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MLT 106 Bloodbank > Unit 1: Cells & Soluble mediators & Serologic Procedures > Flashcards

Unit 1: Cells & Soluble mediators & Serologic Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

The response of the body to pathogens involves ___ among many immune cells

A

cross-talk

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2
Q

What are the primary phagocytic cells?

A

polymorphonuclear neutrophilic leukocytes

mononuclear monocytes-macrophages

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3
Q

What are the steps in phagocytosis?

A 
chemotaxis
adherence
engulfment
digestion
subsequent phagocytic activity
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4
Q

Each of the granulocytic leukocytes begin as _____ in the bone marrow

A

multipotential stem cell

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5
Q

What are the primary/central lymphoid organs?

A 
thymus
bone marrow (or fetal liver)
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6
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid tissues?

A 
lymph nodes
spleen
GALT
thoracic duct
BALT
SALT
blood
mature lymphs & accessory cells
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7
Q

What are the cells which recognize foreign antigens?

A

T lymphs

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8
Q

T cells are derived from ___ and mature in the ____

A

bone marrow, thymus

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9
Q

What aids in the creation of B1 cells?

A

CD5 marker

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10
Q

Besides the bone marrow, where else can B cells be derived from?

A

GALT

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11
Q

What is the function of plasma cells?

A

the synthesis and excretion of immunoglobulins

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12
Q

What do B & T cells mature into?

A

effector cells

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13
Q

What are the inhibitory proteins of the complement system?

A 
C1 inhibitor
Factor H
Factor I
C4BP
Anaphylatoxin inhibitor
Anaphylatoxin inactivator
MAC inhibitor
C3 nephritic factor
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14
Q

What are the physical consequences of complement activations?

A

blood vessel dilation

increased vascular permeability

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15
Q

What are the cellular consequences of complement activation?

A 
inflammatory mediators
cytosis
hemolysis
opsonization
phagocytosis
mediating hypersensitivity reactions
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16
Q

Increased complement levels are often associated with…

A

inflammatory conditions
trauma
acute illnesses (MI)

17
Q

How can complement components (C3 & C4) be assessed by?

A

nephelometry

18
Q

Evaluation of C3b and C3d complement components is useful in the investigation of…..

A

hemolytic transfusion reactions

autoimmune hemolytic anemias

19
Q

What are the acute phase reactants?

A

CRP
Inflammatory mediators (C3 and C4)
fibrinogen
transport proteins

20
Q

Why is CRP prominent among the acute phase proteins?

A

its changes show great sensitivity

changes are independent of ESR and parallel to the inflammatory process

21
Q

CRP is a _____ and _____ measure of the acute phase reaction

A

direct and quantitative

22
Q

CRP assessment is useful in monitoring the following conditions…

A 
rheumatoid arthritis
bacterial infections
rheumatic fever
crohn's disease
MI
strong predictor of cardiovascular events than LDL cholesterol
23
Q

Describe the CRP rapid latex agglutination test…

A

CRP antigen reacts with CRP antibody, if particles are coated, the antibody is present or vice versa

24
Q

What is serologic testing diagnostic for?

A

viral and bacterial diseases

25
Q

What are common serologic and immunologic tests?

A

pregnancy tests for hCG and tests for mono and syphilis

26
Q

What is the term for aggregation of soluble test antigens?

A

precipitation

27
Q

What are examples of artificial carriers?

A

latex particles and colloidal charcoal
cells unrelated to the antigen
whole bacterial cells

28
Q

What forms during a flocculation test?

A

fine particle precipitates

29
Q

What are the syphilis serologic tests?

A

VDRL (tests antibody-like protein)

RPR (tests antigen)

30
Q

Direct agglutination of pathogens can be used to detect…

A

antibodies directed against the pathogens

31
Q

How does treatment with proteolytic enzymes enhance agglutination?

A

it alters the zeta potential or dielectric contsant

32
Q

How does the use of colloids enhance agglutination?

A

adjusts the zeta potential of cells for IgG antibodies

33
Q

What are the techniques to enhance agglutination?

A

centrifugation
treatment with proteolytic enzymes
use of colloids
AHG testing

34
Q

What agglutination grade is dark and turbid with many tiny agglutinates, free cells and may not be visible without microscope?

A

W+

35
Q

What agglutination grade is clear with several large agglutinates and few free cells?

A

3+

36
Q

What agglutination grade is turbid with many small agglutinates and many free cells?

A

1+

37
Q

What causes cross reactivity during pregnancy testing?

A

the fact that LH, FSH and TSH is identical to alpha subunit

38
Q

What can cause false positives during a pregnancy test?

A

hCG injection
Chorioepithelioma
Hydatidiform mole
excessive ingestion of aspirin

39
Q

In pregnancy testing, a negative result can be evidenced by what?

A

agglutination

MLT 106 Bloodbank (5 decks)

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