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Micro 3010 > Unit 11 - Upper RTI > Flashcards

Unit 11 - Upper RTI Flashcards

1
Q

Anatomy of upper respiratory tract

A
  • Epiglottis
  • Larynx
  • Nasal cavity
  • Pharynx
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2
Q

Anatomy of lower respiratory tract

A
  • Trachea
  • Bronchi
  • Bronchioles
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3
Q

Why does rhino virus prefer the upper part of respiratory tract?

A

It thrives in low temperatures

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4
Q

How does pertussis cause a RTI?

A

stops ciliary action

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5
Q

Lungs are rich in _____

A

macrophages

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6
Q

The following are all ____ residents of the respiratory tract:

  • Oral streptococci
  • Neisseria spp. Branhamella
  • Candida albicans
  • Streptococcus mutans
A

Common

>50% of normal people

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7
Q

The following are all ____ residents of the respiratory tract:

  • Streptococcus pyogenes
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Neisseria meningitidis
A

Occasional

<10% of normal people

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8
Q

The following are all ____ residents of the respiratory tract:

  • Corynebacterium diphtheria
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • Psueodmonas (esp after antibiotics)
  • E.coli (esp after antibiotics)
  • C. albicans (esp after antibiotics)
A

Uncommon

<1% of normal people

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9
Q

The following are all ____ residents of the respiratory tract:

  • Pneumonocystis jirovecii
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
A

Residents in latent state in tissues (Lung, lymph nodes, etc.)

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10
Q

The following are all ____ residents of the respiratory tract:

  • Herpes simplex virus
  • Epstein-Barr virus
A

Sensory neurone/glands connected to mucosae

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11
Q

______ _______ is very common in immunocompromised individuals (such as HIV Pts)

A

Pneumonocystis jirovecii

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12
Q

What are the two types of RTI’s?

A
  • Restricted to surface

- Spread through body

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13
Q

Examples of RTI’s that are restricted to surface

A
  • common cold virus
  • influenza
  • streptococci in throat
  • chlamydia (conjunctivitis)
  • diphtheria
  • pertussis
  • candida albicans (thrush)
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14
Q

Examples of RTI’s that are spread through the body

A
  • measles, mumps, rubella
  • EBV, CMV
  • Chlamydophilia psittaci
  • Q fever
  • Cryptococcosis
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15
Q

What are the two types of Respiratory Invaders?

A
  • Professional invaders

- Secondary invaders

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16
Q

______ invaders = infect healthy respiratory tract

A

Professional

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17
Q

______ invaders = infect when host defences impaired

A

Secondary

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18
Q

Professional invaders require what to infect a healthy respiratory tract?

A
  • Adhesion to normal mucosa (in spite of mucocillary system)
  • Ability to interfere with cilia
  • Ability to resist destruction in alveolar macrophage
  • Ability to damage local (mucosal, submucosal) tissues
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19
Q

Secondary invaders require what to infect when host defences impaired?

A
  • Initial infection and damage by respiratory virus (ex. influenza virus)
  • Local defences impaired (ex. cystic fibrosis)
  • Chronic bronchitis, local foreign body or tumor
  • Depressed immune responses (ex. AIDs, neoplastic disease)
  • Depressed resistance (ex. elderly, alcoholism, renal or hepatic disease
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20
Q

Rhinitis (common cold) is caused by different types of ____

A

viruses

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21
Q

> 50% of common colds are due to ??

A

rhinovirus and coronaviruses

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22
Q

What do common colds induce?

A

a flow of virus-rich fluid, rhinorrhea

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23
Q

How are common colds transmitted?

A
  • Aerosol

- Virus contaminated hands

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24
Q

Common colds are ??

A

self-limiting

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25
Q

Is there a vaccine for rhinitis (common cold) ?

A

No vaccine, antigenically diverse group

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26
Q

Pharyngitis and Tonsillitis can be caused by ____ or _____

A

viruses or bacteria

viruses make up 70% of cases

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27
Q

What viruses are the most common cause of pharyngitis and tonsillitis?

A
  • Adenovirus
  • CMV
  • EBV
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28
Q

What is the most common bacteria that causes pharyngitis and tonsillitis?

A

Streptococus Pyogenes

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29
Q

____ is the largest human herpes virus. Multinucleated cell formation and/or intranuclear inclusions give cells distinct appearance.

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

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30
Q

Natural host of CMV?

A

humans

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31
Q

Transmission of CMV?

A
  • saliva
  • urine
  • blood
  • semen
  • cervical secretions
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32
Q

Describe pathology of CMV?

A

Initial infection asymptomatic -> lymphoid tissue -> lymph nodes and spleen (via circulation lymphocytes and monocytes)

Virus localizes in epithelial cells in salivary glands (saliva_, kidney (urine), cervix (secretions), and testes (semen) - shedding for months

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33
Q

CMV has specific __ and ___ response activated but not entirely clear virus

A

specific Ab and CMI response

34
Q

CMV infection eventually controlled by ___ mechanisms

A

CMI

35
Q

CMV: infected cells remain in body for life and can be source of ________ if CMI impaired

A

reactivation

36
Q

CMV is a successful pathogen if it ??

A
  • Evades immune defences
  • Poor target for Tc cells
  • Interferes with transport of MHC-1 molecules to cell surface
  • Induces expression of FC receptors on cell surface
37
Q

Infants/childs have ___ symptoms with CMV

A

no

38
Q

Adults have ____ illnesses with CMV

A

mild

39
Q

Describe the spectrum of symptoms of CMV

A

Adolescents have a glandular fever-type illness:

  • fever
  • lethargy
  • abnormal lymphocytes and mononucleosis

Primary infection during pregnancy:

  • spread through placenta to fetus
  • reactivation
  • 2nd common cause of mental retardation in babies
40
Q

Vaccines for CMV?

A

No, but trials are underway

41
Q

What does CMV cause?

A
  • hearing loss

- poor mental development

42
Q

Natural host of EBV?

A

humans

43
Q

EBV transmitted by the exchange of ____

A

saliva

-infectious mononucleosis, “kissing disease”

44
Q

Describe the two peaks of EBV

A

1-6 years

14-20 years

45
Q

Describe the clinical features of EBV

A

Immunologically mediated:

  • Virus replicates in epithelial cells and B-lymphocytes (attaches to C3d receptor = CD21)
  • Virus shed in saliva from infected epithelial cells
  • Spreads to B-lymphocytes in local lymphoid tissues (lymph nodes and spleen)
  • T-lymphocytes respond to infected B-cells - CIVIL WAR IN BODY OH NO
46
Q

EBV: Clinical features of naturally infected infant/young child

A

no clinical disease

47
Q

EBV: Clinical features of young adults

A
  • infectious mononucleosis/glandular fever 4-7 weeks after initial infection
  • fever, sore throat, petechiae on hard palate, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly
  • hepatitis
48
Q

Symptoms of EBV

A
  • cytokine release

- infected B-cells -> polyclonal activation, production of autoantibodies (ex. IgM to erythrocytes)

49
Q

EBV has ___ recovery, but saliva infectious for months

A

spontaneous

50
Q

Treatment for EBV?

A

No antivirals in immunocompetent patients

51
Q

Malaria weakens T-cell control of EBV infection and causes ??

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

52
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma is a problem in ?

A

parts of Africa and Papua New Guinea

53
Q

When patients ingest nitrosamines (preserved fish) who have EBV, this results in?

A

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (EBV DNA in tumor cells)

54
Q

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a problem in ?

A

China and SE Asia

55
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of pharyngitis and tonsillitis?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

56
Q

Streptococcus pyrogens is the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis and it is important to treat with ______

A

penicillin

57
Q

Symptoms of Bacterial pharyngitis?

A
  • Sore, red throat; difficulty swallowing
  • Sudden fever; malaise; and loss of appetite
  • Scarlet fever (characterized by a ‘sandpapery’ rash, starts on the neck and chest and spreads all over the body, red strawberry tongue, headache, chills, and muscle ache)
  • Rheumatic fever (fever, joint pain, knees, ankles, elbows and wrists, joint swelling, possible cardiac problems, chest pain, shortness of breath)
58
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes can cause what two things?

A
  • Rheumatic heart disease
  • Acute Glomerunephritis
    • Anti-Strep Ab -> circulating immune complex -> deposition in glomeruli
    • Activation of complement and coagulation systems, inflammation and blood in urine
59
Q

What is parotitis?

A

Inflammation of parotid glands (largest of salivary glands)

60
Q

___ is a type of parotitis

A

Mumps

61
Q

How are the Mumps transmitted?

A
  • Airborne droplets

- Close contacts

62
Q

Recovery of the Mumps within how long?

A

1 week

63
Q

Is there a vaccine for mumps?

A

Yes - MMR

64
Q

Complications with Mumps?

A
  • Meningitis
  • Encephalitis
  • Pancreatitis
  • Hearing loss
65
Q

What is Otitis media?

A

Infection of the middle ear

66
Q

Otitis media is 50% _____

A

viral

67
Q

The other bacterial forms of otitis media are caused by?

A
  • S. pneumoniae
  • H. influenzae
  • S. pyogenes
  • M. catarrhalis
  • S. aureus
68
Q

Otitis media usually happens to ?

A

preschool-age patients

69
Q

Early signs of otitis media in children

A

They are non localized: fever and irritability

70
Q

Later signs of otitis media in children

A

ear pain, changes in hearing, purulent discharge (late infection)

71
Q

Pathogenesis of Otitis Media?

A

cleansing function by ciliated epithelium

72
Q

Complications with Otitis media?

A

damage of the tympanic membrane can lead to hearing loss

73
Q

What is Otitis Externa?

A

Infection of the outer ear

*Pathogens are distinct from otitis media

74
Q

External ear canal has bacterial flora similar to skin: ???

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Candid albicans
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
75
Q

How is otitis externa treated?

A

antibiotic ear drops

76
Q

Aetiology of acute sinusitis is similar to ___ ____

A

otitis media

77
Q

Symptoms of acute sinusitis

A
  • facial pain, local tenderness
  • prolonged respiratory tract infection (purulent nasal discharge and pain in the face, fever, maxillary sinusitis - headache, pain in upper teeth)
78
Q

Complications with acute sinusitis?

A
  • orbital cellulitis
  • osteomyelitis
  • meningitis
  • brain abscess
79
Q

Epiglottitis: clinical manifestations & pathogenesis?

A
  • edema & inflammation
  • airway blockage
  • life threatening
80
Q

Epiglottitis is caused by ?

A

H. influenzae

Micro 3010 (20 decks)

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