Unit 2 Flashcards
nurse is aware of the importance of potassium and sodium for normal physiologic functions of a client. The rapid movement of potassium and sodium in actions is known as:
A. primary active transport.
B. vesicular transport.
C. endocytosis.
D. exocytosis.
A.
Which describes the function of the nucleus?
A. It is basically the site of protein synthesis in the body.
B. It initiates the process of aerobic metabolism.
C. It contains the genetic code for the individual.
D. It is the transformer of cellular energy.
C. Genetic code
When exercising outside on an extremely warm day, the client can feel his heart pounding very rapidly. Thinking in terms of the ability of the aorta to stretch to accommodate more blood circulating during exercise and the warm environment, this is an example of the function of which fibrous protein?
A. Ligaments
B. Elastin
C. Collagen
D. Reticular
Clear Response
B. Elastin
When describing the structures of the cell membrane, how does the pathophysiology instructor identify the various roles/functions this membrane is responsible for? Select all that apply.
A. Acts as a filter so that small water molecules remain within the cell wall
B. Holds and binds receptors for hormones
C. Participates in the conduction of electrical currents in muscle cells
D. Separates intracellular environment from extracellular environment
E. Place where various proteins attach to the lipid bilayer
BCD
Which type of epithelium is found in the lining of blood vessels, lymph nodes, and alveoli of the lungs?
A. Stratified epithelium
B. Simple squamous epithelium
C. Pseudostratified epithelium
D. Transitional epithelium
B.
A nurse practitioner (NP) has been asked to speak with the local high school track team about health, wellness, and nutrition. One of the athletes asks about the differences in the physiology of the energy used in sprinting versus long-distance running. Which response is the best answer?
A. The energy utilization is dependent entirely upon diet and not how it is expended.
B. Sprinters use explosive energy, and distance runners use slow, steady energy.
C. Distance runners utilize ATP generated via anaerobic glycolysis, and sprinters utilize ATP generated via aerobic metabolism.
D. Sprinters utilize ATP generated via anaerobic glycolysis, and distance runners utilize ATP generated via aerobic metabolism.
D
The nurse is assigned to care for the client with primary ciliary dyskinesia. What effect does this syndrome have on the body that the nurse should be aware of? Select all that apply.
A. Hearing impairment
B. Sinus aplasia
C. A reversal of the thorax and abdominal organs
D. Peripheral neuropathy
E. Bronchiolitis
BCE
Which type of cell in tissue produces the extracellular matrix that supports and holds the tissues together
A. Connective tissue
B. Nerve tissue
C. Skeletal tissue
D. Muscle tissue
A. Connective
When cells use energy to move ions against an electrical or chemical gradient, the process is called:
• active transport.
• cotransport.
• passive transport.
• neutral transport.
A. Active
The cells of the client’s epithelial tissue are tightly bound together by specialized junctions. Select the junctions primarily responsible for preventing cell separation.
• Occluding junctions
• Nexus junctions
• Adhering junctions
• Continuous tight juncti
C. Adhering
Which physiological process best describes the removal of microorganisms (such as bacteria), toxins, and cellular debris from the body?
• Phagocytosis
• Meiosis
• Hemolysis
• Anaerobic metabolism
A. Phagocytosis
The nurse is caring for a child newly diagnosed with a lysosomal storage disease. What instruction should the parents receive?
• This condition interferes with cellular respiration.
• Consider genetic testing if you plan to have more children.
• Your child can live a normal life with medications.
• A low-protein diet will help manage your child’s condition.
B. Consider genetic testing if you plan to have more children
The nurse educates a client with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI) about the blood test to evaluate troponin levels. The nurse knows the education has been successful when the client says:
• “This test is specific to components found in my heart muscle.”
“A result below 2 micrograms indicates I have no heart damage.”
• “My lifestyle changes will help this level drop quickly.”
• “An elevated level means I need to increase calcium intake.”
A. This test is specific to components found in my heart muscle
Which stage of a cell’s life cycle is where the preparation of mitosis occurs?
GO
•M
• G1
• s
Clear Response
G1
Which of the following is true about a cell’s cytoplasm? Select all that apply.
• The cell serves as its own digestive system.
The cell manufactures messenger RNA (mRNA), ribosomal RNA (RNA), and transfer RNA (IRNA).
• The cell is where protein is synthesized.
The cell transports substances within the cell.
• The cell contains organelles.
ACDE
Cell signaling systems help with communication through a process that requires a variety of first messengers. Which are examples of first messengers? Select all that apply.
• Protein hormones
• Steroids
■ Neurotansmitters
_ Growth factors
_ Protein kinases
ABCD
The nurse is aware that to maintain homeostasis a client may experience a variety of physiologic processes. The process by which molecules of a solvent tend to pass through a semipermeable membrane from an area of less concentrated solution into a more concentrated one, resulting in equalizing the concentrations on each side of the membrane, is known as:
• Osmosis
• Endocytosis
• Simple diffusion
• Facilitated diffusion
A. Osmosis
Select the type of energy production that occurs in the mitochondria with the Krebs cycle.
• Aerobic metabolism
• Glycolysis
• Glyconeogenesis
• Anaerobic glycolytic pathway
A. Aerobic metabolism
Which type of ribonucleic acid (RNA) structure translates the instructions needed for protein synthesis?
• Polymerase RNA
• Messenger RNA
• Ribosomal RNA
• Transfer RNA
C. Ribosomal RNA
Chapter 3
nurse is caring for four clients. Which client is at greatest risk for high blood levels of lead?
• A 2-year-old anemic child who lives in a turn-of-the-century home
• A 30-year-old office worker with asthma
• A 62-year-old smoker with hypercalcemia
A 17-year-old student who takes a woodworking class
A.
The nurse is caring for a toddler brought into the emergency department for suspected lead toxicity. Which condition or sign is the cardinal indicator of lead toxicity?
• Muscle weakness
• Fever
• Anemia
• Nausea and vomiting
C.
pregnant client reports that she constantly craves tuna sandwiches and eats one every day. The nurse determines that the client is at greatest risk for:
A. high caloric content of the tuna causing an increase in weight gain.
B. developing intolerance to red meat consumption.
C. increased mercury levels that may affect fetal development.
D. low protein values of tuna.
C. Increased mercury levels
Select the statement that best describes apoptosis.
• Unregulated by enzymatic digestion of cell components
• The release of productfof cell death is uncontrolled.
• Responsible for initiating an inflammatory response
• Highly selective in eliminating injured or aged cells
D.
An adult client who recently worked in an overseas metal smelter has developed several symptoms that cause the care team to suspect lead poisoning. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse attribute to this problem? Select all that apply.
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit
C. Elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D. Jaundice
E. Dental caries
BC
client has developed cell atrophy. The most likely cause would be:
• endocrine stimulation.
• ischemia.
• reinnervation.
• overuse.
B. Ischemia
A nurse is caring for a client with a leg wound. When planning care for the client, the nurse considers that the injured cells have impaired flow of substances through the cell membrane as a result of:
A. increased fat load.
B. altered permeability.
C. increased surface receptors.
D. altered glucose use.
B.
What information should be included in the teaching plan of care for the parents of a child diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease?
A. Symptoms are often noted at birth.
B. The disorder involves tissue hyperplasia.
C. The primary organ affected is the heart.
D. The disorder involves accumulation of abnormal lipids.
D.
Which intervention should a nurse stress when teaching clients how to avoid exposure to lead in their environment? Select all that apply.
A. Adult exposure to the same amounts of lead as young children will have more damage to cells.
B. Not everyone has a reaction to lead.
C. Root vegetables can contain more lead than other vegetables.
D. Lead can contaminate soil.
E. Avoid flaking paint.
CDE
The nurse is caring for a client with compensatory hyperplasia. What is the most likely cause of the hyperplasia?
A. Pregnancy
B. Benign prostate enlargement
C. Skin warts
D. Partial hepatectomy
D. Partial hepatectomy
A client has developed dystrophic calcification as a result of macroscopic deposition of calcium salts. The tissue that would be most affected would be:
A. injured tissue.
B. normal tissue.
C. regenerated tissue.
D. dead tissue.
A. Injured tissue
client has just learned that his liver has regenerated following partial removal of the liver due to trauma. This regeneration is due to which physiologic principle?
A. Metaplasia
B. Compensatory hyperplasia
C. Exogenous product accumulation
D. Intracellular hypertrophy
B.
client with diabetes who is diagnosed with a gangrenous right heel ulcer presents with a wound that has no line of demarcation, is spreading rapidly, and has a foul odor. The health care worker recognizes these manifestations as:
• dry gangrene.
• moist gangrene.
• internal gangrene.
• gas gangrene.
B. Moist gangrene
Which statement is true concerning dysplasia? Select all that apply.
A. Dysplasia results in cell growth that produces a variety of specific tissue cell shapes.
B. Dysplasia is seldom reversible.
C. Dysplasia can result from chronic irritation.
D. Dysplasia is known to frequently exist in the respiratory tract.
E. Dysplasia is a strong precursor of cancer.
A.CDE
nurse is teaching a group of older adults about the value of including foods containing antioxidants in their diet. Which statement best captures the rationale underlying the nurse’s advice?
A. Antioxidants prevent the formation of superoxide dismutase.
B. Antioxidants inhibit the actions of reactive oxygen species.
C. Antioxidants react nonspecifically with molecules.
D. Antioxidants prevent the occurrence of cell dysplasia.
B
client is receiving radiation to the abdominal area as part of cancer treatment. Which assessments findings would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply.
A. Pale skin
B. Irreversible skin necrosis
C. Diarrhea
D. Dermatitis (abdomen)
E. Extreme pain
CD
The practitioner examines his client’s foot and observes the great toe to be black and dry. The practitioner explains to the client that the dead tissue is caused by:
A. gas gangrene.
B. liquefaction necrosis.
C. caseous necrosis.
D. dry gangrene.
D. Dry gangrene
The nurse anticipates cellular injury from hypoxia for which cause? Select all that apply.
口
A. Respiratory disease
B. Anemia
C. Lack of atmospheric oxygen
D. Gram-negative bacilli infection
E. Vascular obstruction
ABCE
A client is admitted with an electrical burn and a fractured arm. Which cause related to the burn likely is responsible for the fracture?
A. The client had violent muscle contractions during the electrical injury.
B. The client had a predisposing condition.
C. The client most likely fell after the electrical injury.
D. The client may have fallen into the electrical cord.
A.
The radiologist is reviewing potential types of radiation therapy for a client. Select the type of radiation that directly breaks down chemical bonds in a cell.
A. Sunlight radiation
B. Ultraviolet radiation
C. lonizing radiation
D. Non-ionizing radiation
C.
Chapter 6
The nurse identifies the marker for thyroid cancer as which of the following?
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B. Calcitonin
C. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
D. CA 125
B. Calcitonin
A nurse is providing education to the parents of child, newly diagnosed acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). While discussing “usual” protocols, which adverse reaction to intrathecal combination chemotherapy should the nurse mention?
A. initiation of migraine headaches
B. cognitive impairment
C. stunted growth
D. possible development of seizures
B. Cognition impairment
nurse discussing screening options with a client at risk for colon cancer should include education about which screening methods? Select all that apply.
A. Prostate-specific antigen test
B. Colonoscopy
C. Rectal examination
D. Transrectal ultrasonography
E. Fecal occult blood test
BCE
Select the option that best identifies how adult cancers differ in origin from childhood cancers. Adult cancers originate from:
A. neuronal tissues.
B. embryonic cells.
C. the hematopoietic system.
D. epithelial cells.
D.
A nurse caring for a client with cancer notes that the client also has anemia. What might be the cause of anemia in this client? Select all that apply.
A. Hypoxia
B. Liver fatigue
C. Side effect of chemotherapy
D. Blood loss
E. Impaired red blood cell (RBC) production
CDE
nurse is studying about benign cancers and recognizes which tumors are classified as benign? Select all that apply.
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Glioblastoma
C. Lymphangioma
D. Fibroma
E. Meningeal sarcoma
CD
Because an adolescent has revealed a history of childhood cancer, the nurse should include in the plan of care an assessment for which late-therapy sequelae? Select all that apply.
A. Neurologic dysfunction
B. Hormonal dysfunction
C. Impaired growth
D. Diabetes
E. Asthma
ABC
The nurse is conducting a community class on the importance of early recognition of cancer. Screening mechanisms are available for which cancers? Select all that apply.
A. Breast
B. Pancreatic
C. Cervical
D. Lung
E. Prostate
BCE
A client has been diagnosed with cancer that was a result of dysfunctional apoptosis. The health care provider explains the process to the multidisciplinary client care team.
Select the best explanation.
A. It allows for DNA-damaged cells to survive.
B. It increases the risk for mitochondrial dysfunction.
C. Apoptosis has no impact on malignant development.
D. Cells that go through apoptosis are the only ones that become cancerous.
A.
Which individual’s condition may result in cells leaving the cell cycle and residing in the GO state?
A. client with multiple sclerosis who uses a wheelchair
B. client experiencing stress following job loss
C. client training for a triathlon competition
D. client with financial difficulty interfering with food purchase
D
An oncology nurse recognizes that the cluster of differentiation (CD) antigen is present on leukocytes and is the tumor marker used in which cancers? Select all that apply.
A. Colon cancer
B. Liver cancer
C. Leukemia
D. Breast cancer
E. Lymphoma
CE
middle-aged male who has been experiencing extreme weight loss and appears very cachectic has been diagnosed with a solid tumor of the abdomen. The pathophysiology resulting in the cachexia is caused by which action of the tumor?
A. Impeding digestion
B. Causing anorexia
C. Replacing lean body mass
D. Consuming large amounts of glucose
D.
The oncologist has assessed a client diagnosed with cancer and determined that radiation therapy is the best course of treatment. The therapy will be most effective for:
A. radiosensitive tumors that have hypoxic cells.
B. radiosensitive tumors that are fast growing.
C. radiosensitive tumors that have extensive metastasis.
D. radiosensitive tumors that are slow growing.
B.
The nurse is conducting cancer risk assessment at a community health fair. A client states that he smokes and drinks considerable amounts of alcohol. The nurse concludes that the client is at risk for which type of cancer? Select all that apply.
A. Oral
B. Laryngeal
C. Testicular
D. Esophageal
E. Colorectal
ABD
The health care provider is reviewing diagnostic results of a client with suspected ovarian cancer. Select the result that would be of most concern.
A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
B. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
C. CA 125
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
C. cA 125
child who receives cancer treatment therapies is at risk for which complication later on? Select all that apply.
A. Mental Illness
B. Cardiomyopathy
C. Impaired growth
D. Neurologic dysfunction
E. Hormonal dysfunction
BCDE
A 42-year-old female client with breast cancer has a tumor that is minimal in size and extension, has minimal regional lymph nodes involved, and has no distant metastasis.
Using the TNM system, the tumor is staged as:
A. T1, N1, and M1
B. T1, N2, and MO
C. TO, N3, and M1
D. T1, N1, and MO
D.
Which statement represents the primary advantage of targeted cancer therapy?
A. It can be administered on an outpatient basis.
B. It is unlikely to cause nausea and vomiting.
C. It has a shorter course of treatment than other therapies.
D. It uses drugs that selectively attack malignant cancer cells.
D.
Cancer prognosis has improved most dramatically when treatment plans include which of the following?
A. Pingointed radiation
B. Aggressive chemotherapy
C. Multiple types of treatment
D. Surgical procedures
C
client asks the nurse how malignant tumors differ from benign tumors. The best response would be that malignant tumors:
A. are slower growing.
B. invade surrounding tissues.
C. are generally smaller in size.
D. are surrounded by a fibrous capsule.
B
Some properties of neoplastic cells are the same as the properties of normal cells, including
a. anaplasia.
b. metastasis.
c, mitosis.
d. autonomy.
C. Mitosis
Carcinomas are tumors that originate in
a. mesenchyme.
b. bone marrow.
c. striated muscle.
d. epithelial cells.
D. Epithelial cells
The goal of traditional antineoplastic drug therapy is to
a. reduce the size of abnormal cell mass for immune system destruction.
b. eradicate all of the abnormal cells that have developed.
c. destroy all cells of the originating type.
d. stimulate the immune system to destroy the neoplastic cells.
A. Reduce size of abnormal cells so immune system can destroy it
- Cancer can be a difficult disease to treat because
a. cells no longer progress through the normal cell cycle.
b. cells can fail to develop resistance to drug therapy.
c. cells remain dormant, emerging months to years later.
d. the exact cause of cancer is not known.
C. Cells remain dormant
Antineoplastic drugs destroy human cells. They are most likely to cause cell death among healthy cells that
a. have poor cell membranes.
b. are rapidly tuming over.
c, are in dormant tissues.
d. are across the blood-brain barrier.
B. Are rapidly turning over
Cancer treatment usually occurs in several different treatment phases. In assessing the appropriateness of another round of chemotherapy for a particular patient, the nurse would evaluate which as most important?
a. Hair loss
b. Bone marrow function
c. Anorexia
d. Heart rate
B. Bone marrow function
- It is important to explain to patients that chemotherapeutic agents should not be used during pregnancy because
a. the tendency to cause nausea and vomiting will be increased.
b. of potential serious adverse effects on the rapidly multiplying cells of the fetus.
c. bone marrow toxicity could alter hormone levels.
d. patients may be weakened by the drug regimen.
B. Potential serious effects in rapidly multiplying cells of fetus
Cancer drugs are given in combination and over a period of time because it is difficult to affect
a. slowly growing cells.
b. cells in the dormant phase of the cell cycle.
c. cells that multiply rapidly and go through the cell cycle quickly.
d. cells that have moved from their normal site in the body.
C. Cells that multiply rapidly and go through cell cycle quickly.
Chapter 15 - pharmacology
Antibodies
a. are carbohydrates.
b. are secreted by activated T cells.
c. are not found in circulating gamma globulins.
d. are effective only against specific antigens.
D. Are only effective against specific antigens
B and T cells are similar in that they both
a. secrete antibodies.
b. play important roles in the immune response.
c. are activated in the thymus gland.
d. release cytotoxins to destroy cells.
B. Play important roles
Which of the following is not a cytokine?
a. Interleukin-2
b. Antibody
c. Tumor necrosis factor
d. Interferon
A. Interleukin-2
As part of the nonspecific defense against infection,
a. blood flow and vascular permeability to proteins increase throughout the circulatory system.
b. particles in the respiratory tract are engulfed by phagocytes.
c. B cells are released from the bone marrow.
d. neutrophils release lysosomes, heparin, and kininogen into the extracellular fluid.
B. Particles in respiratory tract are engulfed by phagocytes
B cells respond to an initial antigen challenge by
A. Reducing in size
b. immediately producing antigen-specific antibodies.
c. producing a large number of cells that are unlike the original B cell.
d. producing new cells that become plasma cells and memory cells.
D. Producing new plasma and memory cells
Treating fevers remains a controversial subject because higher temperatures
a. make people feel ill.
b. act as catalysts to many of the body’s chemical reactions.
c. can suppress the body’s normal metabolism.
d. alter the body’s hormone levels, particularly that of progesterone.
B. Act as catalysts to many of the body’s chemical reactions
- After describing the function of T cells, the nurse would identify the need for additional teaching if the patient stated that T cells become which type of cells?
a. Cytotoxic T cells
b. Helper 1 cells
c. Suppressor T cells
d. Antibody-secreting T cells
D. Antibody secreting t-cells
- Interleukins are
a. chemicals released when a virus enters a cell.
b. chemicals secreted by activated leukocytes.
c. part of the kinin system.
d. activated by arachidonic acid.
B. Chemicals secreted by activated leukocytes
Which of the following statements could be used to describe a neutrophil?
a. They possess the property of phagocytosis.
b. When activated, they release a pyrogen that causes fever.
c. When the body is injured, they are produced rapidly and in large numbers.
d. They are not capable of movement outside the circulatory system.
e. They are most often seen in response to an allergic reaction.
f. They float around in the blood and release chemicals in response to injury.
ABC
- The inflammatory response is activated whenever cell injury occurs. An inflammatory response would involve which activities?
a. Activation of Hageman factor
b. Vasodilation in the area of the injury
c. Generalized edema and tumor development
d. Changes in capillary permeability to allow proteins to leak out of the capillaries
e. Activation of complement proteins
f. Production of interferon
ABD
Chapter 16
1. A drug could be classified as an analgesic if it
a. reduces fever.
b. reduces swelling.
c. reduces redness.
d. reduces pain.
D. Reduces pain
- An antipyretic is a drug that can
a. block pain.
b. block swelling.
c. block fever.
d. block inflammation.
C. Block fever
nurse might not see a salicylate used as an antiinflammatory if a drug was needed for its
d. dilupyreue properties.
b. analgesic properties.
c. OTC availability.
d. parenteral availability.
D. Parenteral availability
- The nonsteroidal NSAIDs affect the COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes. By blocking COX-2 enzymes, the NSAIDs block inflammation and the signs and symptoms of inflammation at the site of injury or trauma. By blocking COX-1 enzymes, these drugs block
a. fever regulation.
b. prostaglandins that protect the stomach lining.
c. swelling in the periphery.
d. liver function.
B. Prostaglandins that protect the stomach lining
Your patient has been receiving ibuprofen for many years to relieve the pain of osteoarthritis. Assessment of the patient should include
a. an electrocardiogram.
b. CBC with differential.
c. respiratory auscultation.
d. renal evaluation.
D. Renal evaluation
- Patients taking NSAIDs should be taught to avoid the use of OTC medications without checking with their prescriber because
a. many of the OTC preparations contain NSAIDs, and inadvertent toxicity could occur.
b. no one should take more than one type of pain reliever at a time.
c. increased Gl upset could occur.
d. there is a risk of Reye’s syndrome.
A.
Chronic or excessive activity by the inflammatory response can lead to
a. loss of white blood cells.
b. coagulation problems.
c. release of lysosomal enzymes and tissue destruction.
d. adrenal suppression.
C. Release of lysosomal enzymes and tissue destruction
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is being administered adalimumab. Based on how the medication is administered, what should the nurse be sure to assess?
a. The vein for thrombophlebitis
b. The rectum for lesions
c. The eyes for redness
d. The skin for redness
D. The skin for redness
Select all that apply.
A client is being treated for gout with allopurinol. The nurse should teach the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
a. Stomatitis
b. Insomnia
c. Nausea
d. Rash
e. Increased gout pain
f. Fever
CDE
The nurse invites an order for oxaprozin (Daypro) for the treatment of arthritis. Before giving it, the nurse would assess for what
Precautions or contraindications?
a. Headaches
b. Dysmenorrhea
c. Active peptic ulcer disease
d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
e. Renal impairment
f. Bleeding disorders
CEF
