Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are clinical signs of anthrax?

A

Bleeding* from orifices, blood fails to clot* no rigor*

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2
Q

Is anthrax reportable?

A

Yes

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3
Q

How is anthrax preventable?

A

Vaccination

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4
Q

What are clinical signs of brucellosis?

A

Late term abortion* and epididymitis*

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5
Q

What are treatments for brucellosis?

A

Test and slaughter*

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6
Q

How is brucellosis prevented?

A

Calfhood, bangs

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7
Q

How can brucellosis infect humans?

A

Undulent, malta fever, etc.

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8
Q

What are clinical signs of blackleg?

A

Necrotic muscle

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9
Q

What is calf enteritis (scours) caused by?

A

Colstridium*, e. coli, perfringens, cryptosporidium, and salmonella

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10
Q

What are clinical signs of foot rot?

A

Lameness, inflammation, swelling, and odor*

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11
Q

What are treatments of foot rot?

A

Debridement, topicals, foot baths* of copper/zinc sulfate, and management

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12
Q

What are two clinical signs of Johne’s disease?

A

Watery diarrhea and weight loss

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13
Q

What are treatment options for Johne’s disease?

A

None.

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14
Q

What are clinical signs of leptospirosis?

A

Abortion storms*, stillbirths, milk production loss, septicemia, etc.

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15
Q

What can be found in a necropsy of a cow with leptospirosis?

A

Dark kidneys

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16
Q

Is leptospirosis zoonotic?

A

Yes

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17
Q

Where is listeriosis found?

A

Contaminated silage

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18
Q

What are clinical signs of listeriosis?

A

Fever, facial paralysis, tongue drooping, abortions, circling

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19
Q

What is a clinical sign of lumpy jaw?

A

Mass formation on jaw

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20
Q

What are clinical signs of malignant edema?

A

Edematous* lesion, gas lesions, weight loss, fever, and toxemia

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21
Q

What are the two causative agents of mastitis?

A

Strep. agalcatiae (easy to treat)
Staph. aureus (difficult to treat)

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22
Q

What are the two classifications of mastitis by symptoms?

A

Clinical mastitis and subclinical mastitis (most costly)

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23
Q

What do we look for in strip cup examination for mastitis?

A

Odor, clumping*, blood, flakes, etc.

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24
Q

What does the California mastitis test detect?

A

Somatic cells (WBCs and sloughed epithelial cells)

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25
Q

When do we read California mastitis test?

A

10 seconds, finish by 20-30 seconds

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26
Q

What does purple mean in a California mastitis test?

A

Alkaline (normal)

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27
Q

What does yellow mean in a California mastitis test?

A

Acidic (abnormal)

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28
Q

What two things can cause metritis?

A

Retained placenta and dystocia

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29
Q

What are clinical signs of metritis?

A

Vaginal discharge*, septicemia, endotoxemia, and shock

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30
Q

What are clinical signs of pinkeye?

A

Blepharospasm, lacrimation, photophobia. keratitis, conjunctivitis, etc.

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31
Q

What are clinical signs of shipping fever?

A

Open-mouth* breathing, weight loss, wet cough, low head, depression, fever, wheezing, etc.

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32
Q

What vaccination can prevent shipping fever?

A

Enzootic pneumonia complex

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33
Q

What is treatment for tuberculosis?

A

Test and slaughter

34
Q

What are clinical signs of vibriosis?

A

Extended calving season, irregular estrous cycles, and infertility*

35
Q

What are clinical signs of wooden tongue?

A

Abscessation of the tongue and swelling of the ventral* jaw

36
Q

What is bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) known as?

A

Mad cow disease

37
Q

Is BSE (bovine spongiform encephalopathy) reportable?

A

Yes

38
Q

What can survive frozen semen?

A

Trichomoniasis

39
Q

What are clinical signs of bovine respiratory syncytial virus (BRSV)?

A

Fever*, anorexia, depression, increased resp. rates, nasal/ocular discharge

40
Q

What are clinical signs of bovine viral diarrhea (BVD)?

A

Oral* erosion and intestinal* ulceration

41
Q

Is foot and mouth in cattle reportable?

A

Yes - it’s foreign

42
Q

What is the common name of infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR)?

A

Rednose

43
Q

What are clinical signs of infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR)?

A

Fever, ocular discharge, mucopurulent nasal discharge, abortions, etc.

44
Q

What are clinical signs of fatty liver disease?

A

Absent and off feed* can lead to ketosis*

45
Q

Secondary pericarditis is associated with what disease?

A

Hardware’s disease

46
Q

What are clinical signs of hardware’s disease?

A

Elevated heart rate, dehydration, walk w/ arched back, grunting, etc.

47
Q

What is used for prevention in hardware disease?

A

Magnet

48
Q

What is hypocalcemia known as?

A

Milk fever

49
Q

What are clinical signs of hypocalcemia?

A

Muscle twitching, S shape to neck, ataxic, head bobbing, bloat, etc.

50
Q

What are treatment options of hypocalcemia?

A

IV calcium

51
Q

What is hypomagnesemic tetany known as?

A

Grass tetany

52
Q

What are clinical signs of hypomagnesemic?

A

Convulsions, stiffness, frothing at mouth, muscle spasms, death

53
Q

What are treatments of hypomagnesemic tetany?

A

Sedation, magnesium*, calcium, and management

54
Q

What is freemartin?

A

Female with twin male - female is born with no cervix

55
Q

When does ketosis occur?

A

First 6 weeks* after parturition

56
Q

What are clinical signs of ketosis?

A

Sweet smelling breath, nervous licking or biting body/surroundings, weight loss, arched back, etc.

57
Q

What are diagnostics for ketosis?

A

Urine ketone* sticks, clinical signs, etc.

58
Q

What are treatments for ketosis?

A

IV glucose, oral propylene glycol

59
Q

What are clinical signs of displaced abomasum?

A

Going off feed*, decreased milk production, decreased fecal output, and sprung rib cage

60
Q

How is displaced abomasum diagnosed?

A

History and ping*

61
Q

What causes polio encephalomalacia caused by?

A

Thiamine deficiency*, sulfur toxicity, feeding dietary urinary acidifiers

62
Q

What are clinical signs of polio encephalomalacia?

A

Depression, head pressing, ataxia, tremors*, tetany, convulsions, etc.

63
Q

What are treatments of polio encephalomalacia?

A

IV thiamine HCL*, diuretics, and dexamethasone

64
Q

How long do vaginal prolapses last?

A

2-3 weeks gestation

65
Q

What are treatments of vaginal prolapse?

A

Buhner needle* - purse-string w/ umbilical tape*

66
Q

Uterine prolapses occur after what?

A

Immediately after calving

67
Q

What drug helps involution for uterine prolapses?

A

Oxytocin

68
Q

What is rickets caused by?

A

Improper bone calcification

69
Q

What are clinical signs of rickets?

A

Swollen tender joints*, enlargement of epiphysis, bowed limbs, stiffness, etc.

70
Q

Fluid ruminal distension sounds like what?

A

Splashy* on lower left

71
Q

Gas ruminal distension is what?

A

Bloat* on upper left

72
Q

Free bloat of ruminal distension is caused by what?

A

Lack of eructation

73
Q

Frothy bloat of ruminal distension is caused by what?

A

Legume* pasture - soluble proteins* produce bubbles

74
Q

What can be used to differentiate ruminal distension?

A

Stomach tube* - air or nothing

75
Q

What treatment is trocar for ruminal distension?

A

Rumen screw (rumen trocar)

76
Q

What relieves frothy bloat in ruminal distension?

A

Surfactants

77
Q

What is urolithiasis known as?

A

Water belly

78
Q

What are clinical signs of urolithiasis?

A

Stranguria*, dysuria, posturing to urinate, etc.

79
Q

What are diagnostics of urolithiasis?

A

Rectal exam, SQ urine*, blood work

80
Q

What are treatments of urolithiasis?

A

Tube cystotomy* and perineal urethrotomy*

81
Q

What is white muscle disease caused by?

A

Vitamin E or selenium deficiency

82
Q

What are clinical signs of white muscle disease?

A

Uncoordinated* movement, lameness, paralysis of hindlimbs, sudden death, flying scapula*