Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Animal Physiology > Unit 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 2 types of eyes

A

camera and compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the most successful animals have _________ eyes

A

complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

vertebrae animals have _______ type of eyes

A

camera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

insects have _______ type of eyes

A

compund

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

compound eyes have clusters of cell groups called __________

A

ommatidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

each _________ has its own lens and ______________

A

ommatidium
photoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the dominant photopigment across species

A

rhodopsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the earliest eyes were probably something called

A

eyespots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the white of our eye called, and where it is located

A

sclera
all the way to the back of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the choroid in the eye

A

provides blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the fibrous layer of the eye is
a. thin and durable
b. thick and durable

A

b. thick and durable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the fibrous layer of the eye is the ______ layer
a. innermost
b. middle
c. outermost

A

c. outermost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

the posterior segment inside the eye contains a fluid called

A

vitreous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

extrinsic muscles in the eye are _________ controlled
a. somatically
b. autonomically

A

a. somatically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the two muscles in the iris

A

radial and circular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when the circular muscles contract in the iris, the pupil ________

A

constricts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when the radial muscles contract in the iris, the pupil

A

dilates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the pupil constricts when in ______ light

A

bright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

the pupil dilates when in ______ light

A

dim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

the pupil movement is _________ controlled
a. somatically
b. autonomically

A

b. autonomically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the lens precisely changes shape to focus light on the _______

A

retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are lenses made of

A

crystallins
- some of the most stable proteins in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Do lenses have blood supply?

A

No- avascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what do suspensory ligaments in the eye do

A

controls the curvature of the lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

a single neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates

A

motor unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

when ciliary muscles contract, the suspensory ligaments _______

A

relax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the lens becomes more convex (bulged) when ciliary muscles _________ and suspensory ligaments ______

A

contract
relax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

light is refracted 3 times along the eye:

A
  1. entering cornea
  2. entering lens
  3. leaving lens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is refraction of light

A

bending light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

majority of refraction comes from the ________

A

cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

change in lens curvature allows for

A

fine focusing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

when there is more bulge of the eye, there is more _________ that the eye can do

A

refraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

pupillary constriction is a ________ stimulation using Ach/NE?

A

parasympathetic
Ach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

pupillary dilation is a ________ stimulation using Ach/NE?

A

sympathetic
NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when focusing for close vision, the pupil _______ and the lens _______

A

constricts
bulges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

when focusing for far vision, the pupil ______ and the lens ________

A

dilates
decreases refraction (less bulge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

convergence of the eyeballs happens when

A

our eyes move together and point inward when we look at near objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Light will pass through the ________ before passing through the lens

A

pupil and cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following structures of the eye is/are not responsible for the refraction and focusing of light?

  1. Retina
  2. Lens
  3. Cornea
  4. Pupil
A

1 and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the blind spot in the eye called

A

optic disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

developmental outgrowth of the brain

A

retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the 2 types of photoreceptors

A

rods and cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

the optic disc ______ photoreceptors

A

lacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

the ______________ is the site where the optic nerve leaves the eye

A

optic disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

_____ photoreceptors are used for dim light

A

rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

are rods or cones more numerous
-which is more sensitive?

A

rods
rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

the _______ only contains cones

A

macula lutea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

_____ are used for high resolution color vision

A

cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

the process by which light is converted into electrical signals

A

phototransduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

photoreceptors are turned _____ when there is a lack of light

A

on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what absorbs light and produces a reaction

A

chromophores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

there is ________ when we see

A

hyperpolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

there is ________ when we do not see

A

depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

when light hits rhodopsin what is activated

A

G-Protein (transducin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what does transducin turn on in phototransduction

A

PDE enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

when PDE is turned on by transducin, cGMP becomes

A

GMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

when cGMP becomes GMP, the ion channels

A

close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

at rest (no phototransduction) cGMP allows ion channels to _____, and lets cell ________

A

open
depolarize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When light rays hit a rod cell in the retina, the rod ____________ because fewer cyclic nucleotide (cGMP gated) ion channels are _______

A

hyperpolarizes
open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

when light hyperpolarizes a photoreceptor, what stops being released

A

glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

when photoreceptors depolarize, what is released

A

glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

glutamate inhibits what

A

bipolar cells (release neurotransmitters)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

______ cells come together in the back of the eye and form the optic nerve

A

ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

ex of a biological clock

A

circadian rythym

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

sleep/wake cycle is influenced by

A

light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what part of the brain regulates the circadian clock

A

SNC in the hypothalumus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

when light hits iPRGCs, it sends an _____________ and instructs the hypothalamus to __________________

A

AP
not activate pineal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

when decreasing light, iPRGCs have less AP, which stimulates the ________ to release _____________

A

pineal gland
melatonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

nearly half of the body’s mass is made of what

A

muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

skeletal muscles are striated, meaning they are

A

striped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

skeletal muscles are ________ controlled
a. autonomously
b. somatically

A

somatically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

the three layers of muscle create a structure called a

A

tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what are the 3 layers of muscle

A
  1. epimysium
  2. perimysium
  3. endomysium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

connective tissue surrounding the entire muscle

A

epimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

fibrous connective tissue surrounding fasicles

A

perimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

groups of muscle fibers

A

fasicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

connective tissue surrounding each muscle fiber

A

endomysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

smaller motor units have ______ control

A

fine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is within T-tubules

A

voltage gated ion channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what does the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum (SR) function in

A

regulation of intracellular Ca2+ levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle fiber

A

sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what are sarcomeres made up of

A

thick and thin filaments
- myosin and actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

the thick filament in a sarcomere is

A

myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

the thin filament in a sarcomere is

A

actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Sarcomere is the region between 2 successive

A

Z discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

the Z disc anchors _____

A

thin filaments (actin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

an I band has no overlap between

A

actin and myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

the myosin has ______ globular ______

A

2
heads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

the 2 heads for myosin are binding sites for _________ and ________

A

ATP
actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

tropomyosin are on _______ and they function to

A

actin
binds to actin and inhibits myosin binding to actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

troponin are where _____ binding occurs and ____

A

myosin
Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is a neuromuscular junction

A

axon ending with a single muscle fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

generation of AP in skeletal muscle is caused by changes in charges in ____________

A

sarcolemma RMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

AP from the neuron reaches the nerve terminal and opens Ca2+ gates. This causes the release of which neurotransmitter across the synaptic cleft

A

ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

when ACh diffuses into the muscle sarcolemma, __________ open and AP travels down ________

A

ligand gates channels
T-Tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

ionic conditions of resting state are restored by

A

Na+/K+ pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

the muscle fiber cannot be stimulates during ______________ until what is complete

A

refractory period
repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

the latent period is period of time with/without contraction

A

without

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

when T-tubules depolarize, _______ change formation

A

DHPRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

when DHPRs change formation, this causes ______ to open and allows ______ in the SR to diffuse out

A

RyRs
Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

_______ allows muscle fibers to contract

A

Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what frees the actin filament so it can interact with myosin

A

Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

at low Ca2+ levels, tropomyosin ________ and muscle fiber is _________

A

blocks active sites on actin
relaxed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

at high Ca2+ levels, _____ moves tropomyosin to allow _______
- muscle is _______

A

troponin
Ca2+ to bind to troponin
-contracted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

________ break and form several times, which moves thin filaments closer to

A

cross bridges
sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

in a contracted muscle
1. size of sarcomere ________
2. size of I band __________
3. distance between z discs __________
4. A band _________

A
  1. decreases
  2. decreases
  3. decreases
  4. stays the same
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what causes cross bridge to break apart

A

ATP

108
Q

ATP causes myosin and actin to

A

disengage

109
Q

cocking of myosin head occurs when _____ is ________

A

ATP
hydrolyzed (ATP-> ADP+P)

110
Q

every time cross bridge disengages, need a new _____ to have another _________

A

ATP
contraction

111
Q

tension is the highest in the ____________ period

A

contraction

112
Q

what are some ways muscle relaxes

A
  1. stimulation of nerves stops
  2. muscle fiber repolarizes (closes Ca2+ gate in SR)
  3. troponin tropomyosin complex recreated
  4. no more ATP
113
Q

muscle contraction causes shortening

A

concentric

114
Q

muscle contraction causes lengthening

A

eccentric

115
Q

there is no shortening of the muscle, but tension increases

A

isometric

116
Q

how do we increase the strength of contractions? (2)

A
  1. activation of more motor units
  2. increases muscle fiber size
  3. repeated stimulation
117
Q

what is max stimulation called

A

tetanus

118
Q

what is twitch summation

A

muscle fiber is restimulated before it has completely relaxed
- 2nd twitch added to 1st twitch

119
Q

creatine phosphate is stored in

A

muscle fibers

120
Q

where is creatine phosphate cleared out

A

kidney

121
Q

does creatine phosphate use oxygen

A

no

122
Q

aerobic respiration occurs when ______ is present

A

oxygen

123
Q

aerobic respiration is fueled by ________ stores and ________ delivered by blood

A

glycogen
fatty acids

124
Q

used for endurance activities

A

aerobic respiration

125
Q

aerobic respiration is faster/slower because

A

slower
requires delivery of O2 and glucose through blood

126
Q

uses no oxygen

A

anaerobic

127
Q

in anaerobic respiration, ______ is converted to ________

A

pyruvic acid
lactic acid

128
Q

anaerobic respiration produces ______ ATP but occurs ________

A

fewer
quicker

129
Q

used for intense, quick activity

A

anaerobic

130
Q

too much lactic acid buildup causes

A

muscle fatigue

131
Q

slow to contract but are most resistant to fatigue

A

slow oxidative (type 1)

132
Q

fast to contract but less resistant to fatigue

A

fast oxidative (type 2a)

133
Q

fast to contract but are not resistant to fatigue

A

fast oxidative (type 2b)

134
Q

there is rich blood supply in this type of muscle fiber, making it a darker meat

A

slow oxidative (type 1)

135
Q

which muscle type is better equipped for aerobic respiration

A

slow oxidative (type 1)

136
Q

this type of muscle fiber relies mostly on anaerobic respiration

A

fast glycolytic(type 2b)

137
Q

excess post exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC) refers to

A

replenishing extra O2 and getting body to pre-exercise state

138
Q

muscle fatigue results from a deficit of _______ (not depletion)

A

ATP

139
Q

DHPR receptors change shape and cause ______ to open

A

Ryrs

140
Q

crush bones to release Ca2+

A

osteoclasts

141
Q

bone is the hardest ____________ tissue in the body

A

connective

142
Q

the axial skeleton includes

A

skull, rib cage, vertebrae

143
Q

the appendicular skeleton includes

A

bones of upper and lower limbs and girdles

144
Q

forms the bone matrix (builds bone)

A

osteoblasts

145
Q

maintains bone tissue (adult bone tissue)

A

osteocytes

146
Q

bone stem cells

A

osteogenic cells

147
Q

_________ gives bone its flexibility

A

collagen

148
Q

_______ gives bone its rigidity

A

inorganic ions (ca2+)

149
Q

what is the center shaft of the long bone called

A

diaphysis

150
Q

what are the ends of the long bone called

A

epiphysis

151
Q

the ______________ is the remnant of the epiphyseal plate

A

epiphyseal line

152
Q

what are the 2 kinds of bone marrow

A

red and yellow

153
Q

this marrow allows for more endurance

A

yellow (fat production)

154
Q

what are the types of bone (2)

A

compact
spongy

155
Q

____________ are at the ends of bone and are used for shock absorption

A

spongy bone

156
Q

the walls of bone are made of ____________

A

compact bone

157
Q

runs through the center of the compact bone and allows passage of blood vessels and nerves

A

central canal

158
Q

lie at right angles and connect blood & nerve supply of the periosteum to the central canal

A

perforating canals

159
Q

what is the structural unit of compact bone

A

osteon

160
Q

osteons are made of _______ tubes of bone matrix known as ___________

A

concentric
lamellae

161
Q

_____________ are stress sensors and signal to osteoblasts and osteoclasts to repair the bone

A

osteocytes

162
Q

____________ ossification occurs in flat bones of the skull and the clavicles

A

intramembranous

163
Q

endochondral ossification means

A

within cartilage

164
Q

calcium balance in the body is hormonal ________ feedback

A

negative

165
Q

which ions/minerals are important for bone health

A

Ca2+, Vit D, Vit K, Magnesium

166
Q

what is the difference between red and yellow blood marrow

A

red- produces RBC
yellow- fat storage

167
Q

osteons are made of concentric circles called

A

lamalla

168
Q

how does exercise impact bones

A

gravity and stress placed on bones cause them to be stronger (osteoblast stimulation)

169
Q

blood cell formation in red bone marrow

A

hematopoiesis

170
Q

red blood cell formation is called

A

erythropoiesis

171
Q

too few RBC causes tissue

A

hypoxia

172
Q

too many RBC increases ______________

A

blood viscosity

173
Q

hypoxia means

A

inadequate O2 supply

174
Q

direct stimulus for erythropoiesis

A

EPO- hormone erythropoitein

175
Q

when there is too little O2 in the blood, what happens

A

EPO is released to produce more RBC

176
Q

________ stimulus is low blood Ca2+

A

PTH

177
Q

when PTH is released into the bloodstream, what are its effects on
1. bone
2. kidney
3. small intestine

A
  1. bone: osteoclast activity increases (more Ca2+ in blood)
  2. kidney: reabsorbs Ca2+ and activates Vit D
  3. small intestine: increased absorption of Ca2+ bc of Vit D
178
Q

____________ stimulus is high blood Ca2+

A

calcitonin

179
Q

when calcitonin is released into the bloodstream, what are its effects on
1. bone
2. kidney
3. small intestine

A
  1. bone: increased osteoblast activity (use more Ca2+ in bone to take away from blood)
  2. kidney: Ca2+ is secreted to the urine, and vit D is not activated
  3. small intestine: Ca2+ is not absorbed (bc no vit D)
180
Q

PTH and calcitonin are released from

A

parathyroid and thyroid gland

181
Q

when ion channels are kept open bc of cGMP, releases _________ that inhibits bipolar cells from firing AP

A

glutamate

182
Q

glutamate causes bipolar cells to

A

not fire AP

183
Q

in endochondral ossification, ______ in diaphysis calcifies and dies

A

cartilage

184
Q

in endochondral ossification, when cartilage calcifies and dies, this opens up a cavity that is invaded by the

A

periosteal bud

185
Q

the periosteal bud in endochondral ossification creates

A

primary ossification center

186
Q

vit D is made by the sun hitting skin and precursor 1 is stored in the _________. When PTH comes, vit D in the kidney acitvates

A

liver

187
Q

why do animals need to breathe?

A

intake O2 for cellular respiration (that makes ATP)

188
Q

whole body respiratory surface animal limitations

A

size of the animal (has to be small)

189
Q

external gill respiratory surface animals requires

A

constant flow of water moving past the gills

190
Q

external gills are in _________ contact with water

A

direct

191
Q

internal gills must have water ___________

A

brought into them

192
Q

gill respiratory surfaces actively brings water into them and ______________- gills

A

pushes it across gills

193
Q

in gill respiratory surfaces, water flow goes ____________ of blood flow to maximize concentration gradient

A

opposite

194
Q

diffusion is greatest when the ___________ is greatest

A

concentration gradient

195
Q

why is the trachea not a closed ring

A

so esophagus can travel food down it

196
Q

the larynx is where _________________________ to the ___________

A

air travels down to the trachea

197
Q

what is the conducting zone in respiration

A

brings in o2 and removes co2
- includes structures such as nasal cavity, larynx,

198
Q

what is the respiratory zone in respiration

A

the actual site of gas exchange (alveoli, bronchioles)

199
Q

alveolar sacs contain clusters of __________

A

alveoli

200
Q

high surface area sites for gas exchange

A

alveoli

201
Q

the gas exchange in respiration with blood happens in the _____________ that lays on top of _____________

A

capillary bed
alveoli

202
Q

alveoli and capillary walls are ________ to allow for what

A

thin
- easy to diffuse gas across by simple diffusion

203
Q

cuboidal alveolar cells secrete ______________ that do what?

A

surfactants
- reduces attraction of water to each other to keep alveoli open

204
Q

if we did not have _________, alveoli would not stay open and collapse

A

surfactants

205
Q

respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in infants is caused by

A

lack of surfactants

206
Q

process of breathing- movement of air into and out of the lungs

A

pulmonary ventilation

207
Q

O2 and CO2 exchange between lungs and blood

A

external respiration

208
Q

O2 and CO2 exchange between systemic blood vessels and tissues

A

internal respiration

209
Q

pressure exerted by air surrounding the body

A

atmospheric pressure

210
Q

pressure always wants to go form

A

hight to low

211
Q

what ensures that lungs remain inflated

A

intrapleural pressure

212
Q

air goes ______ the lungs when negative respiratory pressure (less than Patm)

A

into

213
Q

air goes ______ the lungs when positive respiratory pressure (more than Patm)

A

out of

214
Q

you breathe in bc intrapulmonary pressure is ____________

A

negative

215
Q

what kind of pressure is always negative

A

intrapleural

216
Q

each lung is contained in a

A

pleural sac

217
Q

in the pleural sac, one layer is connected to the lungs, and the other is ______________ to __________________

A

suctioned to the thoracic wall

218
Q

pulmonary ventilation involves

A

internal and external expiration

219
Q

what is thr relationship between pressure and volume

A

when pressure increases, volume decreases and vice versa (indirect)

220
Q

inspiration (gas flow into the lungs) is a _____________ process
a. active
b. passive

A

a. active

221
Q

during inspiration, which inspiratory muscles contract

A

diaphragm and external intercostals

222
Q

in inspiration, the thoracic volume _________ which leads to lungs expanding, and pressure ____________

A

increases, drops (decreases)

223
Q

when thoracic cavity volume increases in inspiration, lung volume ______________ and lung pressure __________________

A

increases, decreases

224
Q

external intercostals contract in what direction
- diaphragm?

A

up and out
- down

225
Q

expiration is considered a ________ process
a. active
b. passive

A

b. passive

226
Q

in expiration, the inspiratory muscles ___________

A

relax

227
Q

in expiration, thoracic cavity volume _______________, and lungs volume ____________ and lungs pressure _______________

A

decreases
decreases, increases

228
Q

air flows out of lungs down its pressure gradient until

A

Ppul=Patm
- Ppul = pulmonary pressure

229
Q

what is external respiration

A

exchange of O2 and CO2 across respiratory membranes

230
Q

what is the rate of diffusion influenced by (3)

A
  1. thickness of membrane
  2. surface area of membrane
  3. partial pressure gradients
231
Q

external respiration is exchange between ______________ and ________________

A

alveoli and capillary wall

232
Q

the thicker the membrane, the _______ the rate of diffusion

A

lower

233
Q

IN EXTERNAL:
pressure of CO2 in the lungs is higher in the __________ than the alveoli
- meaning the CO2 will move to the __________

A

blood
- alveoli

234
Q

IN EXTERNAL:
the pressure of O2 in the lungs is higher in alveoli than in ___________,
- meaning O2 will move into _______________

A

blood
blood

235
Q

in external respiration,
1. O2 goes to the ________
2. CO2 goes to the ____________

A
  1. alveoli–> blood
  2. blood into alveoli
236
Q

internal respiration includes exchange between _____________ and _______________

A

capillaries and body tissue

237
Q

internal respiration partial pressure and diffusion gradients is __________ to external respiration

A

opposite

238
Q

in INTERNAL respiration, pressure of tissue O2 is __________ than bloods
- meaning O2 goes ______________

A

lower
from blood to tissue cell

239
Q

in INTERNAL respiration, pressure of tissue CO2 is __________ than bloods
- meaning CO2 goes ______________

A

higher
from tissue cell to blood

240
Q

n INTERNAL respiration
1. CO2 goes
2. O2 goes

A
  1. tissue–> blood
  2. blood–> tissue
241
Q

the O2 going into tissue cells in internal respiration does what
- where what is the byproduct that leaves

A

fuels cellular respiration
-CO2

242
Q

The end blood leaving external is the ___________ blood of internal

A

incoming

243
Q

how is O2 transported throughout the body

A

hemoglobin on RBC

244
Q

RBCs lack a _________, which makes more space for _______________

A

nucleus
hemoglobin

245
Q

hemoglobin- O2 combination

A

oxyhemoglobin

246
Q

hemoglobin that has released O2

A

deoxyhemoglobin

247
Q

when O2 binds to hemoglobin, the affinity for O2 _______________

A

increases

248
Q

when O2 releases from hemoglobin, the affinity for O2 _______________

A

decreases

249
Q

hemoglobin when bound to O2 has a _____________ shape

A

specific

250
Q

a fully saturated hemoglobin carries _________ O2

A

4

251
Q

what.3 forms is CO2 transported in blood

A
  1. bound to globin of hemoglobin
  2. transported as bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) in plasma
  3. dissolved in plasma
252
Q

when CO2 goes into RBC, it combines with __________ and makes carbonic acid, which dissociates into _________ and ____________

A

H2O
H+ and HCO3- (bicarbonate ion)

253
Q

primary control center for respiration

A

medulla

254
Q

the rise of _______ and _________ in blood helps indicate to hemoglobin to release O2

A

H+ and CO2

255
Q

internal respiration (body cells) amount of O2 transported by hb affected by _______ and ___________
- called _______ effect

A

PCO2 and pH
Bohr (b-body)

256
Q

the __________ effect helps the lungs release carbon dioxide from carboxyhemoglobin

A

Haldane

257
Q

haldane effect involves oxygentaed blood in the lungs which increases _______ of _______________

A

removal
CO2

258
Q

haldane effect relates to _________ respiration

A

external

259
Q

increase in temperature ________ Hb affinity for O2 because of change of shape

A

decreases

260
Q

The S shaped nature of the oxygen-hb dissociation curve allows for _____ to be released for exercise without big change in __________

A

a lot of O2
- O2 pressure

261
Q

peripheral chemoreceptors are in

A

neck region

262
Q

central chemoreceptors are only sensitive to __________ in the ________________

A

CO2 in cerebrospinal fluid

263
Q

peripheral chemoreceptors are sensitive to

A

blood PO2, PCO2, and H+

264
Q

when CO2 in the blood is high,
1. H+ is ________

A
  1. high
265
Q

rise in body temp. __________ respiratory rate

A

increases

266
Q

intrapulmonary pressure in the pressure in the __________

A

alveoli

Animal Physiology (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions