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V.3 > Unit 1 Food Microbiology and Chemistry > Flashcards

Unit 1 Food Microbiology and Chemistry Flashcards

1
Q

What causes the most food spoilage?

A

microorganism

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2
Q

What are spherical-shaped bacteria called?

A

cocci

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3
Q

What are rod-shaped bacteria called?

A

bacilli

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4
Q

If you start with 1,000 bacteria, how many will you have after 10 minutes?

A

2,000 bacteria

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5
Q

What conditions can endospores resist?

A

heat, cold, drying, and many disinfectants

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6
Q

What do fungi secrete to meet their metabolic needs?

A

digestive enzymes

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7
Q

What is the mass of hyphae called that makes up a mold colony?

A

mycelium

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8
Q

How do yeasts reproduce?

A

budding, where a smaller new cell is pinched off from a larger existing yeast cell

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9
Q

Which is the time lapse from one cell division to the next called?

A

Generation time

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10
Q

Which process is the forming of the endospore during bacterial growth?

A

sporulation

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11
Q

What prominent factors have an impact on microbial activity?

A

food, acid, time, temperature, oxygen, and moisture (FATTOM)

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12
Q

What do cranberries have a relatively high concentration of?

A

benzoic acid

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13
Q

What becomes the dominant microorganism as the pH drops in foods?

A

yeasts and molds

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14
Q

What does a pH value of 7 represent?

A

neutral

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15
Q

In what pH condition do molds grow better in?

A

acidic

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16
Q

What most often causes meat spoilage?

A

bacteria

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17
Q

What happens during fermentation that affects the pH level?

A

nonharmful bacteria break down carbohydrates in food to lactic acid

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18
Q

What is one of the most important environmental conditions influencing microbial growth?

A

temperature

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19
Q

What are the three temperature groupings of microorganisms?

A

psychrophilic, mesophilic, and thermophilic

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20
Q

Psychrophilic microorganisms grow relatively well at what temperature range?

A

relatively low temperatures

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21
Q

Mesophilic microorganisms grow relatively well at what temperature range?

A

moderate temperatures

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22
Q

Thermophile microorganisms grow relatively well at what temperature range?

A

relatively high temperatures

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23
Q

What is a psychrotroph?

A

grows best at moderate temperatures but also can grow at low temperatures

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24
Q

What are the four bacterial growth phases?

A
  1. lag
  2. log
  3. stationary
  4. decline
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25
Q

During this phase, there is no increase in the number of bacterial cells

A

Lag phase

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26
Q

What happens during the log phase of bacterial growth?

A

Bacteria grow logarithmically or very rapidly

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27
Q

In what bacterial growth phase does the reproductive rate equal the death rate of bacterial cells?

A

Stationary phase

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28
Q

What bacterial growth phase begins when cells start dying because of the accumulation of waste materials and depletion of nutrients?

A

Decline phase

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29
Q

What microorganisms can live and grow in the presence of free oxygen?

A

aerobic microorganisms

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30
Q

What microorganisms can grow only in the absence of oxygen?

A

anaerobic microorganisms or anaerobes

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31
Q

What are the two ways water exists in foods?

A

“bound” and “free” water

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32
Q

Which water is held by large molecules in the food and, therefore, cannot be used by microorganisms?

A

Bound water

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33
Q

Which water is available to microorganisms for their metabolic activities

A

Free water

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34
Q

What is the measurement of the availability of water for chemical reactions and microbial metabolism in food called?

A

“water activity” (Aw)

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35
Q

What is a halophilic bacteria?

A

(salt-loving) bacteria

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36
Q

What are the three methods typically used to lower Aw?

A

Foods are:
1. Dried or dehydrated
2. Frozen
3. Adding solutes (salt or sugar)

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37
Q

What does a microorganism at optimum temperature for growth provide?

A

For the microorganism to grow at lower Aw values

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38
Q

What substance is a catalyst that breaks down substrates such as carbohydrates, fats, and proteins in foods?

A

Enzymes: either enzymes from the food itself or enzymes from microorganisms in the food

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39
Q

What food process are beneficial enzymes involved in?

A

ripening fruits and vegetables

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40
Q

What items in the food industry inhibit enzymes in foods?

A

Preservatives, antibiotics, inhibitors, poisons, and insecticides

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41
Q

What does it indicate if phosphatase is found in milk?

A

The efficiency of the milk pasteurization was poor

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42
Q

What are carbohydrates and proteases used for in the baking industry?

A

Converting proteins to amino acids for improving the dough in baking

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43
Q

What are some examples of undesirable microorganism changes?

A

If bacteria like Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella typhimurium, Clostridium perfringens, or Clostridium botulinum are allowed to grow in foods, people consuming them may get sick

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44
Q

Besides microbial flora and natural inhibitors, which other prominent factor has an impact on microbial activity?

A

Nutrients

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45
Q

Which chemical can be added to food to adjust the potential hydrogen (pH)?

A

acetic acid or citric acid

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46
Q

Which describes facultative microorganisms?

A

Microorganisms that can grow with or without oxygen in the environment

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47
Q

Which describes the water activity value of a food?

A

Total availability of water in a food for chemical reactions.

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48
Q

What are the favorable temperatures for Salmonella growth?

A

40 to 115ºF (4−46ºC)

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49
Q

How soon after the ingestion of Salmonella contaminated foods will illness symptoms occur?

A

6 and 72 hours, with an average of 12 to 36 hours

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50
Q

What are the symptoms of a streptococcal infection transmitted through food?

A

red sore throat, high fever, and vomiting

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51
Q

What is a common inhabitant of the intestinal tract of cattle, swine, sheep, chickens, turkeys, and other animals such as dogs, cats, rodents, and monkeys?

A

C. jejuni

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52
Q

What are the symptoms if a person is infected with C. jejuni?

A

nausea, abdominal cramps, headache, fever, and diarrhea which might be bloody if severe

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53
Q

What are the manifestations of Listeria monocytogenes?

A

Meningitis, abortion, prenatal septicemia, permanent mental deficiency, or death

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54
Q

Why is L. monocytogenes an important pathogen?

A

Its distribution in the environment, ability to survive for long periods of time under adverse conditions, and ability to grow while under refrigeration

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55
Q

What is a realistic and satisfactory positive control for an internal cooking temperature for pork products?

A

170ºF (77ºC)

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56
Q

What is the most common cause of foodborne intoxications?

A

Bacteria

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57
Q

How is the toxin produced from Staphylococcus organisms destroyed?

A

Nothing will destroy it

58
Q

What causative agent lives in decaying matter, soil, lake silt, and is often found in animal intestinal tracts?

A

C. botulinum

59
Q

Cooked meats and poultry have been the chief offender in foodborne illness outbreaks for what organism?

A

C. perfringens

60
Q

What are the symptoms of C. perfringens foodborne illness?

A

Acute abdominal pain, gas, diarrhea, chills, and fever

61
Q

In a refrigerated storage unit, what is the best control measure for cooling foods until the ideal temperature is reached?

A

Leave foods uncovered

62
Q

Which disease is more common than both salmonellosis and shigellosis?

A

Campylobacter enteritis

63
Q

Which toxin is considered “heat stable”?

A

Staphylococcal foodborne intoxication

64
Q

Which toxin causes a descending symmetrical flaccid paralysis which may progress until there is complete respiratory paralysis?

A

Botulism

65
Q

What factors must be present for a foodborne illness to occur?

A

An agent, a vehicle, a susceptible consumer, and an abuse of a food handling procedure

66
Q

What factors determine the effect a food pathogen has on an individual?

A

The person’s size, age, present health, eating habits, and dose of the pathogen

67
Q

How often should you exercise your bases foodborne illness investigation plan?

A

Annually

68
Q

What organization develops a notification plan or recall roster in case of a foodborne illness outbreak?

A

MTF

69
Q

What must be present first for a foodborne illness to occur?

A

Infective agent or pathogen

70
Q

What should the patient interview identify after an outbreak of a foodborne illness?

A

A common meal or facility

71
Q

After notification of a foodborne illness, when should a sanitary evaluation be conducted at a suspected facility?

A

Immediately after interviewing patients and finding a common facility, meal, or food

72
Q

What two PH teams collect food samples after a foodborne illness?

A

Patient interview and collecting food sample team

73
Q

Where can you get help investigating a foodborne illness, if you are overwhelmed?

A

AFIOH/SDE

74
Q

On what form do you record food history for each individual interviewed?

A

AF Form 431

75
Q

Which agent causes over 68 percent of foodborne illnesses?

A

bacterial agent

76
Q

Which are the two types of samples collected during a foodborne illness outbreak investigation?

A

Human and food samples

77
Q

What does the bacteria metabolizing sugars in foods produce?

A

Levans and dextrans

78
Q

What conditions does flavor deteriorative include?

A

Rancidity, putrefaction, souring, and gassing

79
Q

What causes rancidity in meats?

A

Hydrolysis or oxidation

80
Q

What is putrefaction?

A

A type of spoilage where bacteria metabolize meat proteins or free amino acids

81
Q

What causes a sour flavor in meat?

A

Anaerobic bacteria metabolize carbohydrates in meats causing lactic acid that brings down the pH and develops a sour flavor

82
Q

How does the “greening” of meat occur?

A

Bacteria such as Lactobacillus viridescens produce hydrogen peroxide. Hydrogen peroxide is a strong oxidizing agent that degrades the meat pigment turning it green

83
Q

How is the greening organisms destroyed during processing?

A

Cooking the meat to an internal temperature of 160F (71ºC)

84
Q

Describe “green rings” as it pertains to meats

A

Green rings are similar to green cores except that the greening occurs in rings at varying depths within the meat

85
Q

Why doesn’t surface greening occur in vacuum packed meats?

A

Since the bacteria are aerobic, surface greening usually does not occur on vacuum packaged meats while still packaged

86
Q

How does slime appear on nonvacuum packaged meats?

A

In characteristic beads that are sticky to the touch and give off odors sometimes described as yeast-like

87
Q

Why should meats with molds be discarded or trimmed?

A

Some molds produce carcinogenic substances known as aflatoxins that are extremely toxic

88
Q

Hydrolysis or oxidation in meats is caused by

A

oxygen reacting with fats

89
Q

Which causes putrefaction spoilage in meats?

A

Bacteria reacting with amino acids

90
Q

Which produces aflatoxins

A

Mold

91
Q

At 32ºF (0ºC) how long can fresh fish be kept?

A

Seven days

92
Q

After death explain what causes the typical fishy odor in fish?

A

Trimethylamine: breakdown of the fat or proteins in the fish due to enzyme and bacterial action

93
Q

Why does fish struggling before being caught cause the pH to be higher?

A

The glycogen is depleted which is usually broken down into lactic acid that lowers the pH. With the glycogen depleted, fewer amounts of lactic acid are produced causing the pH to be higher

94
Q

The glycogen in fish is broken down to lactic acid causing

A

lower pH, limiting bacterial growth

95
Q

Explain the formation of an egg

A

1st: egg yolks are formed in the hen’s ovaries
2nd: the yolk passes down the hen’s oviduct where
layers of egg white are added
3rd: further down the oviduct the membranous tissue along with calcium
and minerals are added to form the shell.

96
Q

How is knowing the formation of an egg helpful?

A

It helps to explain some defects of eggs

97
Q

Why are shell eggs porous?

A

Allow gases to pass in and out of the egg

98
Q

Which bacteria is found in the reproduction tract of chickens?

A

Salmonella enteriditis

99
Q

Most organisms that affect the flavor of milk belong to what species and coliform?

A

Pseudomonas
Flavobacterium
Chromobacterium
Alcaligenes

100
Q

What is some spoilage problems associated with soft serve ice cream?

A

Time between pasteurization and consumption, temperature abuse, and possible contamination

101
Q

What is the most common spoilage organisms associated with cheese?

A

Molds, yeasts, and anaerobic spore formers that can oxidize lactate and various protein and fat products

102
Q

What can cause gas production during cheese processing?

A

Using raw milk, inadequate heat treatment, and contamination after pasteurization, and slow acid
production by the starter bacteria such as Streptococcus lactis.

103
Q

Which product does not usually have spoilage problems since there is not much time
between its pasteurization and freezing?

A

Hardened ice cream

104
Q

Most vegetable spoilage is caused by

A

bacteria

105
Q

Which is the predominant fruit spoilage organism?

A

Molds

106
Q

Most organisms grow easily between which degrees Fahrenheit?

A

61 and 100

107
Q

In thermal or heat processing most organisms start to die at which degrees Fahrenheit?

A

179

108
Q

In thermal or heat processing temperatures of at least what will start to kill pathogenic bacteria?

A

140

109
Q

Newer cans have which type of seam?

A

Top

110
Q

A process using heat treatment to either eliminate pathogenic organisms or eliminate
other organisms to extend the product’s shelf life

A

pasteurization

111
Q

temperature below 212 degrees F

A

pasteurization

112
Q

temperature of or above 212 degrees F

A

sterilization

113
Q

At which degrees Fahrenheit is milk kept for 30 minutes making it a holding method pasteurizing for milk?

A

145

114
Q

At which degrees Fahrenheit is milk kept for 15 seconds making it a flash method pasteurizing for milk?

A

161

115
Q

At which degrees Fahrenheit is milk kept for three seconds making it an ultra-high
temperature (UHT) pasteurizing for milk?

A

207

116
Q

A heat treatment that is generally applied to fruits and vegetables primarily to inactivate the natural food enzymes.

A

blanching

117
Q

Acetic acid usually lowers the potential hydrogen (pH) level in catsup, salad dressings, and
pickles to which level or below?

A

5.0

118
Q

Which method is becoming more cost effective to use as a food preservation technique?

A

Irradiating

119
Q

Which organization accumulates data and tries to find answers to very important questions
such as, “Will food irradiation create an environment in which microorganisms can adapt and
flourish?”

A

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

120
Q

Nitrates and nitrites are added to foods, such as meats, to

A

fix the color

121
Q

any substance the intended use of which results or may
reasonably be expected to result directly or indirectly in its becoming a component or otherwise
affecting the characteristics of any food

A

food additive

122
Q

Preserving food by adding salts or other substances to inhibit microbial growth. The process
alters the food’s color, flavor, texture, as well as susceptibility to microbes

A

Curing

123
Q

Means the container is impermeable to or not allowing the entry of gases and vapors

A

Hermetic

124
Q

Also prevents the entry of microorganisms, but is permeable to or allows the entry of gases

A

Nonhermetic

125
Q

Which function or requirement must food containers meet to ensure foods are protected?

A

Protect against moisture, gas, odor, and light.

126
Q

Most cans are made of

A

steel

127
Q

Which metal has a lower chance for atmospheric corrosion and is easier to shape into cans?

A

Aluminum

128
Q

Most common defect associated with cans

A

dents

129
Q

Occurs when at least one side of a can is
flattened or collapsed

A

paneling

130
Q

A can that appears normal but has little or no vacuum (critical defect)

A

flipper

131
Q

Similar to the flipper, except one end of the can is always distended

A

Springer

132
Q

Which type of critical defect occurs when both ends of a can are distended at the same
time?

A

Sweller

133
Q

opposite of a paneled can

A

buckled

134
Q

Which is not true of glass used in food packaging?

A

Must be treated, coated, or laminated to improve its protective qualities.

135
Q

Which guide is used for food storage, determining shelf life and humidity requirements of
both perishable and semiperishable foods?

A

DODR 4145.19–R–1, Storage and Materials Handling

136
Q

The long standing rule for proper food rotation is

A

first in, first out

137
Q

Which happens to food when it’s stored in high levels of humidity?

A

Absorbs the water

138
Q

Which happens to food when it’s stored in low levels of humidity?

A

dry out and shrink

139
Q

Which is an indicator that a freezer has air leaking in or out of a door seal?

A

Ice around the door.

140
Q

Refers to foods that are canned, dried, dehydrated, or otherwise processed to
the extent that the items may, under normal conditions, be stored without being refrigerated

A

semiperishable

V.3 (4 decks)

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