remain within the cell wall
B. Holds and binds receptors for hormones
C. Participates in the conduction of electrical currents in muscle cells
D. Separates intracellular environment from extracellular environment
E. Place where various proteins attach to the lipid bilayer

A

BCD

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5
Q

Which type of epithelium is found in the lining of blood vessels, lymph nodes, and alveoli of the lungs?
A. Stratified epithelium
B. Simple squamous epithelium
C. Pseudostratified epithelium
D. Transitional epithelium

A

B.

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6
Q

A nurse practitioner (NP) has been asked to speak with the local high school track team about health, wellness, and nutrition. One of the athletes asks about the differences in the physiology of the energy used in sprinting versus long-distance running. Which response is the best answer?
A. The energy utilization is dependent entirely upon diet and not how it is expended.
B. Sprinters use explosive energy, and distance runners use slow, steady energy.
C. Distance runners utilize ATP generated via anaerobic glycolysis, and sprinters utilize ATP generated via aerobic metabolism.
D. Sprinters utilize ATP generated via anaerobic glycolysis, and distance runners utilize ATP generated via aerobic metabolism.

A

D

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7
Q

The nurse is assigned to care for the client with primary ciliary dyskinesia. What effect does this syndrome have on the body that the nurse should be aware of? Select all that apply.
A. Hearing impairment
B. Sinus aplasia
C. A reversal of the thorax and abdominal organs
D. Peripheral neuropathy
E. Bronchiolitis

A

BCE

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8
Q

Which type of cell in tissue produces the extracellular matrix that supports and holds the tissues together
A. Connective tissue
B. Nerve tissue
C. Skeletal tissue
D. Muscle tissue

A

A. Connective

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9
Q

When cells use energy to move ions against an electrical or chemical gradient, the process is called:
• active transport.
• cotransport.
• passive transport.
• neutral transport.

A

A. Active

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10
Q

The cells of the client’s epithelial tissue are tightly bound together by specialized junctions. Select the junctions primarily responsible for preventing cell separation.
• Occluding junctions
• Nexus junctions
• Adhering junctions
• Continuous tight juncti

A

C. Adhering

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11
Q

Which physiological process best describes the removal of microorganisms (such as bacteria), toxins, and cellular debris from the body?
• Phagocytosis
• Meiosis
• Hemolysis
• Anaerobic metabolism

A

A. Phagocytosis

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12
Q

The nurse is caring for a child newly diagnosed with a lysosomal storage disease. What instruction should the parents receive?
• This condition interferes with cellular respiration.
• Consider genetic testing if you plan to have more children.
• Your child can live a normal life with medications.
• A low-protein diet will help manage your child’s condition.

A

B. Consider genetic testing if you plan to have more children

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13
Q

The nurse educates a client with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI) about the blood test to evaluate troponin levels. The nurse knows the education has been successful when the client says:
• “This test is specific to components found in my heart muscle.”
“A result below 2 micrograms indicates I have no heart damage.”
• “My lifestyle changes will help this level drop quickly.”
• “An elevated level means I need to increase calcium intake.”

A

A. This test is specific to components found in my heart muscle

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14
Q

Which stage of a cell’s life cycle is where the preparation of mitosis occurs?
GO
•M
• G1
• s
Clear Response

A

G1

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15
Q

Which of the following is true about a cell’s cytoplasm? Select all that apply.
• The cell serves as its own digestive system.
The cell manufactures messenger RNA (mRNA), ribosomal RNA (RNA), and transfer RNA (IRNA).
• The cell is where protein is synthesized.
The cell transports substances within the cell.
• The cell contains organelles.

A

ACDE

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16
Q

Cell signaling systems help with communication through a process that requires a variety of first messengers. Which are examples of first messengers? Select all that apply.
• Protein hormones
• Steroids
■ Neurotansmitters
_ Growth factors
_ Protein kinases

A

ABCD

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17
Q

The nurse is aware that to maintain homeostasis a client may experience a variety of physiologic processes. The process by which molecules of a solvent tend to pass through a semipermeable membrane from an area of less concentrated solution into a more concentrated one, resulting in equalizing the concentrations on each side of the membrane, is known as:
• Osmosis
• Endocytosis
• Simple diffusion
• Facilitated diffusion

A

A. Osmosis

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18
Q

Select the type of energy production that occurs in the mitochondria with the Krebs cycle.
• Aerobic metabolism
• Glycolysis
• Glyconeogenesis
• Anaerobic glycolytic pathway

A

A. Aerobic metabolism

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19
Q

Which type of ribonucleic acid (RNA) structure translates the instructions needed for protein synthesis?
• Polymerase RNA
• Messenger RNA
• Ribosomal RNA
• Transfer RNA

A

C. Ribosomal RNA

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20
Q

Chapter 3

nurse is caring for four clients. Which client is at greatest risk for high blood levels of lead?
• A 2-year-old anemic child who lives in a turn-of-the-century home
• A 30-year-old office worker with asthma
• A 62-year-old smoker with hypercalcemia
A 17-year-old student who takes a woodworking class

A

A.

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21
Q

The nurse is caring for a toddler brought into the emergency department for suspected lead toxicity. Which condition or sign is the cardinal indicator of lead toxicity?
• Muscle weakness
• Fever
• Anemia
• Nausea and vomiting

A

C.

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22
Q

pregnant client reports that she constantly craves tuna sandwiches and eats one every day. The nurse determines that the client is at greatest risk for:
high caloric content of the tuna causing an increase in weight gain.
developing intolerance to red meat consumption.
increased mercury levels that may affect fetal development.
• low protein values of tuna.

A

C. Increased mercury levels

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23
Q

Select the statement that best describes apoptosis.
• Unregulated by enzymatic digestion of cell components
• The release of productfof cell death is uncontrolled.
• Responsible for initiating an inflammatory response
• Highly selective in eliminating injured or aged cells

A

D.

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24
Q

An adult client who recently worked in an overseas metal smelter has developed several symptoms that cause the care team to suspect lead poisoning. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse attribute to this problem? Select all that apply.
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit
C. Elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D. Jaundice
E. Dental caries

A

BC

25
Q

client has developed cell atrophy. The most likely cause would be:
• endocrine stimulation.
• ischemia.
• reinnervation.
• overuse.

A

B. Ischemia

26
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with a leg wound. When planning care for the client, the nurse considers that the injured cells have impaired flow of substances through the cell membrane as a result of:
A. increased fat load.
B. altered permeability.
C. increased surface receptors.
D. altered glucose use.

A

B.

27
Q

What information should be included in the teaching plan of care for the parents of a child diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease?
A. Symptoms are often noted at birth.
B. The disorder involves tissue hyperplasia.
C. The primary organ affected is the heart.
D. The disorder involves accumulation of abnormal lipids.

A

D.

28
Q

Which intervention should a nurse stress when teaching clients how to avoid exposure to lead in their environment? Select all that apply.
A. Adult exposure to the same amounts of lead as young children will have more damage to cells.
B. Not everyone has a reaction to lead.
C. Root vegetables can contain more lead than other vegetables.
D. Lead can contaminate soil.
E. Avoid flaking paint.

A

CDE

29
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with compensatory hyperplasia. What is the most likely cause of the hyperplasia?
A. Pregnancy
B. Benign prostate enlargement
C. Skin warts
D. Partial hepatectomy

A

D. Partial hepatectomy

30
Q

A client has developed dystrophic calcification as a result of macroscopic deposition of calcium salts. The tissue that would be most affected would be:
A. injured tissue.
B. normal tissue.
C. regenerated tissue.
D. dead tissue.

A

A. Injured tissue

31
Q

client has just learned that his liver has regenerated following partial removal of the liver due to trauma. This regeneration is due to which physiologic principle?
A. Metaplasia
B. Compensatory hyperplasia
C. Exogenous product accumulation
D. Intracellular hypertrophy

A

B.

32
Q

client with diabetes who is diagnosed with a gangrenous right heel ulcer presents with a wound that has no line of demarcation, is spreading rapidly, and has a foul odor. The health care worker recognizes these manifestations as:
• dry gangrene.
• moist gangrene.
• internal gangrene.
• gas gangrene.

A

B. Moist gangrene

33
Q

Which statement is true concerning dysplasia? Select all that apply.
A. Dysplasia results in cell growth that produces a variety of specific tissue cell shapes.
B. Dysplasia is seldom reversible.
C. Dysplasia can result from chronic irritation.
D. Dysplasia is known to frequently exist in the respiratory tract.
E. Dysplasia is a strong precursor of cancer.

A

A.CDE

34
Q

nurse is teaching a group of older adults about the value of including foods containing antioxidants in their diet. Which statement best captures the rationale underlying the nurse’s advice?
A. Antioxidants prevent the formation of superoxide dismutase.
B. Antioxidants inhibit the actions of reactive oxygen species.
C. Antioxidants react nonspecifically with molecules.
D. Antioxidants prevent the occurrence of cell dysplasia.

A

B

35
Q

client is receiving radiation to the abdominal area as part of cancer treatment. Which assessments findings would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply.
A. Pale skin
B. Irreversible skin necrosis
C. Diarrhea
D. Dermatitis (abdomen)
E. Extreme pain

A

CD

36
Q

The practitioner examines his client’s foot and observes the great toe to be black and dry. The practitioner explains to the client that the dead tissue is caused by:
A. gas gangrene.
B. liquefaction necrosis.
C. caseous necrosis.
D. dry gangrene.

A

D. Dry gangrene

37
Q

The nurse anticipates cellular injury from hypoxia for which cause? Select all that apply.
口
A. Respiratory disease
B. Anemia
C. Lack of atmospheric oxygen
D. Gram-negative bacilli infection
E. Vascular obstruction

A

ABCE

38
Q

A client is admitted with an electrical burn and a fractured arm. Which cause related to the burn likely is responsible for the fracture?
A. The client had violent muscle contractions during the electrical injury.
B. The client had a predisposing condition.
C. The client most likely fell after the electrical injury.
D. The client may have fallen into the electrical cord.

A

A.

39
Q

The radiologist is reviewing potential types of radiation therapy for a client. Select the type of radiation that directly breaks down chemical bonds in a cell.
A. Sunlight radiation
B. Ultraviolet radiation
C. lonizing radiation
D. Non-ionizing radiation

A

C.

40
Q

Chapter 6

The nurse identifies the marker for thyroid cancer as which of the following?
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B. Calcitonin
C. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
D. CA 125

A

B. Calcitonin

41
Q

A nurse is providing education to the parents of child, newly diagnosed acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). While discussing “usual” protocols, which adverse reaction to intrathecal combination chemotherapy should the nurse mention?
A. initiation of migraine headaches
B. cognitive impairment
C. stunted growth
D. possible development of seizures

A

B. Cognition impairment

42
Q

nurse discussing screening options with a client at risk for colon cancer should include education about which screening methods? Select all that apply.
A. Prostate-specific antigen test
B. Colonoscopy
C. Rectal examination
D. Transrectal ultrasonography
E. Fecal occult blood test

A

BCE

43
Q

Select the option that best identifies how adult cancers differ in origin from childhood cancers. Adult cancers originate from:
A. neuronal tissues.
B. embryonic cells.
C. the hematopoietic system.
D. epithelial cells.

A

D.

44
Q

A nurse caring for a client with cancer notes that the client also has anemia. What might be the cause of anemia in this client? Select all that apply.
A. Hypoxia
B. Liver fatigue
C. Side effect of chemotherapy
D. Blood loss
E. Impaired red blood cell (RBC) production

A

CDE

45
Q

nurse is studying about benign cancers and recognizes which tumors are classified as benign? Select all that apply.
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Glioblastoma
C. Lymphangioma
D. Fibroma
E. Meningeal sarcoma

A

CD

46
Q

Because an adolescent has revealed a history of childhood cancer, the nurse should include in the plan of care an assessment for which late-therapy sequelae? Select all that apply.
A. Neurologic dysfunction
B. Hormonal dysfunction
C. Impaired growth
D. Diabetes
E. Asthma

A

ABC

47
Q

The nurse is conducting a community class on the importance of early recognition of cancer. Screening mechanisms are available for which cancers? Select all that apply.
A. Breast
B. Pancreatic
C. Cervical
D. Lung
E. Prostate

A

BCE

48
Q

A client has been diagnosed with cancer that was a result of dysfunctional apoptosis. The health care provider explains the process to the multidisciplinary client care team.
Select the best explanation.
A. It allows for DNA-damaged cells to survive.
B. It increases the risk for mitochondrial dysfunction.
C. Apoptosis has no impact on malignant development.
D. Cells that go through apoptosis are the only ones that become cancerous.

A

A.

49
Q

Which individual’s condition may result in cells leaving the cell cycle and residing in the GO state?
A. client with multiple sclerosis who uses a wheelchair
B. client experiencing stress following job loss
C. client training for a triathlon competition
D. client with financial difficulty interfering with food purchase

A

D

50
Q

An oncology nurse recognizes that the cluster of differentiation (CD) antigen is present on leukocytes and is the tumor marker used in which cancers? Select all that apply.
A. Colon cancer
B. Liver cancer
C. Leukemia
D. Breast cancer
E. Lymphoma

A

CE

51
Q

middle-aged male who has been experiencing extreme weight loss and appears very cachectic has been diagnosed with a solid tumor of the abdomen. The pathophysiology resulting in the cachexia is caused by which action of the tumor?
A. Impeding digestion
B. Causing anorexia
C. Replacing lean body mass
D. Consuming large amounts of glucose

A

D.

52
Q

The oncologist has assessed a client diagnosed with cancer and determined that radiation therapy is the best course of treatment. The therapy will be most effective for:
A. radiosensitive tumors that have hypoxic cells.
B. radiosensitive tumors that are fast growing.
C. radiosensitive tumors that have extensive metastasis.
D. radiosensitive tumors that are slow growing.

A

B.

53
Q

The nurse is conducting cancer risk assessment at a community health fair. A client states that he smokes and drinks considerable amounts of alcohol. The nurse concludes that the client is at risk for which type of cancer? Select all that apply.
A. Oral
B. Laryngeal
C. Testicular
D. Esophageal
E. Colorectal

A

ABD

54
Q

The health care provider is reviewing diagnostic results of a client with suspected ovarian cancer. Select the result that would be of most concern.
A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
B. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
C. CA 125
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

A

C. cA 125

55
Q

child who receives cancer treatment therapies is at risk for which complication later on? Select all that apply.
A. Mental Illness
B. Cardiomyopathy
C. Impaired growth
D. Neurologic dysfunction
E. Hormonal dysfunction

A

BCDE

56
Q

A 42-year-old female client with breast cancer has a tumor that is minimal in size and extension, has minimal regional lymph nodes involved, and has no distant metastasis.
Using the TNM system, the tumor is staged as:
A. T1, N1, and M1
B. T1, N2, and MO
C. TO, N3, and M1
D. T1, N1, and MO

A

D.

57
Q

Which statement represents the primary advantage of targeted cancer therapy?
A. It can be administered on an outpatient basis.
B. It is unlikely to cause nausea and vomiting.
C. It has a shorter course of treatment than other therapies.
D. It uses drugs that selectively attack malignant cancer cells.

A

D.

58
Q

Cancer prognosis has improved most dramatically when treatment plans include which of the following?
A. Pingointed radiation
B. Aggressive chemotherapy
C. Multiple types of treatment
D. Surgical procedures

A

C

59
Q

client asks the nurse how malignant tumors differ from benign tumors. The best response would be that malignant tumors:
A. are slower growing.
B. invade surrounding tissues.
C. are generally smaller in size.
D. are surrounded by a fibrous capsule.

A

B

Nurs 316 (2 decks)

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