Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Chemotherapeutic agents are drugs that
    a. are used only to treat cancers.
    b. replace normal body chemicals that are missing because of disease.
    c. interfere with foreign cell functioning causing cell death, such as invading microorganisms or neoplasms.
    d. stimulate the normal functioning of a cell.
A

C. Interfere with foreign cell functioning

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2
Q
  1. Receptor sites
    a. are a normal part of enzyme substrates.
    b. are protein areas on cell membranes that react with specific chemicals.
    c. can usually be stimulated by many different chemicals.
    d. are responsible for all drug effects in the body.
A

B. Are protein areas on cell membranes that react with specific chemicals

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3
Q
  1. Selective toxicity is the ability of a drug to
    a. seek out a specific bacterial species or microorganism.
    b. cause only specific adverse effects.
    c. cause fetal damage.
    d. attack only those systems found in foreign or abnormal cell
A

D. Attack only those systems found in foreign or abnormal cell

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4
Q
  1. When trying to determine why the desired therapeutic effect is not geing seen with an oral drug, the nurse should consider
    a. the blood flow to muscle beds.
    b. food altering the makeup of gastric juices.
    c. the weight of the patient.
    d. the temperature of the peripheral environment.
A

B. Food altering the makeup of gastric juices

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5
Q
  1. Much of the biotransformation that occurs when a drug is taken occurs as part of the
    a. protein-binding effect of the drug.
    b. functioning of the renal system.
    c. first-pass effect through the liver.
    d. distribution of the drug to the reactive tissues.
A

C. First pass through the liver

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6
Q
  1. The half-life of a drug
    a. is determined by a balance of all pharmacokinetic processes.
    b. is a constant factor for all drugs taken by a patient.
    c. is only influenced by the fat distribution of the patient.
    d. can be calculated with the use of a body surface nomogram.
A

A. Is determined by the balance of all pharmacokinetic processes

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7
Q

J.B. has Parkinson disease that has been controlled for several years with levodopa. After they begin a health food regimen with lots of vitamin develop a rapid heart rate, hypertension, and anxiety. The nurse investigating the problem discovers that vitamin B6 can speed the conversior periphery, leading to these problems. The nurse would consider this problem
a. a drug-laboratory test interaction.
b. a drug-drug interaction.
c. an accumulation effect.
d. a sensitivity reaction.

A

A drug drug interaction

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8
Q

When reviewing a drug to be given, the nurse notes that the drug is excreted in the urine. What points should be included in the nurse’s assessment of the patient?
a. The patient’s liver function tests
b. The patient’s bladder tone
c. The patient’s renal function tests
d. The patient’s fluid intake
e. Other drugs being taken that could affect the kidney
f. The patient’s intake and output for the day
SA

A

CDE

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9
Q
  1. When considering the pharmacokinetics of a drug, what points would the nurse need to consider?
    a. How the drug will be absorbed
    b. The way the drug affects the body
    c. Receptor site activation and suppression
    d. How the drug will be excreted
    e. How the drug will be metabolized
    f. The half-life of the drug
    SA
A

A, D, E, F

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10
Q
  1. An example of a drug allergy is
    a. dry mouth occurring with use of an antihistamine.
    b. increased urination occurring with use of a thiazide diuretic.
    c. breathing difficulty after an injection of penicillin.
    d. urinary retention associated with atropine use.
A

C

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11
Q
  1. A patient taking glyburide (an antidiabetic drug) has their morning dose and then does not have a chance to eat for several hours. An adverse effect that might be expected from this would be
    a. a teratogenic effect.
    b. a skin rash.
    c. an anticholinergic effect.
    d. hypoglycemia.
A

D. Hypoglycemia

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12
Q
  1. A patient with a severe infection is given gentamicin, the only antibiotic shown to be effective in culture and sensitivity tests. A few hours after the drug is started intravenously, the patient becomes very restless and develops edema. Blood tests reveal abnormal electrolytes and elevated blood urea nitrogen. This reaction was most likely caused by
    a. an anaphylactic reaction.
    b, renal toxicity associated with gentamicin.
    c. superinfection related to the antibiotic.
    d. hypoglycemia.
A

D. Hypoglycemia

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13
Q

Patients receiving antineoplastic drugs that disrupt cell function often have adverse effects involving cells that turn over rapidly in the body. These cells include ovarian cells.
b. liver cells.
c. cardiac cells.
d. bone marrow cells.

A

D. Bone marrow cells

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14
Q
  1. A patient has had repeated bouts of bronchitis throughout the fall and has been taking antibiotics. They call the clinic with complaints of vaginal pain and itching. When they are seen, it is discovered that they have developed a yeast infection. You understand that
    a. the patient’s bronchitis has moved to the vaginal area.
    b. the patient has developed a superinfection, because the antibiotics kill bacteria that normally provide protection.
    c. the patient probably has developed a sexually transmitted disease.
    d. the patient will need to take even more antibiotics to freat this new infection.
A

B. Superinfection

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15
Q
  1. Knowing that a patient is taking a loop diuretic and is at risk for developing hypokalemia, the nurse would assess the patient for
    a. hypertension, headache, and cold and clammy skin.
    b. decreased urinary output and yellowing of the sclera.
    c. weak pulse, low blood pressure, and muscle cramping.
    d. diarrhea and flatulence.
A

C. Weak pulse, low BP and muscle cramping

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16
Q

(SATA) A patient is taking a drug that is known to be toxic to the liver. The patient is being discharged to home. What teaching points related to liver toxicity and the drug should the nurse teach the patient to report to the physician?
a. Fever; changes in the color of urine
b. Changes in the color of stool; malaise Rapid, deep respirations; increased sweating
d. Dizziness; drowsiness; dry mouth
e. Rash; black or hairy tongue; white spots in the mouth or throat
F. Yellowing of the skin or whites of the eyes

A

A, B, F

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17
Q

People who are pregnant should be advised of the potential risk to the fetus any time they take a drug during pregnancy. What fetal problems can be related to drug exposure in utero?
a. Fetal death
b. Nervous system disruption
c. Skeletal and limb abnormalities
d. Cardiac defects
e. Low-set ears
f. Deafness

A

All of the above

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18
Q

client is experiencing a reaction to the penicillin injection that the nurse administered approximately ½ hour ago. The nurse is concerned that it might be an anaphylactic reaction.
What signs and symptoms would validate the nurse’s suspicion?
a. Rapid heart rate
b. Diaphoresis
c. Constricted pupils
d. Hypotension
e. Rash
f. Client report of a panicky feeling

A

A, B, E, F

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19
Q

client is experiencing a serum sickness reaction (type Ill allergy) to a recent rubella vaccination. Which of the following interventions would be appropriate when caring for this client?
a. Administration of epinephrine
b. Cool environment
c. Positioning to provide comfort
d. Ice to joints as needed
e. Administration of anti-inflammatory agents
f. Administration of todical corticosteroids

A

B, C, D, E

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20
Q

Clinical pharmacology is the study of
a. the biological effects of chemicals.
b. drugs used to treat, prevent, or diagnose disease.
c. plant components that can be used as medicines.
d. binders and other vehicles for delivering medication.

A

A.

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21
Q
  1. Phase I drug studies involve
    a. testing chemicals either in vitro or in vivo.
    b. patients with the disease the drug is designed to treat.
    c. mass marketing surveys of drug effects in large numbers of people.
    d. healthy human volunteers who are often paid for their participation.
A

D.

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22
Q
  1. The generic name of a drug is
    a. the name assigned to the drug by the pharmaceutical company developing it.
    b. the chemical name of the drug based on its chemical structure.
    c. the original name assigned to the drug at the beginning of the evaluation process.
    d. the name that is often used in advertising campaigns.
A

A.

23
Q
  1. An orphan drug is a drug that
    a. has failed to go through the approval process.
    b. is available in a foreign country but not in this country.
    c. has been tested but is not considered to be financially viable without financial incentives.
    d. is available without a prescription.
A

C.

24
Q
  1. The FDA pregnancy categories were used
    a. to indicate a drug’s potential or actual teratogenic effects.
    b. for research purposes only.
    c. to list drugs that are more likely to have addicting properties.
    d. to follow regulations set by the DEA.
A
25
Q
  1. The storing, prescribing, and distributing of controlled substances drugs that are more apt to be addictive are monitored by
    a. the Food and Drug Administration.
    b. the Department of Commerce.
    c. the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
    d. the Drug Enforcement Agency.
A

A. fDa

26
Q

Which of the following are not regulated by the FDA?
a. over-the-counter medications.
b. prescription medications from Canada. c, dietary supplements.
d. none of the above.

A
27
Q
  1. A patient has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for several years, but when picking up the prescription this month found that the tablets looked different and became concerned. The nurse, checking with the pharmacist, found that fluoxetine had just become available in the generic form and the prescription had been filled with the generic product. The nurse should tell the patient
    a, that for most people the generic form will work similarly to the brand name medication.
    b. that generic drugs are available without a prescription and they are just as safe as the brand name medication.
    c. that the law requires that prescriptions be filled with the generic form if available to cut down the cost of medications unless a prescriber writes the insurance company.
    d. that the pharmacist filled the prescription with the wrong drug and it should be returned to the pharmacy for a refund.
A

C

28
Q

1.
2.
When teaching a patient about OTC drugs, which points should the nurse include?
a. These drugs are very safe and can be used freely to relieve your complaints.
b. These compounds are called drugs, but they aren’t really drugs.
c. Many of these drugs were once prescription drugs but are now thought to be safe for use without a prescription when used as directed.
d. Reading the label of these drugs is very important; the name of the active ingredient is prominent; you should always check the ingredient name.
e. It is important to read the label and to see what the recommended dose of the drug is; some of these drugs can cause serious problems if too much of the drug is taken.
f. It is important to report the use of any OTC drug to your health care provider because many of them can interact with drugs that might be prescribed for you.
(SATA)

A

CDEF

29
Q

patient asks what generic drugs are and if they should be using them to treat his inction. Which of the following statements should be included in the nurse’s explanation?
a. A generic drug is a drug that is sold by the name of the ingredient, not the brand name.
b. Generic drugs are always the best drugs to use because they are never any different from the familiar brand names.
c. Generic drugs are not available until the patent expires on a specific drug.
d. Generic drugs are usually cheaper than the well-known brand names, and some insurance companies require that you receive the generic drug if one is available.
e. Generic drugs are forms of a drug that are available over the counter and do not require a prescription.
f. Your physician may want you to have the brand name of a drug, not the generic form, and DAW will be on your prescription form.
g. Generic drugs are less likely to cause adverse effects than brand name drugs.(SATA)

A

DF A C

30
Q

Drugs can be advertised in the mass media only if
a. the FDA indication is clearly stated.
b. the actual use is never stated.
c. adverse effects and precautions are stated if the use is stated.
d. all adverse effects are clearly stated.

A

C. Adverse effects

31
Q
  1. Herbal treatments and alternative therapies
    a. are considered drugs and regulated by the FDA.
    b. are considered dietary supplements and are not strictly regulated by the FDA.
    c. have no restrictions on claims and advertising.
    d. contain no drugs, only natural substances.
A

B. Not regulated by FDa

32
Q

Over-the-counter drugs are drugs that are
a. deemed to be safe when used as directed.
b. harmless to the public.
c. too old to be tested.
d. cheaper to use than prescription drugs.

A

A. Safe when directed

33
Q

The home health care industry has grown because
a. there is a shortage of hospital beds.
b. patients feel safer at home and prefer to be cared for at home.
c. patients are going home from the hospital and becoming responsible for their own care sooner than in the past.
d. the nursing shortage makes it difficult to care for patients in hospitals.

A

C.

34
Q

The cost of drug therapy is a major consideration in most areas because
a. generic drugs are always cheaper.
b. the high cost of drugs combined with more fixed-income consumers puts constraints on drug use.
c. pharmacies usually carry only one drug from each class.
d. patients like to shop around and get the best drug for their money.

A

B.

35
Q

Which is a strategy that can help to reduce mortality from opioid overdose?
a. Ensuring access to reversal agents when opioids are prescribed
b. Increasing toxicology screening at every patient visit
c. Increasing availability of opioids by making them over-the-counter medications
d. Teaching patients about how to dispose of opioid medications

A
36
Q
  1. When taking a health history, the nurse should include specific questions about the use of OTC drugs and alternative therapies. This is an important aspect of the health history because
    a. many insurance policies cover these drugs.
    b. patients should be reprimanded about the use of these products.
    c. patients often do not consider them to be drugs and do not report their use.
    d. patients should never use these products when taking prescription drugs. e, these products can mask or alter presenting signs and symptoms.
    I. many of these products interact with prescription drugs.
A
37
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient who prefers to take herbal medications instead of prescription medications. Which statement would be correct to tell the patient?
a. “Herbal medications do not interact with prescription medications.”
b. “The Food and Drug Administration does not regulate herbal medications as strictly as prescription medications.”
c. “Herbal supplements have fewer side effects than prescription medications.”
d. “Herbal supplements may have benefits that come from the placebo effect.”
e. “Herbal supplements are regulated like over-the-counter medications.”

A
38
Q

Clindamycin 300 mg IVPB
Dose on hand:
Clindamycin 300 mg in 50 mL DsW to infuse in 30 min
Question:

How many mL/hr does the nurse administer the clindamycin?

A

100ml/hr

39
Q

D;LR @ 75 mL/hr
Tubing drop factor:
15 gtts/mL.
Question:
How many gtts/min does the nurse administer the IV fluids? Round your answer to the nearest whole number.

A

19

15gtts=1ml
15gtts x 75 = 1125/60 mins

40
Q

D-W @ 120 mL/hr
Tubing drop factor:
20 gtts/mL
Question:

How many gtts/min does the nurse administer the IV fluids?

A

120 x 20 = 2400/60= 40
40gtts/min

41
Q

Drip rate:
D,W infusing @ 18 gtts/min
Tubing drop factor:
20 gtts/mL

Question:
At how many mL/hr are the IV fluids infusing?

A

18 x 60 (min/hr) =1080/20ggts/ml
=54

42
Q

Order:
Albumin 5%
Dose on hand:
50 ml Albumin 5% to infuse in 15 min
Tubing drop factor:
10 gtts/mL
Question:
How many gtts/min does the nurse administer the IV fluids? Round your answer to the nearest whole number.

A

50ml/15min =3.33 x 10gtt/ml
=33

43
Q

Zidovudine 100 mg IVPB
Dose on hand:
Zidovudine 100 mg in 150 mL NS to infuse in 2 hrs
Tubing drop factor:
60 gtts/mL
Question:
How many gtts/min does the nurse administer the IV fluids?

A

150/120 (minutes) =1.25 x 60= 75

44
Q

Clinical pharmacology is the study of
a. the biological effects of chemicals.
b. drugs used to treat, prevent, or diagnose disease.
c. plant components that can be used as medicines.
d. binders and other vehicles for delivering medication.

A

A. The biological effects of chemicals

45
Q

Phase I drug studies involve
a. testing chemicals either in vitro or in vivo.
b. patients with the disease the drug is designed to treat.
c. mass marketing surveys of dig effects in large numbers of people.
d. healthy human volunteers who are often paid for their participation.

A

D. Healthy human volunteers

46
Q
  1. The generic name of a drug is
    a. the name assigned to the drug by the pharmaceutical company developing it.
    b. the chemical name of the drug based on its chemical structure.
    c. the original name assigned to the drug at the beginning of the evaluation process.
    d. the name that is often used in advertising campaigns.
A

C. The original name

47
Q

An orphan drug is a drug that
a. has failed to go through the approval process.
b. is available in a foreign country but not in this country.
c. has been tested but is not considered to be financially viable without financial incentives.
d. is available without a prescription.

A

C. Has been tested but not financially viable

48
Q
  1. The FDA pregnancy categories were used
    a. to indicate a drug’s potential or actual teratogenic effects.
    b. for research purposes only.
    c. to list drugs that are more likely to have addicting properties.
    d. to follow regulations set by the DEA.
A

A. To indicate a drugs potential or actual teratogenic effects

49
Q

The storing, prescribing, and distributing of controlled substances drugs that are more apt to be addictive are monitored by
a. the Food and Drug Administration.
b. the Department of Commerce.
c. the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
d. the Drug Enforcement Agency.

A

A. The FDA

50
Q
  1. Which of the following are not regulated by the FDA?
    a. over-the-counter medications.
    b. prescription medications from Canada.
    c. dietary supplements.
    d. none of the above.
A
51
Q
  1. A patient has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for several years, but when picking up the prescription this month found that the tablets looked different and beca nurse, checking with the pharmacist, found that fluoxetine had just become available in the generic form and the prescription had been filled with the generic should tell the patient
    a. that for most people the generic form will work similarly to the brand name medication.
    b. that generic drugs are available without a prescription and they are just as safe as the brand name medication.
    c. that the law requires that prescriptions be filled with the generic form if available to cut down the cost of medications unless a prescriber writes the insurance c
    d. that the pharmacist filled the prescription with the wrong drug and it should be returned to the pharmacy for a refund.
A

C. Generic form to cut down on costs

52
Q
  1. When teaching a patient about OTC drugs, which points shoult the nurse include?
    a. These drugs are very safe and can be used freely to relieve your complaints.
    b. These compounds are called drugs, but they aren’t really drugs.
    c. Many of these drugs were once prescription drugs but are now thought to be safe for use without a prescription when used as directed.
    d. Reading the label of these drugs is very important; the name of the active ingredient is prominent; you should always check the ingredient name.
    e. It is important to read the label and to see what the recommended dose of the drug is; some of these drugs can cause serious problems if too much of the drug is taken.
    f. It is important to report the use of any OTC drug to your health care provider because many of them can interact with drugs that might be prescribed for you.
A

CDEF

53
Q

A patient asks what generic drugs are and if they should be using them to treat his infection. Which of the following statements should be included in the nurse’s explanation?
a. A generic drug is a drug that is sold by the name of the ingredient, not the brand name.
b. Generic drugs are always the best drugs to use because they are never any different from the familiar brand names.
c. Generic drugs are not available until the patent expires on a specific drug.
d. Generic drugs are usually cheaper than the well-known brand names, and some insurance companies require that you receive the generic drug if one is available.
e. Generic drugs are forms of a drug that are available over the counter and do not require a prescription.
f. Your physician may want you to have the brand name of a drug, not the generic form, and DAW will be on your prescription form.
g. Generic drugs are less likely to cause adverse effects than brand name drugs.

A

A, C, D, F