Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Large Animal Diseases > Unit 1 > Flashcards

Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 differentials of lameness?

A

Pain, mechanical, and neurologocial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the diagnostic steps of lameness in equine?

A

Rest, walk, TROT*, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the tarsus equal to?

A

Hock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the carpus equal to?

A

Knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three categories of causation of lameness in equine?

A

Inflammation, endocrinopathy, and trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Inflammation of the lamina is caused by what?

A
  • grain overload
  • retained placenta
  • sepsis
  • black walnut shavings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chronic laminitis is when what occurs?

A

Rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chronic stable laminitis also known as what?

A

Foundered (rotated and stable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a corn? What causes it?

A

bruised soft tissue of the sole, caused by working o hard surface or stepping on small object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Infected bruises rupture to relieve pain/pressure, where does it usually rupture?

A

Out coronary band (quittor) or out bottom of hoof

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is quittor?

A

Deep seated sore draining out of coronet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are treatments for cracks in hooves?

A

Sealants and shoes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the term for chronic grease heel?

A

Chronic seborrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Side bone is caused by what type of cartilage?

A

ossified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are treatments of side bone?

A

NSAIDS and rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Periosteum inflammation across the cannon* bone is known as what?

A

Bucked shins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is bucked shins treated?

A

Rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Splints occur in what kind of horses?

A

Overworked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is sweeney?

A

Muscle atrophy of the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bone spavin is pain where?

A

in the hock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the treatment of curb?

A

Fire ligament (hot needles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Involuntary flexing of hock is known as what?

A

Stringhalt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ring bone is arthritis of what bone?

A

Pastern-coffin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Sesamoiditis is found in what kind of horses?

A

Race horses, hunters and jumpers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the treatment for windpuffs?

A

Ice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the term for traumatic bursitis?

A

Carpal hygroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Traumatic bursitis of hock is known as what?

A

Capped hock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Bowed tendon is caused by strain on what tendon?

A

Flexor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Thoroughpin is trauma to what?

A

Tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the term for enlargement of the growth plates?

A

Physitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where is anthrax found?

A

Spores in ground/feed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are clinical signs of anthrax?

A

Sudden death, bleeding from orifices - no clotting, no RIGOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

T/F: Anthrax is a reportable disease.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are clinical signs of botulism?

A

Creeping paralysis*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Why is treatment poor for botulism?

A

Respiratory paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where is canker housed?

A

Wet areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How many bacteria make up canker?

A

2 - fusobacterium necrophorum and dichelobacter spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which is worse, canker or thrush?

A

Canker - progresses to whole foot, difficult to cure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is lyme disease treated with?

A

Doxycycline, IV tetracycline

40
Q

What is the origin of potomac horse fever?

A

Infect fluke (live in snail) which releases to water

41
Q

What are clinical signs of potomac horse fever?

A

depression, diarrhea, fever, toxemia, abortion*, and laminitis

42
Q

What are treatment options for potomac horse fever?

A

Oxytetracycline and supportive

43
Q

What causes rain rot?

A

Wet animals - high temp and humidity

44
Q

What’s needed for salmonella due to it being zoonotic*?

A

Isolation**

45
Q

Rotavirus may be confused with what?

A

Foal heat diarrhea

46
Q

What’s important for treatment of rotavirus?

A

Isolation

47
Q

What are the two forms of strangles?

A

Abscess and bastard strangles

48
Q

What form of strangles is fatal?

A

Metastatic “Bastard**” strangles

49
Q

What causes tetanus?

A

Toxin from puncture/contaminated wound

50
Q

What are clinical signs of tetanus?

A

Sawhorse appearance, recumbent, and dyspnea

51
Q

What’s the mortality rate of tetanus in equine?

A

50%

52
Q

What causes thrush?

A

Unsanitary conditions

53
Q

Where are clinical signs of thrush found?

A

Hoof only

54
Q

What causes EPM (Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis)?

A

Ingest possum feces

55
Q

What are clinical signs of EPM (Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis)?

A

Muscle atrophy of glutes and quads, cranial nerve abnormalities

56
Q

What causes piroplasmosis?

A

Tick borne protozoa

57
Q

What is piroplasmosis treated with?

A

Tetracyclines

58
Q

Where may white line disease extend?

A

Coronary band

59
Q

What 3 regions can encephalomyelitis be found in?

A

Eastern, western, and Venezuelan

60
Q

What are clinical sign of encephalomyelitis?

A

Fever, ataxia, anorexia, paralysis, circling*, head pressing, hyperexcitability

61
Q

What two locations can equine arteritis be found?

A

Respiratory or venereal (sexual)

62
Q

What are clinical signs of equine arteritis?

A

Flu like, anemia*, and pneumonia

63
Q

What is EIA (equine infectious anemia) caused by?

A

Blood sucking insects

64
Q

What are clinical signs of EIA (equine infectious anemia)?

A

Pale MM, petechia, icteric, neuro signs, thrombocytopenia, and anemia*

65
Q

What test is used for EIA (equine infectious anemia)?

A

Coggins

66
Q

What is treatment for EIA (equine infectious anemia)?

A

Euthanasia

67
Q

T/F: EIA (equine infectious anemia) is not a reportable disease.

A

False, it is!

68
Q

What are clinical signs of rabies?

A

GI, ataxia, lameness, and bladder incontinence

69
Q

What are clinical signs of rhinopneumonitis?

A

Nasal* discharge, lymphadenopathy, coughing, abortion*, etc.

70
Q

What is treatment for rhinopneumonitis?

A

Isolation** and supportive

71
Q

What are clinical signs of vesicular stomatitis?

A

White areas on oral* mucosa, coronary* band, belly, muzzle, prepuce, and udder*

72
Q

What is west nile virus caused by?

A

Mosquitos

73
Q

What are clinical signs of the West Nile Virus?

A

Fever, lack of appetite, depression, colic, paralysis**

74
Q

What are clinical signs of cutaneous papilloma?

A

Warts

75
Q

What is treatment for cutaneous papillomas?

A

Resolves* within 3-4mos or removal

76
Q

Which tube does choke occur in?

A

Esophagus

77
Q

What do we need to rule out before treating choke?

A

Rabies

78
Q

What is heaves?

A

COPD

79
Q

What are heave lines and what are they associated with?

A

Line along the lower half of animal’s barrel, associated with COPD

80
Q

What are 4 general causes of colic?

A
  1. distension of gut
  2. pulling at root of mesenteric artery
  3. ischemia
  4. enteritis
81
Q

What are treatments of colic?

A

Hand walk, mineral oil, nsaids

82
Q

What is cushing’s disease caused by?

A

Cortisol

83
Q

What are two clinical signs of cushing’s disease?

A

Failure to shed* in spring, sway* back and pot belly

84
Q

What two things is exertional myopathies also known as?

A

Cording up, tying up

85
Q

What is associated with exertional myopathies?

A

Exercise

86
Q

What is sporadic exertional myopathies caused by?

A

Exertion - not in shape*

87
Q

What is chronic exertional myopathies caused by?

A

Genetics

88
Q

What is the best treatment for exertional myopathy?

A

Rest*

89
Q

What is habronemiasis caused by?

A

Fly larva

90
Q

Where are two common hernia sites?

A

Umbilical and scrotal

91
Q

What are two clinical signs of hypothyroidism?

A

Slow/not shedding, tying up

92
Q

Where do melanomas occur?

A

Tail, anus, and head

93
Q

What is roaring caused by?

A

Broken trachea rings and paralyzed* vocal cords

94
Q

What is wobbler syndrome caused by?

A

Compression of the spinal cord in the neck*

95
Q

What are sarcoids caused by?

A

Papilloma virus

96
Q

What color are bot fly eggs?

A

Yellow

Large Animal Diseases (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions