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Anatomy and Physiology > Unit 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is epithelial tissue?

A

sheet/surface that covers a body surface or lines body cavity. 2 types include covering/lining and glandular

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2
Q

What are the traits of epithelial tissue?

A

Cellular: cells packed together, little ECM, packed via tight junctions and desmosomes
Polarity: apical-basal polarity, basal lamina secreted by epithelium, reticular lamina secreted by CT
avascular: lack of blood vessels, still nourished via diffusion
regenerative: lots of mitosis
main function: protection, absorption, filtration, excretion, secretion, and sensory receptors

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3
Q

Explain simple squamous epithelium

A

1 layer of flat cells, great for exchange (ex: alveoli, air sacs in lungs), good lining (ex: endothelium in vessels), shape of cell determines where it’s found

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4
Q

Explain simple cuboidal epithelium

A

1 layer of boxy cells, good for exchange (kidney tubules), secretion, and absorption

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5
Q

explain simple columnar epithelium

A

1 layer of tall cells, good for absorption and secretion (ex: line intestine)

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6
Q

explain pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

A

1 layer of tall and smushed cells, often with cilia, secretes and absorbs (ex: lines the trachea and most of respiratory tract)

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7
Q

explain stratified squamous epithelium

A

multiple layers with flat cells on top, most protective, most common, can be keratinized(at surface ex: epidermis) or not keratinized (basal layers ex: inside mouth)

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8
Q

explain stratified cuboidal

A

many layers with boxy cells on top, in sweat glands and mammary glands

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9
Q

explain stratified columnar epithelium

A

multiple layers with tall cells on top, in part of male urethra, pharynx, and glandular ducts

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10
Q

explain transition epithelium

A

variest in number of layers (3-6) based on how stretched it is, cells at free edge are domed (ex: bladder and ureters)

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11
Q

glandular epithelium

A

1 or more cells that make and secrete a particular product. Can be endocrine or exocrine glands

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12
Q

endocrine epithelium

A

secrete hormones into blood, “ductless”, diffuse into endocrine system, secretions can vary between amino acids, peptides, glycoproteins, and steroids

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13
Q

exocrine glands

A

secrete to body surface (ex: swer glands). Can be unicellular or multicellular. Multicellular are divided by shape of secreting part (gland can be tubular or alveolar, or duct can be simple or compound) and secretory style (merocrine: exocytosis or holocrine (bursting) (ex: intestinal: simple and tubular, mammary: compound and alveolar, sweat gland: merocrine, sebaceous gland: holocrine)

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14
Q

What are traits of connective tissue?

A

supporting, binding, lots of EXM, insulating, storage of reserve fuel, transporting, vascularization varies with different subtypes (adipose=high vascularization, cartilage= little vascularization)

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15
Q

What are the parts that are in connective tissue?

A

Extracellular matrix: interstitial fluid, cell adhesion protein (also sugars for adhesion), and proteoglycans for stiffness
Fibers: collagen(white, thick, stronger than steels, main part of tendons and ligaments, strongest, most prevalent), elastic (yellow, elastin, flexible, in lung, skin, blood vessel walls) and reticular(thin bundles of collagen wrapped around blood vessels, support soft tissues)

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16
Q

What kind of cells are in connective tissue?

A

In CT proper: fibroblasts and fibrocytes
in cartilage: chondroblasts and chondrocytes
in bone: osteoblasts and osteocytes
in blood: hematopoietic and red/white blood cells
Also home to adiopctyes, mast cells (for inflammatory response heparin and histamine), and phagocytes (macrophages and neutrophils)

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17
Q

What are the types and functions of connective tissue proper?

A

Loose include: areolar (packaging for organs, acellular, lots of ECM, around vessels, supporting/binding other tissues, holding body fluids, defending against infection, storing nutrients as fat) adipose tissue(protection, keeps heat in body, energy storage, highly vascularized, and found in breast), and reticular (scaffold for lymphatic organs, found in spleen)
Dense include: dense regular (parallel collagen fibers, fibroblasts, and small amount of ground substance, poorly vascularized, in tendons, ligaments) and dense irregular (mesh of collagen, reticular layer of dermis)
Cartilage includes: hyaline(most common, structural support, little cushion at end of long bones, ex: costal cartilage, tracheal cartilage, tip of nose) elastic (flexibility in shape, binds but snaps back, ex: pinna), fibrocartilage (shock absorption, between hyaline cartilage and dense regular CT, ex: intervertebral discs)
bone: supports and protects, stores fat and calcium, lots of nerves, blood vessels, and collagen
blood: transport of O and CO2, nutrients, waste products, hormones, plasma, RBC (40%), and WBC (1%)

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18
Q

What are the traits of muscle tissue?

A

Cellular, vascular (need O to make ATP), excitable, generate force and movement

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19
Q

What are the types and functions of muscle tissues?

A

Skeletal muscle: striated, large cylindrical cells, multiple nuclei per cell
Cardiac muscle: striated, intercalated discs, one nucleus per cell
smooth muscle: one nucleus per cell, not striated, ex: walls of hollow organs

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20
Q

What are the traits of neural tissue?

A

little ECM, well vascularized, excitable, includes PNS and CNS

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21
Q

What cells are in nervous tissue?

A

Supporting cells (glial cells, frequent, nonconducting, insulate, support, and protect neuron) and neurons (fire impulses, less numerous, respond to stimuli)

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22
Q

what are the functions of the integument?

A

Protection from trauma and infection, regulate temp and water levels, sensation, and Vit. D synthesis

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23
Q

What are the different cell types and what are their functions in epidermis?

A

Keratinocytes: most numerous, lots of keratin protein, important part of desmosomes, made in stratum basal
Melanocytes: make melanin, in lower layer, has process that distributes melanin to keratinocytes that use pigment to shade DNA of nucleus
Langerhan’s cells: protective and a type of macrophages
Merkel Cells: tactile cell attached to sensory afferent, in epidermal-dermal junction

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24
Q

What are the layers and functions of the epidermis?

A

Stratum Basale: germinating layer, only one cell thick, keratinocytes, merkel cells, and melanocytes, 1 daughter cell gets pushed up skin after mitosis
Stratum Spinosum: several layers thick, keratinocytes, contain thick intermediate filaments that resist tension and are anchored to desmosomes
Stratum Granulosum: thin, darkly stained, grainy, lots of keratin
Stratum Lucidum: only in thick skin, transparent layer of dead cells
Stratum corneum: thick layer of flat, dead cells

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25
Q

What is some general information about the dermis?

A

It’s mostly made of dense irregular CT, 2 layers, cells within are: fibroblasts, migratory cells, vascular, secreting part of sweat glands, sebaceous glands secret sebum into hair follicle,nerve fibers, and sensory cells

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26
Q

What are characteristics of the papillary layer of the dermis?

A

top layer of dermis, 20% of dermis, mostly areolar CT, papilla=bump, tactile.meissner’s corpuscle

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27
Q

What are the characteristics of the reticular layer of the dermis?

A

bottom layer, 80% of dermis, dense irregular CT, lots of collagen bundled in irregular patterns that can create dermal-epidermal ridges or cleavage lines

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28
Q

What are the different skin colorations?

A

Melanin: darker skin pigment, freckles/moles, made by melanocytes
Carotene: yellowish/orange color, accumulates in stratum corneum and hypodermis
hemoglobin: redish pigment of blood that is visible in fair skinned individuals

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29
Q

What are the different terms to describe skin colorations?

A

cyanosis: blue, low O
erythema: redness, when inflammatory response, fever, or embarrassment occurs
jaundice: yellow, liver dysfunction
hematoma: black/blue bruise, clotted blood in hypodermis

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30
Q

What are the functions of hair?

A

insulation, protection, sensation, and social signals

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31
Q

What are the types of hair?

A

Vellus: soft baby hair, body hair on female
Terminal: coarse hair, scalpe, eyebrows

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32
Q

Describe the lengthwise and cross-section parts of hair?

A

Lengthwise: Shaft (projection from skin, keratinization is complete) and root (within follicle, keratinization not complete, has hair bulb that contains hair papilla)
hair in cross-section: shape is either round (in straight hair) or flat (in kinked hair) and the layers are: medulla (middle part, big cells, air spaces, soft keratin), cortex (many cells, provides color), and cuticle (flattened cells overlap in a thin layer)

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33
Q

Describe the follicle?

A

Bag that hold hair root and sensory receptor neurons. Follicle wall includes: epithelial root sheath (inner layer), connective root sheath (outer layer), and hair matrix (mitotic growth zone, on top of hair papilla). Also includes arrector pili muscle and hair squeezes sebum into follicle

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34
Q

what are the functions of nails?

A

scratch and to pick up small things

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35
Q

What tissue are the nails in?

A

epidermis

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36
Q

Describe the nail bed

A

Skin where the nail sits, deep epidermis, entails nail matrix and lunula

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37
Q

What is the eponychium?

A

cuticle

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38
Q

What is the hyponychium?

A

space under nails edge (where dirt accumulates)

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39
Q

describe an eccrine sweat gland

A

is a simple, tubular gland that secretes in a merocrine (exocytosis) style. They are all over the body, lots on forehead, hands, and feet, and sweat contains: water, salts, acid, dermcidin (pathogen killing protein) and antibodies

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40
Q

describe an appocrine sweat gland

A

in axillary and anogenital regions, secrets via merocrine and ducts empty into hair follicles, secretes fatty, protein rich sweat, they mature in puberty

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41
Q

What are the types of skin cancer? describe them

A

basal cell carcinoma: least malignant, most common, surgical removal is cure 99% of time
squamous cell carcinoma: 2nd most common, keratinocytes of stratum spinosum are cancerous, grows fast and metastasis, if caught early and removed it can be cured
melanoma: cancer of melanocytes, most dangerous because it’s highly metastatic and resistant to chemo

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42
Q

describe sebaceous oil glands

A

most of body but not in thick skin, simple and alveolar structure, puts lubricating sebum into follicle and fights microbes, holocrine secretory function, arrector pili contractions force sebum out

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43
Q

describe ceruminous glands

A

line ear canal (make ear wax which catches debris, repels insects, and lubricates ear drum), specialized apocrine gland

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44
Q

What are the function of bone?

A

Support, shape, protect soft tissues, store calcium and fat, hematopoiesis, anchorage, and hormone production

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45
Q

describe osteons

A

one cylinder with several concentric lamellae and central canal, osteocytes in lacunae, lacunae are connected by canaliculi

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46
Q

Where is the perforating canal?

A

perpendicular to central canal

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47
Q

what are circumferential lamallae

A

on outside of bone, individual rings within osteon

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48
Q

What are interstitial lamellae

A

incomplete parts between osteons

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49
Q

What are the parts of spongy bone? Describe them

A

trabeculae: bars of bone, no osteon, doesn’t have osteocytes, or matrix
red marrow: between traveculae, important for hematopoiesis, lots in flat bones

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50
Q

What are the different microscopic and chemical components of bone?

A

Cells- osteogenic stem cells: differentiate into any of cell types
osteoblast: builds
osteocyte: mature bone cell, maintains
osteoclasts: breaks down bone, multinucleated, ruffled edge
bone matrix- 2/3 inorganic/minerals: hydroxyapatite is main mineral, gives hardness and 1/3 organic (lots of C) that has lots of collagen and gives bone tensile strength

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51
Q

describe intramembranous ossification

A

frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal bones, and clavicles are formed like this, bone develops from fibrous membrane, bones are called membrane bones. Steps: 1- ossification center form when mesenchymal cells cluster and become osteoblasts 2-osteoid is secreted, then calcified 3-woen bone forms when osteoid is laid down around blood vessels, resulting in trabeculae, outer layer of woven bone forms periosteum 4- lamellar bone replaces woven bone and red marrow appears

52
Q

describe endochondral ossification

A

form all bones below base of skull except clavicles, form by replacing hyaline cartilage, called cartilage bone, begins at primary ossification center in center of bone shaft, blood vessels infiltrate perichondrium-converting it to periosteum, mesenchymal cells specialize into osteoblasts. Steps 1-bone collar forms around the diaphysis of the hyaline cartilage model 2-cartilage calcifies in the center of the diaphysis and then develops cavities 3-the periosteal bed invades the internal cavities and spongy bone forms 4-diaphysis elongates and medullary cavity forms. Secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphyses 5- epiphyses ossify, when complete hyaline cartilage remains only in the epiphyseal plates and articular cartilages

53
Q

describe postnatal bone growth

A

bones lengthens-interstitial growth
increase in thickness- appositional growth
stops growing during adolescence (expect for some facial bones)

54
Q

what is the purpose of bone remodeling

A

to regenerate bone, 5-10% of bone mass recycled each year, occurs at endosteal surfaces

55
Q

describe bone deposit

A

done by osteoblasts, calcification of osteoid: proteins of newly deposited bind calcium ions, calcium and phosphate ions form crystals, and crystals act as seed for hydroxyapatites

56
Q

describe resorption

A

function of osteoclasts: dig depressions or grooves as they break down matrix, secrete lysosomal enzymes and protons that digest matrix, and digested end products are transported across osteoclast and released on opposite side

57
Q

How is remodeling controlled?

A

1-hormonal control (whether and when remodeling occurs): negative feedback loop that controls blood calcium levels. parathyroid hormone is produced by parathyroid gland in response to low blood calcium levels: stimulates osteoclast to resorb bone, calcium is released into blood-raising levels, PTH secretion stops when homeostatic calcium levels are reached again
2-response to mechanical stress (determines where remodeling occurs) mechanical and gravitational forces acting on bone can cause remodeling resulting in increased bone strength

58
Q

Describe osteoporosis

A

group os diseases in which bone resportion exceeds deposit, matrix remains normal but bone mass declines, spongy bone of spine and neck of femur most susceptible and vertebral and hip fractures common, risk factors: age and post menopausal women (affects 30% of women 60-70 y/o and 70% by 80), insufficient exercise, poor calcium and protein, smoking, genetics, hyperthyroidism, diabetes, and consumption of alcohol/certain medication. Prevention: weight bearing exercise, Calcium and vitamin D intake, and bone-sparing drugs that inhibit osteoclasts

59
Q

What are the categories of shapes of bones? Describe them.

A

long bones: have shaft (doesn’t matter how long) ex: phalanges
short bones: cuboid ex: carpals and tarsals
flat bone: thin, often have curve ex: ribs
irregular: odd shaped, doesn’t fit into other categories ex: vertebrae

60
Q

Describe the parts of long bones?

A

Diaphysis: shaft, made mostly of compact bone, medullary cavity filled with yellow/fatty marrow
epiphyses: knobby ends, has cartilage on surface of bone, some spongy bone inside, epiphyseal line

61
Q

Describe the periosteum

A

osteogenic layer that contains:
fibrous outer layer: white, dense, irregular connective tissue
osteogenic layer: osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteogenic stem cells
perforating fibers:stick periosteum to compact bone
nutrient foramina: holes for vessels

62
Q

What is the endosteum?

A

thin connective tissue lining canals in bone

63
Q

What is articular cartilage?

A

hyaline cartilage for joint

64
Q

trochanter

A

bumps of femur

65
Q

tuberosity

A

large bump (relative to size of bone)

66
Q

tubercle

A

small bump (relative to size of bone)

67
Q

crest

A

prominent ridge

68
Q

line

A

subtle ridge

69
Q

epicondyle

A

bump next to joint

70
Q

spine

A

sharp projection

71
Q

heads

A

rounded knob, on top of neck

72
Q

facet

A

flat part

73
Q

condyle

A

rounded ending

74
Q

ramus

A

bar

75
Q

foramen

A

hole

76
Q

meatus

A

canal

77
Q

sinus

A

cavity

78
Q

fossa

A

bowl/basin

79
Q

groove

A

narrow depression

80
Q

fissure

A

crack in bone

81
Q

What is within the frontal bone?

A

glabella, supraorbital notch, and anterior cranial fossa

82
Q

Describe the parietal?

A

sides and top of cranium

83
Q

What is within the occipital bone?

A

foramen magnum, occipital condyle, posterior cranial fossa, external occipital protuberance, and hypoglossal canal

84
Q

What is within the sphenoid bone?

A

lesser wings, greater wings, medial and lateral pterygoid process, optic canal, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, sella turcica, and superior orbital fissure

85
Q

What is within the temporal bone?

A

external acoustic meatus, makes part of middle cranial fossa, foramen lacerum @ anterior boarder, jugular foramen @ posterior border, zygomatic process, styloid process, mastoid process, stylomastoid foramen, carotid canal, squamous portion of temporal bone is on top,thin, scaly,and flattened, petrous portion is on bottom and bon.

86
Q

What is in the ethmoid bone?

A

crista galli, cribriform plate, olfactory foramina, perpendicular plate, superior nasal concha, and middle nasal concha

87
Q

Where are all of the sutures?

A

coronal: frontal bone to parietal bone
sagittal: left to right parietal bone
lambdoid: parietal to occipital
squamous: temporal to parietal bone

88
Q

vomer

A

facial bone, bottom part of nasal septum

89
Q

mandible

A

facial bone, contains alveolar process, mandibular notch, coronoid process, ramus, body, angle, mandibular foramina, mental foramen, and mandibular symphysis

90
Q

maxilla

A

keystone facial bone, joins all other facial bones but mandible, includes upper jaw, upper alveolar process, palatine process, infraorbital foramen, maxillary sinus, and inferior orbital fissure

91
Q

Zygomatic bones

A

facial bones, zygomatic arch=zygomatic bone + zygomatic process of temporal bone

92
Q

nasal bones

A

bridge of nose

93
Q

lacrimal bones

A

facial bone, medial orbit, nasolacrimal duct

94
Q

palatine bones

A

facial bone, posterior part of hard palate

95
Q

inferior nasal concha

A

facial bone, turbinates (cleans air breathed in), inferior to ethmoid’s conchae

96
Q

describe the sinuses

A

cavities lined with mucus membranes, include maxillary, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid

97
Q

describe the hyoid bone

A

jointless, anterior to larynx, hangs from styloid process

98
Q

what are the vertebral column ligaments?

A

link bones to bones, anterior longitudinal (think, attaches to bodies of vertebrae, prevents hyperextension), posterior longitudinal( thin, attaches to back of vertebrates bodies), and ligamentum flavum (strong attachments to laminae of vertebrae)

99
Q

intervertebral discs

A

include annulus fibrosus ( fibrocartilage, binds vertebrae together) and nucleus pulposus (jelly-like center, gives elasticity and compressibility)

100
Q

parts of vertebrae

A

body/centrum: anterior
arch: defines vertebral foramen, lamina (posterior, short bony pillars), and pedicle (lateral, flattened plates that fuse median plate, notches form intervertebral foramina)

101
Q

what are the seven processes that come off the vertebral arch?

A

spinous process: 1, posterior
transverse process: 2, lateral
superior articular process: 2
interior articular process: 2

102
Q

describe the cervical vertabrae

A

7, concave curve, has hole in sides, bifid spinous process, transverse foramen
C1: atlas, no body, no spinous process, joints w occipital condyles
C2: axis, has dense projections that form body of C1
C7: prominent spinous process

103
Q

describe the thoracic vertebrae

A

12, convex curve, spinous process points down, have costal facets for ribs, allows rotation (not much flexion)

104
Q

describe the lumbar vertebrae

A

concave curve, short spinous process, large bodies, allows flexion (not rotation)

105
Q

sacrum

A

convex curvature, 5 fused vertebrae in posterior pelvis, sacral promontory, alae, anterior/posterior foramina, median sacral crest

106
Q

coccyx

A

tail bone, 4 fused vertebrae, inferior to sacrum

107
Q

three abnormal types of curvatures

A

scoliosis (lateral curve), kyphosis (hunch back), lordosis (sway back)

108
Q

sternum

A

manubrium, jugular notch, clavicular notches, body, sternal angle, xiphisternal joint, xiphoid process

109
Q

ribs

A

1-7: true ribs, direct sternal attachment
8-12: false ribs
8-10: share costal cartilage
11-12: floating ribs
transverse process of thoracic vertebrae

110
Q

pectoral girdle:clavicle and scapula

A

clavicle: acromial end, sternal end, conoid tubercle
scapula: superior/inferior angle, glenoid cavity, suprascapular notch, supraspinal fossa, infraspinous fossa, subscapular fossa, coracoid process, acromial process

111
Q

humorous

A

head, greater/less tubercle, intertubercular sulcus, deltoid tuberosity, trochlea (pulley for ulna), capitulum (ball for radius), medial/lateral epicondyle, olecranon fossa, radial fossa, coronoid fossa

112
Q

ulna

A

elbow end: olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process
wrist end: head, styloid process

113
Q

radius

A

elbow end: head, radial tuberosity
wrist end: styloid process

114
Q

carpus

A

scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hammate

115
Q

metacarpus

A

1: thumb side, 5: pinky side, head is distal, base is proximal

116
Q

phalanges

A

proximal, middle, and distal (1 doesn’t have middle)

117
Q

bony pelvis contains

A

coxal bones (illium, pubis, ischium), sacrum, coccyx

118
Q

ilium

A

iliac crest, alae, iliac fossa, spines (ASIS, AIIS, PSIS, PIIS), greater sciatic notch

119
Q

ischium

A

ischial tuberosity, ischial spine, lesser sciatic notch

120
Q

pubis

A

pubis symphsis, superior/inferior pubic ramus, pubic arch (sharper in males than females)

121
Q

sockets and hole in pubic region

A

acetabulum and obturator foramen

122
Q

femur

A

head, fovea capitis, neck, greater/lesser trochanter, intertrochanteric crest and line, gluteal tuberosity, linea aspera, medial/lateral condyles/epicondyles

123
Q

patella

A

knee cap, apex (distally pointing), facets for femur

124
Q

tibia

A

medial/lateral condyles, tibial tuberosity, anterior crest, medial malleolus

125
Q

fibula

A

head, lateral malleolus

126
Q

tarsals

A

calcaneous, talus, navicular, 1/2/3 cuneiform, cuboid

127
Q

metatarsals

A

1-5

Anatomy and Physiology (4 decks)

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