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PBS > Unit 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Health care provider who practices either in collaboration with or under supervision of a physician.
Ex: Nurse practitioner
Clinical nurse specialist
Physician Assistant PA

A

Non-Physical Practitioner

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2
Q

Non-Physical Practitioner

A

Health care provider who practices either in collaboration with or under supervision of a physician.
Ex: Nurse practitioner
Clinical nurse specialist
Physician Assistant PA

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3
Q

Primary Care Physician (PCP)

A

A specialist physician trained to work in the front line of a healthcare system and provide care for any health problems that a patient may have.

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4
Q

A specialist physician trained to work in the front line of a healthcare system and provide care for any health problems that a patient may have.

A

Primary Care Physician (PCP)

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5
Q

Pediatrician

A

A specialist physician who provides medical care to infants, children and adolescents.

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6
Q

A specialist physician who provides medical care to infants, children and adolescents.

A

Pediatrician

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7
Q

Medical History

A

Record of past and current health (habits, lifestyle and family history of illness)

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8
Q

Record of past and current health (habits, lifestyle and family history of illness)

A

Medical History

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9
Q

Chief Complaint

A

The patient’s description of what they feel; the main health problem

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10
Q

The patient’s description of what they feel; the main health problem

A

Chief Complaint

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11
Q

Physical Signs

A

Observable signs of illness (rash, coughing or fever)

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12
Q

Observable signs of illness (rash, coughing or fever)

A

Physical Signs

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13
Q

Symptoms

A

Any subjective evidence of disease a patient perceives, such as aches, nausea, or fatigue.

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14
Q

These allow the healthcare provider to narrow down the possible conditions that may be affecting the patient and then run tests to make a diagnosis.

A

Symptoms

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15
Q

Diagnosis

A

The process of determining which disease or condition explains a person’s symptoms

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16
Q

The process of determining which disease or condition explains a person’s symptoms

A

Diagnosis

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17
Q

How long does a doctor have on average to make a diagnosis?

A

15-20 minutes

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18
Q

outward behavior or bearing

A

Demeanor

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19
Q

Four ways to effectively interview a patient

A
  1. Rapport: conversation friendly
  2. Make eye contact
  3. Listen: question one at a time
  4. Respectful, openminded and no assumptions
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20
Q

Tact

A

Discretion and sensitivity in dealing with others.

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21
Q

Empathy

A

The ability to understand and share the feelings or another person

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22
Q

Explain what vital signs are using etiology in your answer

A

basic bodily functions such as pulse rate, temperature, respirations, and blood pressure (BP).

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23
Q

tool that allows one to hear sounds more clearly

A

Stethoscope

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24
Q

measures weight

A

Scale

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25
Q

measures the force of blood moving through the vessels

A

Sphygmomanometer

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26
Q

Measures how tall a person is from top of the head to the bottom of the feet

A

tape measure

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27
Q

measures the amount of oxygen in the blood

A

pulse oximeter

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28
Q

measures degree of body heat

A

Therometer

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29
Q

number of heart beats per minute

A

pulse

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30
Q

ratio of height to weight

A

Body Mass Index (BMI)

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31
Q

used to measure the number of breaths or beats per minute

A

Timer

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32
Q

Abbreviation
LPN

A

Licensed Practical Nurse

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33
Q

Abbreviation
RN

A

Registered Nurse

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34
Q

Abbreviation
NP

A

Nurse Practitioner

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35
Q

Training LPN

A

High School diploma; graduation from LPN program

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36
Q

Training RN

A

Bachelor of Science of Nursing (BSN)

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37
Q

Training NP

A

Bachelors and Masters or Doctorate beyond RN

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38
Q

Duties LPN (2)

A

Records Patient history
Takes vitals
gives injections

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39
Q

Duties RN (5)

A

Maintain records
gives meds
orders and interpret test
start IVs
educate patients

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40
Q

Duties NP (3)

A

Collects samples
create treatment plans
documents symptoms

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41
Q

Who does LPN work under?

A

RN

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42
Q

Who is the medical writer and editor

A

RN

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43
Q

Who provides many of the same services that a doctor provides?

A

NP

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44
Q

LPN average pay

A

$43,000-$64,000

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45
Q

RN average pay

A

$42,000-$120,000

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46
Q

NP average pay

A

$72,000-130,000

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47
Q

How is an eye exam done, and what tool/instrument is used?

A

External anatomy examined
hand held device: ophthalmoscope (look inside the eye)

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48
Q

Hand held tool/instrument to look inside the eye

A

Ophthalmoscope

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49
Q

Any markings or deformity of the cornea which can signal injury

A

Corneal Abrasion

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50
Q

Corneal Abrasion

A

Any markings or deformity of the cornea which can signal injury

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51
Q

a change in color or appearance of the retina which can signal disease

A

can be caused by many disease, but Retinitis Pigmentosa (RP) a genetic disease can lead to visual changes

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52
Q

Otoscope

A

a tool/instrument with light and magnifying glass to look inside the ear

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53
Q

a tool/instrument with light and magnifying glass to look inside the ear

A

Otoscope

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54
Q

Acute otitis media

A

Infection and inflammation of the middle ear causing pain and diminished hearing

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55
Q

Infection and inflammation of the middle ear causing pain and diminished hearing

A

Acute otitis media

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56
Q

On exam, redness or bulging of the eardrum often accompanied by fluid behind the eardrum signaling infection (Objective signs of what)

A

Acute otitis media

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57
Q

What tool/instrument is used to examine the nasal passages the doctor has the patient say “ahh” to observe the anatomy of the throat.

A

Otoscope

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58
Q

Symptoms of Strep Throat

A

Sever sore throat
Painful Swallowing
Red and inflamed tonsils and uvula
Fever
Body aches
Swollen lymph nodes in the neck

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59
Q

Sever sore throat
Painful Swallowing
Red and inflamed tonsils and uvula
Fever
Body aches
Swollen lymph nodes in the neck

A

Strep Throat

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60
Q

one symptom is characteristic white patches of infected tissue on the tonsil surface

A

Strep Throat

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61
Q

Inflammation of the tonsils caused by viral or bacterial infection

A

Tonsilitis

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62
Q

Has similar symptoms to Strep Throat

A

Tonsilitis

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63
Q

Heart: consistent rhythm and a good strong sound

A

Normal heart sounds

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64
Q

Sounds of a heart murmur

A

Wooshing sound either at the beginning or end

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65
Q

Wooshing sound either at the beginning or end

A

Heart Murmur

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66
Q

Woosh then a bum bum and sounds weak

A

Mitral Valve Regurgitation

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67
Q

Sound of Mitral Valve Regurgitation

A

Whoosh then bum bum and sounds weak

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68
Q

Sound of normal/clear lungs

A

Clear woosh of air with each inhalation and exhalation

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69
Q

Describe Wheezing

A

Whistling sound

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70
Q

What causes wheezing

A

Mucus narrowing the airways

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71
Q

Wheezing is associated with what disorder

A

Asthma

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72
Q

What do crackles/Rales sound like?

A

Short and intermittent clicking, rattling or popping sounds

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73
Q

Short and intermittent clicking, rattling or popping sounds

A

Crackles/Rales

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74
Q

What causes Crackles/Rales

A

Fluid fills alveoli

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75
Q

Associated with asthma

A

Mucous in the airways

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76
Q

Sound associated with pneumonia

A

Crackles/Rales

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77
Q

Associated with pneumonia

A

Fluid filled alveoli

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78
Q

harsh shrill sound similar to wheezing

A

Stridor

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79
Q

What does Stridor sound like

A

Harsh shrill sound similar to wheezing

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80
Q

What is diagnosis associated with a partially blocked windpipe (trachea)

A

stridor

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81
Q

Associated with Stridor

A

Allergic reaction

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82
Q

Sound of Rhonchi

A

Low pitched rumbling, gurgling usually goes away briefly after coughing

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83
Q

Low pitched rumbling, gurgling usually goes away briefly after coughing

A

Rhonchi

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84
Q

What happens in the lungs with rhonchi

A

Bronchi or bronchioles narrow

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85
Q

Associated with Rhonchi

A

Bronchiectasis

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86
Q

Sound associated with Bronchiectasis

A

Rhonchi

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87
Q

Scientific name for White Blood Cells (WBC)

A

Leukocytes

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88
Q

Scientific name for platelets

A

Thrombocytes

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89
Q

Common name for Leukocytes

A

White Blood Cells (WBC)

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90
Q

Common name for thrombocytes

A

Platelets

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91
Q

Scientific name for Red Blood Cells (RBC)

A

Erythrocytes

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92
Q

Common name for Erythrocytes

A

Red Blood Cells (RBC)

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93
Q

The liquid part of blood

A

plasma

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94
Q

Cells that active the immune response

A

White Blood Cells (WBC)
Leukocytes

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95
Q

Cells that carry oxygen

A

Red blood cells (RBC)

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96
Q

Role of the leukocytes

A

Active the immune response

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97
Q

Role of the Erythrocytes

A

Carries oxygen

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98
Q

Two Careers related to blood

A

Phlebotomist
Hematologist

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99
Q

Phlebotomist

A

Medical professional that is trained to draw blood from patients who require testing or is donating blood

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100
Q

Medical professional that is trained to draw blood from patients who require testing or is donating blood

A

Phlebotomist

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101
Q

Hematologist

A

Doctor that specializes in the research, diagnosis, treatment and prevention of blood disorders

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102
Q

Doctor that specializes in the research, diagnosis, treatment and prevention of blood disorders

A

Hematologist

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103
Q

Where do hematologist work

A

Hospitals, labs, clinics or blood bank

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104
Q

What vessels are used for blood draws and why

A

Veins because they are more superficial than arteries

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105
Q

Which vein is the most commonly used vein for a blood draw

A

Median cubital vein commonly called the antecubital vein

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106
Q

Why is the median cubital vein (antecubital vein) most commonly used for blood draws

A

It is extremely large and is often easily seen and felt

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107
Q

what is plasma

A

liquid part of the blood

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108
Q

Three thing to do before blood draw to make the patient feel comfortable

A

Greet the patient and introduce yourself
Confirm the patient’s name and test
Allergies and medications

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109
Q

T/F Remove the tourniquet AFTER you have removed the needle from the arm?

A

False

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110
Q

What are bloodborne pathogens?

A

Disease one can get from the blood

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111
Q

What are PPEs

A

Things phlebotomist uses to protect themselves from bloodborne pathogens such as gloves and face shields.

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112
Q

When/why is a complete blood count (CBC) ran?

A

It’s part of a routine exam or if there are signs or symptoms that may indicate a potential condition impacting blood cells.

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113
Q

Test ran as part of a routine exam or if there are signs or symptoms that may indicate a potential condition impacting blood cells

A

complete blood count (CBC)

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114
Q

Five components measured in a CBC

A

White Blood Cells (WBC)
Red Blood Cells (RBC)
Hemoglobin (Hgb)
Hematocrit (HCT)
Platelets

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115
Q

Cells that fight infection

A

WBC

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116
Q

Cells that carry oxygen from the lungs and deliver it throughout the body

A

RBC

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117
Q

This allows RBCs to pick up oxygen from the air and deliver it to the body

A

Hemoglobin (Hgb)

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118
Q

Abbreviation for Hemoglobin

A

Hgb

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119
Q

Abbreviation for hematocrit

A

HCT

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120
Q

What is the measure of proportion of RBCs to plasma

A

Hematocrit (HCT)

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121
Q

Bits of cells that help with clotting

A

Platelets

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122
Q

see chart of normal range for CBC

A
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123
Q

What does it mean if low WBC count

A

Viral infection is preventing bone marrow from making new WBCs

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124
Q

What cell is involved when one has a viral infection preventing bone marrow from making new cells

A

WBCs

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125
Q

Diagnosis with low RBC count

A

Anemia causing tiredness, shortness of breath and weakness

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126
Q

What cell is involved with anemia causing tiredness, shortness of breath and weakness

A

RBCs

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127
Q

Low Hemoglobin (Hgb) is

A

Not enough healthy cells carrying oxygen to the body’s tissues

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128
Q

What is low if there are not enough healthy cells carrying oxygen to the body’s tissues

A

Hemoglobin (Hgb)

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129
Q

Five common reasons for low Hematocrit (HCT)

A

Low levels of RBCs (anemia)
Loss of Blood
Iron deficiency
Bone marrow problems such as Sickle Cell

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130
Q

What part of blood is low
Low RBCs (anemia)
Loss of Blood
Iron Deficiency
Bone marrow problems

A

Hematocrit (HCT)

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131
Q

Low platelet count results in

A

thrombocytopenia: trouble clotting

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132
Q

Thrombocytopenia: trouble clotting is the result of

A

low platelet count

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133
Q

Symptom of Thrombocytopenia

A

trouble clotting blood

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134
Q

Three causes of high WBC

A

Infection
Inflammation
Leukemia

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135
Q

What cell is involved in
Infection
Inflammation
Leukemia

A

High WBC

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136
Q

High RBC count results in

A

Limited oxygen supply due to heart or other condition triggering need for extra RBCs

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137
Q

What cell involve in limited oxygen supply due to hear or other condition triggering need for extra oxygen

A

RBCs

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138
Q

High Hemoglobin (Hgb) results in

A

low oxygen levels in the blood; common reasons bone marrow disease or congenital heart disease

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139
Q

What part of the blood would be high levels with low oxygen levels in the blood; common reasons bone marrow disease or congenital heart disease

A

Hemoglobin (Hgb)

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140
Q

What are common reasons for low oxygen levels in the blood?

A

Bone marrow disease congenital heart disease

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141
Q

What does high hematocrit (HCT) mean

A

more RBCs than is considered healthy; maybe caused by heart disease, dehydration, scaring or thickening of the lungs

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142
Q

More RBCs than are considered healthy, high hematocrit (HCT) maybe caused by

A

heart disease, dehydration, or scaring or thickening of the lungs

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143
Q

What blood part test high with heart disease, dehydration or scaring or thickening of the lungs

A

Hematocrit (HCT)

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144
Q

What is causes of high platelet count

A

Cancer such as lung, ovarian, gastrointestinal or breast

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145
Q

What part of the blood will test high with cancer?

A

Platelet

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146
Q

A way for individuals to remotely access health related services using technology rather than in person contact.

A

Telehealth

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147
Q

The goal of Telehealth

A

to make it easier for a patient to connect with a health care provider

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148
Q

Ways telehealth is used

A

*Drones to deliver medication to disaster zones
*smart phones alert about disease in the area
*smart phones direct patients to take medications or vaccines
*Doctors connect virtually to patients

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149
Q

Who can benefit from telehealth

A

Someone who is unable to come in to the clinic or those in other countries

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150
Q

Cellular Respiration

A

Chemical reactions the cells use to create energy (ATP)

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151
Q

Where does cellular respiration occur

A

Mitochondria

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152
Q

The energy produced by the cells are (3)

A

biomolecules
large molecules
macromolecules

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153
Q

Where are mitochondria most prolific?

A

Muscle cells and sperm cells

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154
Q

Why are more mitochondria found in the muscle cells and sperm cells?

A

They have a greater requirement for energy

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155
Q

The basic energy source (chemical energy) to help maintain the cellular metabolism and act as a stimulus to make the cells more effective in their function

A

Nucleotides

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156
Q

Compounds such as sugar starch and cellulose

A

Carbohydrates

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157
Q

A primary source of energy for the cells

A

Carbohydrates

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158
Q

A secondary source of energy for cells

A

Lipids

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159
Q

One of a family of compounds including fats, phospholipids, and steroids that is insoluble in water

A

Lipids

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160
Q

A biomolecule made of building blocks called amino acids

A

Protein

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161
Q

determined by a cell’s nucleic acid sequence

A

Protein’s form and function

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162
Q

Last resort of energy for the cell

A

Protein

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163
Q

Biomolecules that carry the instructions for producing proteins

A

Nucleic acids

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164
Q

Examples of Nucleic acids are

A

DNA
RNA

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165
Q

Not a source of energy

A

Nucleic Acids

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166
Q

Carbohydrates are metabolized in the digestive system to form _________
to produce ______________.

A

glucose
energy

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167
Q

A hormone released by the pancreas.

A

Insulin

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168
Q

Function of insulin

A

Allows the cells to absorb glucose to utilize energy

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169
Q

Who is most at risk for Type 1 Diabetes?

A

Juvanials

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170
Q

Who is most at risk for Type 2 Diabetes?

A

Adults especially obese individuals

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171
Q

What causes Type 1 diabetes?

A

Autoimmune reaction

172
Q

What causes Type 2 diabetes?

A

Obesity and physical inactivity

173
Q

What is the type 1 connection to insulin

A

The body produces little to no insulin

174
Q

What is the type 2 connection to insulin

A

The body produces insulin but the body is unable to properly absorb it

175
Q

Symptoms of diabetes

A

fatigue
exhaustion
dizziness
etc…

176
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

Low Blood Sugar

177
Q

Risk (symptoms) of low blood sugar
Hypoglycemia

A

Blurred vision
Trouble concentrating
confused thinking
Slurred speech
drowsiness
fainting
death

178
Q

Hyperglycemia

A

High blood sugar

179
Q

Long term Risk of high blood sugar
Hyperglycemia

A

Stroke
heart disease
kidney disease
vision loss

180
Q

How to stay healthy with diabeties

A

eat healthy diet (low carb) and increase exercise

181
Q

How to stay healthy with Type 1 diabetes

A

take the proper amount of insulin for food eaten to maintain a good blood sugar range

182
Q

How to stay healthy with Type 2 dieabetes

A

eat healthy, low carb, and lose weight

183
Q

Homeostasis

A

the internal stability of the body that enables the optimal functioning of an organism

184
Q

the internal stability of the body that enables the optimal functioning of an organism

A

Homeostasis

185
Q

What happens when blood sugar gets too high (hyperglycemia)

A

the pancreas releases insulin which allows the cells to take in glucose and blood sugar decreases

186
Q

What happens when blood sugar gets too low (hypoglycemia)

A

the liver releases glucagon which allows the body to release stored glucose

187
Q

Why do diabetics have to work so hard to maintain glucose homeostasis than non-diabetics?
T1
T2

A

Type 1 diabetics don’t produce insulin, so they are unable to absorb glucose into the cells
Type 2 diabetics are unable to use the insulin they produce properly

188
Q

RPM

A

Remote Patient Monitoring

189
Q

What is remote patient monitoring?

A

Monitoring patient health outside of a medical setting

190
Q

CGM

A

Continuous Glucose Monitor

191
Q

What is used to monitor glucose level continuously and remotely?

A

Continuous Glucose Monitor (CGM)

192
Q

What is an insulin pump used for?

A

To deliver insulin to the blood steam

193
Q

What information do medical professionals need to have access to while performing their job

A

Times seen doctor and why
Types of doctor and procedures
Medicines and health problems
Problems in personal life
Test results
Insurance plan
Payment Information

194
Q

What does HIPAA stand for

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

195
Q

What happens to medical personnel who don’t follow HIPAA?

A

Fines
Loss of employment
Criminal Prosecution

196
Q

Information protected by HIPAA

A

*Name, address, birth date, social security number
*Past, present and future physical or mental health conditions
*Past, present, and future payments for services

197
Q

How are medical professionals supposed to protect information under HIPAA?

A

There are lots of things listed. Basically, use common since, just do your best not share the information without the patient’s consent.

198
Q

When can HIPAA information be shared

A

Insurance
Workman compensation
Public Health: Disease transition
Legal proceedings
Low enforcement: public at risk
Disaster situations
Assist Coroner or ME (Medical Examiner)
Give any information if patient gives specific consent

199
Q

Four most common HIPAA violations

A

*Accessing PHI of celebrities, friend, family, coworkers and neighbors
*Failure to perform an office risk analysis
*Improper disclosure of PHI
*Denying a patient access to their health records

200
Q

Differential Diagnosis

A

Distinguishing between different conditions with similar symptoms.

201
Q

Somatic cell

A

Any cell in the human body that is not a sex cell

202
Q

Mitosis

A

The division of cells that takes place int he nucleus of the cells. (The separation of genetic material results in the formation of two new nuclei.)

203
Q

Three reasons Somatic Cells need to reproduce

A

Replacing cells that die
healing a wound
growth spirt

204
Q

Any cell in the human body that is not a sex cell

A

Somatic Cell

205
Q

The dividing of a cell that takes place in the nucleus.

A

Mitosis

206
Q

The doubling and separation of genetic material results in the formation of

A

Two new nuclei

207
Q

Chromosomes

A

tightly coiled DNA that is found in the nuclei of cells

208
Q

How many chromosomes are in the human body>

A

46

209
Q

Homologous chromosomes

A

Chromosome pairs, one from each parent having similar gene compositions, size, and structure

210
Q

Centromere

A

The centralized region joining two sister chromatids

211
Q

Tightly coiled DNA that is found in the nuclei of cells

A

Chromosomes

212
Q

Chromosomes pairs, one from each parent, having similar gene composition, size and structure

A

Homologous Chromosomes

213
Q

The centralized region joining two sister chromatids

A

Centromere

214
Q

Interphase

A

DNA replicates so there are two copies of each chromosome.

215
Q

Identical copies of a chromosome

A

Sister Chromatid

216
Q

Sister Chromatid

A

Identical copies of a chromosome

217
Q

Prophase

A

Chromosomes condense and become visible under a light microscope and they pair up with their sister chromatids. The miotic spindle forms and the nuclear envelope disappears.

218
Q

Metaphase

A

Chromosomes line up at the center of the cell. Fibers attach to each of the cell sister Chromatids and will pull each chromatid to opposite poles of the cell.

219
Q

Anaphase

A

Each chromosome separates and the sister chromatids are pulled to the opposite poles of the cell

220
Q

Telophase + Cytokinesis

A

The cell splits into two. Each “Daughter Cell” looks identical to the original cell

221
Q

DNA replicates so there are two copies of each chromosome.

A

Interphase

222
Q

Identical copies of a chromosome

A

Sister Chromatid

223
Q

Chromosomes condense and become visible under a light microscope and they pair up with their sister chromatids. The miotic spindle forms and the nuclear envelope disappears.

A

Prophase

224
Q

Chromosomes line up at the center of the cell. Fibers attach to each of the cell sister Chromatids and will pull each chromatid to opposite poles of the cell.

A

metaphase

225
Q

Each chromosome separates and the sister chromatids are pulled to the opposite poles of the cell

A

Anaphase

226
Q

The cell splits into two. Each “Daughter Cell” looks identical to the original cell

A

Telophase + Cytokinesis

227
Q

Tumor

A

A lump or mass caused by uncontrolled cell division can be benign or malignant

228
Q

Benign

A

A tumor that is not cancerous; normally considered harmless

229
Q

Malignant

A

A cancerous tumor which will grow and spread to invade other parts of the body

230
Q

Cancer

A

A disease caused when cells divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues

231
Q

Metastasis

A

the spread of cancerous cells to other tissues or parts of the body

232
Q

Biopsy

A

The removal of cells or tissues from the body with a needle, scalped or other tool/instrument to study more closely under the microscope

233
Q

A lump or mass caused by uncontrolled cell division can be benign or malignant

A

Tumor

234
Q

A tumor that is not cancerous; normally considered harmless

A

Benign

235
Q

A cancerous tumor which will grow and spread to invade other parts of the body

A

Malignant

236
Q

A disease caused when cells divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissue

A

Cancer

237
Q

The spread of cancerous cells to other tissues or parts of the body

A

Metastasis

238
Q

The removal of cells or tissues from the body using a needle, scalpel, or other tool/instrument to study them more closely under the microscope.

A

Biopsy

239
Q

What do pathologist do?

A

Examine body tissues and fluid samples to look for changes or other signs of disease

240
Q

What is a cytopathologist?

A

Examines cells under a microscope to look for signs of cancer

241
Q

Who examines body tissues and fluid samples to look for changes or other signs of disease

A

Pathologist

242
Q

Person who examines cells under a microscope to look for signs of cancer

A

Cytopathologist

243
Q

Normal Cells (How do they divide)

A

Divide in an organized manner and die after a limited number of dividisions

244
Q

Cancer Cells (How do they divide)

A

Proliferate indefinitely resulting in a number of irregularly shaped dividing cells

245
Q

Describe a normal cell

A

Same size and shape as other cells of the same tissue

246
Q

Describe a cancer cell

A

Vary in size and shape

247
Q

Cells that Divide in an organized manner and die after a limed number of divisions

A

Normal Cells

248
Q

Cells that Proliferate indefinitely resulting in a large number of irregularly shaped dividing cells

A

Cancer Cells

249
Q

cells that have the same size and shape as the other cells of the same tissue

A

Normal Cells

250
Q

Cells that vary in size and shape

A

Cancerous Cells

251
Q

Normal or Cancerous
Have one small nucleus

A

Normal

252
Q

Normal or Cancerous
Have a large variable shaped nuclei

A

Cancerous

253
Q

Normal or Cancerous
Contain a distinct specialized feature common to the particular cell type

A

normal

254
Q

Normal or cancerous
Lose specialized cell features preventing the from performing functions properly

A

Cancerous

255
Q

Normal or cancerous
Arranged in an organized manner with well-definded tissue boundaries

A

Normal

256
Q

Normal or Cancerous
Disorganized arrangement with poorly defined tissue boundaries

A

Cancerous

257
Q

Cells that are bigger around and darker are….

A

Mutated cells

258
Q

Cells that are flat and organized

A

Healthy Basil cells

259
Q

see page 24

A

see page 24

260
Q

Cafe Au Lait Spots

A

Flat light brown spots on the skin

261
Q

Lisch Nodules

A

tiny bumps on the iris of the eye

262
Q

Neurofibromas

A

soft pea sized bumps on or under the skin

263
Q

Gene

A

A sequence of nucleotides that code for a protein, resulting in a specific phenotype

264
Q

Mutation

A

A rare change in genetic material which ultimately creates genetic diversity within a species

265
Q

What are proteins?

A

A three-dimensional polymer made of amino acid monomers

266
Q

A protein’s form and function are determined by a cell’s…

A

nucleic acid sequence

267
Q

Why are proteins important?

A

They are the primary building blocks of all life

268
Q

About how many proteins are in the human body?

A

10,000

269
Q

A sequence of nucleotides that codes for a protein resulting in a specific phenotype

A

Gene

270
Q

A rare change in genetic material which ultimately creates genetic diversity within a species

A

mutation

271
Q

A three dimensional polymer made of amino acid monomers

A

Protein

272
Q

A cell’s nucleic acid sequence determines

A

A protein’s form and function

273
Q

What are the primary building blocks of all life?

A

Proteins

274
Q

Driving cellular reactions (3)

A

Digestion
Biosynthesis
Controlling cell growth and division

275
Q

Breaking down foods and cell debries

A

Digestion

276
Q

Biosynthesis

A

building cellular components such as DHA, RNA, and cell membranes

277
Q

Providing Defense

A

Defensive proteins such as antibodies combat foreign invaders including bacteria, viruses, fungi, pollen and others

278
Q

Building Structures:
Silk fibers
Collagen and elastin
Keratin

A

Spider web
connective tissue
Feathers, hair

279
Q

Transporting materials (3)

A

*Carry essential nutrients and gases through the body
*For example, the protein hemoglobin transports oxygen for use in cellular respiration
*Carry cellular waste for disposal

280
Q

Coordinating Cellular Activities (2)

A

*Hormonal proteins help maintain homeostasis (insulin for blood glucose)
*Sensory proteins used to interpret environment (taste, smell, sound)

281
Q

Motor and contractive proteins found in muscles and used during cell division helping the cell move

A

actin and myosin

282
Q

Building cellular components such as DNA, RNA, and cell membranes

A

Biosynthesis

283
Q

actin and myosin

A

Motor and contractive proteins found in muscle cells

284
Q

What is protein synthesis?

A

The creation of a protein from a DNA template

285
Q

The creation of a protein from a DNA template

A

Protein synthesis

286
Q

RNA stands for

A

Ribonucleic Acid

287
Q

RNA

A

A type of nucleic acid consisting of nucleotide monomers with ribose sugars and the nitrogenous bases Adenine (A), Cytosine (C), Guanine (G), and Uracil (U).

288
Q

Usually single stranded and functions in protein synthesis and as the genome of some viruses

A

RNA

289
Q

A type of nucleic acid consisting of nucleotide monomers with ribose sugars and the nitrogenous bases Adenine (A), Cytosine (C), Guanine (G), and Uracil (U).

A

RNA

290
Q

Nitrogenous Bases
A
C
G
U

A

Adenine
Cytosine
Guanine
Uracile

291
Q

Structure of DNA

A

Double stranded (forms a double helix)

292
Q

Structure of RNA

A

Sing stranded

293
Q

Sugar of DNA

A

Deoxyribose Sugar

294
Q

Sugar of RNA

A

Ribose sugar

295
Q

Nitrogenous bases pairing rules of DNA

A

AT
CG

296
Q

Nitrogenous bases pairing rules of RNA

A

AU
CG

297
Q

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

A

A type of RNA that is transcribed from DNA and translated by ribosomes in the cytoplasm to produce proteins

298
Q

Transcribed

A

The synthesis of RNA from a DNA template

299
Q

Translated

A

The synthesis of protein using the genetic information encoded in the mRNA

300
Q

Process of translation

A

the code is read off the mRNA to make a protein

301
Q

A type of RNA that is transcribed from DNA and translated by ribosomes in the cytoplasm to produce proteins

A

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

302
Q

The synthesis of RNA from DNA template

A

Transcription

303
Q

The synthesis of protein using the genetic information encoded in mRNA

A

Translation

304
Q

The process of DNA being read to assemble a single strand of nucleic acid call mRNA

A

Transcription

305
Q

The code is read off of the mRNA to make a protein

A

Translation

306
Q

Within a cell, DNA is housed in the

A

Nucleus

307
Q

When a protein needs to be made, a signal is sent to a cell to turn on the __________ that codes for the needed protein. This is the beginning of _________.

A

Gene, Transcription

308
Q

Transcription occurs inside the ____________ (cell organelle).

A

Nucleus

309
Q

During transcription, DNA is read by an enzyme called ________________ producing____________.

A

RNA Polymerase
Messenger RNA

310
Q

Retinal Pigmentosa (RP)

A

A genetic disease which can lead to visual changes.

311
Q

The newly created mRNA molecules moves to the ____________ (part of the cell) where the process of translation can occur.

A

cytoplasm

312
Q

During translation, small organelles called _______________ read the mRNA sequence.

A

Ribosomes

313
Q

These organelles directly transfer RNA or tRNA to assemble a specific sequence of __________.

A

amino acid

314
Q

A sequence of three mRNA bases that codes for one amino acid

A

Codon

315
Q

When all the amino acids coded for by a gene link, they fold, and this creates a…

A

functional protein

316
Q

Translation Labeling see page 29

A
317
Q

Three base pair increments

A

Codon

318
Q

How are codons read

A

from the center out

319
Q

The first amino acid in every protein in humans

A

Methionine

320
Q

AUG codes for what protein

A

Methionine

321
Q

What happens when a codon codes for a stop codon

A

When a ribosome reads one, it disengages from the mRNA strand and protein synthesis stops.

322
Q

What happens to a protein when changes happen in the sequence of bases that make up a gene

A

Mutation, changes to an amino acid sequence

323
Q

Three types of mutations

A

Swapp
Addition
Deletion

324
Q

Silent mutation

A

not expressed

325
Q

Are genetic mutation avoidable

A

NO

326
Q

Substitution mutation

A

One DNA base is exchanged for another

327
Q

Insertion mutation

A

One DNA base is inserted into a DNA sequence

328
Q

Deletion Mutation

A

One DNA base is removed from a DNA sequence

329
Q

One DNA base is exchanged for another

A

Substitution mutation

330
Q

One DNA base is inIserted into a DNA sequence

A

Insertion mutation

331
Q

One DNA base is removed from a DNA sequence

A

Deletion mutation

332
Q

What is it called if one base is substituted?

A

Point mutation

333
Q

What type of mutation if one base is inserted or deleted?

A

Frame shift mutation

334
Q

What happens to the amino acids when there is a gene base change of substitution, insertion or deletion?

A

a different amino acid

335
Q

Point mutation

A

one base is affected

336
Q

Reading frame

A

Dictates the order of amino acids that will be added to the strand

337
Q

Describe the effect of the substitution mutation on the sequence of amino acids that are produced.

A

only one reading frame is effected so only one amino acid is effected

338
Q

What are the amino acids are effected with an insertion mutation

A

every amino acid after the insertion is most likely different

339
Q

What are the amino acids are effected with a deletion mutation

A

Every amino acid after the deletion of

340
Q

Genetic mutations can be a problem because of the effects of the mutated protein on an individual. Explain statement…

A

The mutated proteins don’t perform the same as a nonmuted protein

341
Q

A mutation is what gene causes Sickle Cell Anemia

A

HBB gene

342
Q

What two bases are switched with Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

Adenine with Thymine

343
Q

What type of mutation occurs with Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

Substitution Mutation

344
Q

What is the amino acid change that occurs with Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

Glutamic Acid becomes Valine

345
Q

What happens because of the mutation with Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

RBCs clump together and the person is unable to get enough oxygen

346
Q

A complete set of genes in an organism

A

Genome

347
Q

What is DNA Sequencing?

A

A process that determines the order of DNA bases that compose our genes.

348
Q

What does a geneticist do?

A

Someone who studies genes and gene inheritance and compares the gene sequence from the patient to the gene sequence of a known healthy sequence. Draw conclusions related to the patient’s genetic health.

349
Q

What are bioinformatics?

A

Software programs that analyze DNA

350
Q

NF1 health over lifetime

A

*increased risk of high BP
*may develop vessel abnormalities
*Rarely plexiform neurofibromas putting pressure on the airway

351
Q

NF1 Signs

A

Flat light brown spots on the skin
Bone Deformities
tumor on optic nerve
tiny bumps on the iris
Pea sized bumps on or under the skin

352
Q

NF1 Symptoms

A

headache
glaucoma
pain
seizures
anxiety
ADHAD

353
Q

A complete set of genes in an organism

A

Genome

354
Q

A process that determines the order of DNA based that compose our genes

A

DNA Sequencing

355
Q

Someone who studies genes and gene inheritance and compares the gene sequence from the patient to the gene sequence of a known healthy sequence. Draw conclusions related to the patient’s genetic health.

A

Geneticist

356
Q

Software programs that analyze DNA

A

Bioinformatics

357
Q

Is there a treatment for NF1?

A

No specific treatment only the symptoms can be managed or treated

358
Q

Summarize the relationship between DNA, mRNA, and proteins

A

*DNA is transcribed into mRNA
*mRNA is read by ribosomes and translated into amino acids
*Results in proteins

359
Q

How many chromosomes do each parent contribute

A

One

360
Q

What are the chromosomes that come together during fertilization called?

A

Homologous chromosomes

361
Q

The homologous chromosomes that come together during fertilization make up…

A

The first chromosome pair

361
Q

What happens during the first step of mitosis

A

A copy of DNA is made resulting in two genetically identical copies call sister chromatids

361
Q

Centromere

A

The central point of the sister chromatids

361
Q

Homologous Chromosomes

A

Chromosomes that come together at fertilization

362
Q

Sister Chromatids

A

Two identical copies of DNA

363
Q

The process when a copy of DNA is made resulting in two genetically identical copies call sister chromatids

A

First step of mitosis

364
Q

An organism’s qualities/characteristics

A

phenotype

365
Q

The variant that tends to override the other variant, hiding its properties, represented with capital letter

A

dominant

366
Q

When both alleles are the same (either dominant or recessive)

A

homozygous

367
Q

The 2 versions of each gene we inherit one from mom and one from dad

A

Chromosome

368
Q

When the two alleles are different (one recessive and one dominant)

A

Heterozygous

369
Q

The passing of traits to child from parent (via genes on chromosomes)

A

genotype

370
Q

The 2 alleles for a gene

A

Dominant and Recessive

371
Q

The variant that is only expressed if there are 2 copies represented with lowercase letters

A

Recessive

372
Q

Phenotype

A

an organism’s qualities/characteristicsf

373
Q

Dominant Alleles

A

The variant that tends to override the other variant hiding its properties represented with capital letter

374
Q

Homozygous

A

when both alleles are the same (either dominant or recessive)

375
Q

Heterozygous

A

when the two alleles are different (one recessive and one dominant)

376
Q

Genotype

A

the passing of traits to child from parents (via genes on chromosomes)

377
Q

Recessive

A

The variant that is only expressed if there are 2 copies represented with lower case letters

378
Q

Spontaneous Mutation

A

A genetic change that occurs in the absence of mutagens and have no know cause

379
Q

Inherited mutation

A

A mutated gene that a parent carries that is passed on to the offspring.

380
Q

Pedigree

A

a diagram that shows the occurrence of phenotypes through several generations of genetically related individuals

381
Q

What is Pedigree used for?

A

Helps track genetic traits through generations.

382
Q

Autosomal Dominant

A

One mutated allele is sufficient to cause symptoms in the individual.

383
Q

Autosomal Recessive

A

Two mutated alleles are required for the individual to experience the disease.

384
Q

see pg 39

A
385
Q

Genetic changes that occur in the absence of mutagens and have not known cause

A

Spontaneous mutation

386
Q

A mutation that a parent carries that is passed down to the offspring

A

inherited mutation

387
Q

A diagram that shows the occurrence of phenotypes through several generations of genetically related individuals

A

Pedigree

388
Q

Helps track genetic traits through generations

A

Pedigree

389
Q

One mutated allele is sufficient to cause symptoms in the individual

A

Autosomal Dominant

390
Q

Two mutated alleles are required for the individual to have disease symptoms

A

Autosomal Recessive

391
Q

Possible causes as to why someone would not grow at normal rate

A

Family History
Nutrition
Organ Failure
Abnormal Hormone
Chromosomal Abnormality

392
Q

What does a cytogeneticist do?

A

Harvest cells from biological samples, blood, tissue, bone marrow, etc; and prepare the cells to view the chromosomes under a microscope

393
Q

What is a chromosome spread

A

A visual display of chromosomes after they are released from cells, stained and spread out on a slide to be viewed under a microscope

394
Q

Steps of chromosome spread preparation

A
  1. Add cell sample to culture media (a sterile solution that helps the cells grow)
  2. Culture or grow the cells in a lab for up to two weeks
  3. Arrest or halt cells in metaphase. (To get all of the cells to this specific stage, the cells are treated with a chemical which stops cell division at this point.)
  4. Swell and drop cells onto microscope slides. (Cells burst spreading out the chromosomes.)
  5. Stain with Giemsa dye and observe the chromosomes under a microscope.
395
Q

A person who harvest cells from biological samples (including blood, tissue, bone marrow, and other bodily fluids) and prepare the cells to view the chromosomes under a microscope

A

Cytogeneticist

396
Q

A visual display of chromosomes after they are released from cells, stained and spread out on a slide to be viewed under the microscope

A

Chromosome spread

397
Q

What is special about HeLa Cells

A

They are the oldest human cell line take and used without the patient’s knowledge which has resulted in stronger protections for human subjects.

398
Q

Who was Henrietta Lacks?

A

HeLa Cells were named after her because the cells were taken from her when she had aggressive cervical cancer.

399
Q

How many chromosomes and chromosomal pairs does a human body have?

A

46, 23

400
Q

What is a karyotype

A

A image of the chromosome pairs of a cell arranged by size and shape.

401
Q

Why might you see more than 70 chromosomes in a HeLa cell chromosome spread?

A

It is a cancerous cell, so there will be chromosomal instability; often there is chromosomes gained or lost during mitosis.

402
Q

Gametes

A

Sperm and egg

403
Q

Meiosis

A

Cellular process that results in the number of chromosomes in gamete producing cells being reduce by half

404
Q

Reduction division

A

one of each pair of paired chromosomes passes to each daughter cell

405
Q

Review meiosis

A

Pg 43-45

406
Q

How many ties does a cell divide and how many cells at the end of the process?

A

twice
4

407
Q

What happens from the beginning to the end of the meiosis process.

A

46 chromosomes to 23 chromosomes

408
Q

Three differences between mitosis and meiosis

A
  1. Mitosis goes through PMAT once
    Meiosis goes through twice
  2. Mitosis ends with 2 identical cells
    Meiosis ends with 4
  3. Mitosis starts and ends with 46 chromosomes
    Meiosis starts with 46 and ends with 23 chromosomes
409
Q

Nondisjunction

A

A accident during mitosis or meiosis in which members of a pair of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to move apart properly

410
Q

Ways in which nondisjunction can occur

A

Chromosomes not moving away properly during meiosis 1 or sister chromatids failing to separate during meiosis 2

411
Q

Monosomy

A

one missing chromosome in a pair

412
Q

Trisomy

A

one extra chromosome in a pair

413
Q

Chromosome structure see page 46

A
414
Q

Deletion Error

A

Occurs when a segment of a chromosome is removed or lost

415
Q

Insertion Error

A

Occurs when a part of one chromosome is removed and added to another chromosome

416
Q

Inversion Error

A

Occurs when part of a chromosome is place in the wrong orientation compared to the rest of the chromosomes

417
Q

Duplication Error

A

Occurs when a segment of the chromosome is replicated and inserted next to the original copy

418
Q

Translation Error

A

Occurs when two chromosomes swap segments

419
Q

Occurs when a segment of a chromosome is removed or lost

A

Deletion

420
Q

Occurs when a part of one chromosome is removed and added to another chromosome

A

Insertion

421
Q

Occurs when part of a chromosome is placed in the wrong orientation compared to the rest of the chromosomes

A

Inversion

422
Q

Occurs when a segment of the chromosome is replicated and inserted next to the original copy

A

Duplication

423
Q

Occurs when two chromosomes swap segments

A

Translocation

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