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H HB > UNIT 1 > Flashcards

UNIT 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between a somatic cell and a germline cell?

A

somatic is any cell in the body other than cells involved in reproduction, its diploid

Germline cell are gametes and the stem cell that divides to form gametes. its haploid

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2
Q

What is the difference between haploid and diploid chromosome complement?

A

Haploid cells have 23 single chromosomes (one set of chromosomes) , while diploid cells have 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes.(2 sets of chromosome = 46 single)

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3
Q

What type of cell division is carried out by a somatic stem cell ?

A

Mitosis to produce more somatic cells.

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4
Q

What type of cell division is carried out by a Germline stem cell ?

A

-Divide by mitosis to produce more germline stem cells.
- Divide by meiosis to produce haploid gametes

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5
Q

Describe the process of meiosis.

A

Meiosis involves two divisions :
1- first separate homologous chromosomes and
2- then separate chromatids.

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6
Q

Describe the process of differentiation.

A

Differentiation is the process by which a cell expresses certain genes to produce proteins characteristic of that cell type, allowing it to carry out specialized functions.

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7
Q

Why are cells of the very early embryo described as pluripotent?

A

Cells in the very early embryo are pluripotent, meaning they can differentiate into all the cell types that make up the individual.

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8
Q

What is the role of tissue stem cells?

A

Tissue stem cells are involved in the growth, repair, and renewal of the cells found in that tissue.

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9
Q

Why are tissue stem cells described as multipotent, and give an example?

A

Tissue stem cells are multipotent, meaning they can differentiate into all the cell types found in a particular tissue.

such as blood stem cells located in bone marrow producing red blood cells, platelets, and lymphocytes.

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10
Q

Describe therapeutic and research uses of stem cells.

A

Stem cells have therapeutic uses in repairing damaged or diseased organs,
and research uses in studying disease development and drug testing.

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11
Q

What are possible ethical issues of using embryonic stem cells?

A

the use of embryonic stem cells can offer effective treatment for injuries however it involves the destruction oif embryos.

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12
Q

Describe how cancer cells form , develop and spread throughout the body?

A

Cancer cells divide excessively as they don’t respond to regulatory signals .

this leads to a mass of abnormal cells known as tumour.

The cells within the tumour may fail to attach and spread throughout the body forming a secondary tumour.

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13
Q

Describe the structure of DNA.

A

DNA is two strands twisted to form a double helix

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14
Q

Identify the parts of a DNA nucleotide.

A

A DNA nucleotide is made up of a phosphate, deoxyribose sugar, and one of the four DNA bases.

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15
Q

Name the component which is found at the 3’ end and at the 5’ end of a nucleotide.

A

The deoxyribose sugar is found at the 3’ end,

the phosphate is found at the 5’ end of a nucleotide.

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16
Q

Explain how DNA nucleotides join to form a strand of DNA.

A

The nucleotides bond the sugar to the phosphate to form the sugar-phosphate backbone of the DNA strand.

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17
Q

Explain why the DNA strands are described as antiparallel.

A

The DNA strands run at the opposite direction

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18
Q

State the base pairing rule between the DNA bases.

A

Adenine pairs with thymine, and guanine pairs with cytosine.

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19
Q

Name the type of bond which forms between DNA bases.

A

Hydrogen bonds

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20
Q

State when DNA replication occurs.

A

DNA is replicated prior to cell division.

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21
Q

Name the enzyme that replicates DNA.

A

DNA Polymerase

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22
Q

Describe the structure and function of a primer.

A

A primer is a short strand of nucleotides that binds to the 3’ end of the template DNA strand,

allowing DNA polymerase to add new DNA nucleotides.

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23
Q

Describe how DNA unwinds and unzips to form two template strands.

A

Prior to replication, the DNA double helix is unwound and the hydrogen bonds between the bases are broken, forming two template strands.

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24
Q

Name the end of the new DNA molecule which DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to.

A

DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3’ end of the new DNA strand.

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25
Q

Explain why the leading strand is replicated continuously and the lagging strand is replicated in fragments.

A

because DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides in the 5’ to 3’ direction.

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26
Q

Name the enzyme which joins the fragments of the lagging strand.

A

DNA Ligase

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27
Q

Describe the role of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).

A

PCR amplifies DNA using complementary primers for specific target sequences.

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28
Q

Describe the structure and function of a primer used in PCR.

A

primers are short strands of nucleotides that are complementary to specific target sequences at the two ends of the region of DNA to be amplified.

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29
Q

Describe the process of PCR?

A

1- DNA is heated to between 92°C and 98°C to separate the strands
2- It is then cooled to between 50°C and 65°C to allow primers to bind to specific target sequences.
3- It is then heated to between 70°C and 80°C for heat tolerance DNA polymerase to replicate the target region of DNA

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30
Q

Give examples of practical applications of PCR.

A

PCR can be used to amplify DNA to help solve crimes, settle paternity suits, and diagnose genetic disorders.

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31
Q

Explain how macromolecules, such as DNA fragments, can be separated using electrophoresis.

A

as DNA is negatively charged and is attracted towards a positive charge, with the smaller fragments traveling further in the gel.

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32
Q

Describe the structure of RNA.

A

RNA is single-stranded and composed of nucleotides containing ribose sugar, phosphate, and one of four bases.

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33
Q

Compare the structure of RNA to the structure of DNA.

A

DNA is double-stranded and contains deoxyribose sugar and thymine, while RNA is single-stranded and contains ribose sugar and uracil.

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34
Q

Describe the role of mRNA.

A

Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries a copy of the DNA code from the nucleus to the ribosome for protein synthesis.

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35
Q

State the term used to describe each triplet of bases on mRNA.

A

Each triplet of bases on mRNA is called a codon and codes for a specific amino acid.

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36
Q

Describe the role of tRNA.

A

Transfer RNA (tRNA) carries its specific amino acid to the ribosome.

37
Q

Describe the structure of tRNA.

A

tRNA has an anticodon (triplet of bases) at one end and an attachment site for an amino acid at the other end.

38
Q

State the term used to describe each triplet of bases on tRNA.

A

an anticodon.

39
Q

Describe how ribosomes are formed.

A

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) combines with proteins to form the ribosome.

40
Q

State the location of transcription within a cell.

A

Nucleus

41
Q

Describe how RNA polymerase synthesises a primary transcript of mRNA.

A

RNA polymerase moves along DNA, unwinding the double helix and synthesizing a primary mRNA transcript by complementary base pairing.

42
Q

State the base pairing rule between the DNA template and the primary transcript.

A

RNA polymerase synthesizes the primary mRNA transcript by complementary base pairing with the DNA template.

43
Q

Compare exons and introns.

A

Exons are the coding regions retained, while introns are the non-coding regions removed during RNA splicing.

44
Q

State the location of RNA splicing within a cell.

A

Nucleus

45
Q

Describe the process of RNA splicing.

A

RNA splicing forms a mature mRNA transcript by removing non-coding introns and joining the coding exons.

46
Q

State the location of translation within a cell.

A

Cytoplasm

47
Q

Name the type of codon which begins translation and the type of codon which ends translation.

A

Translation begins at a start codon and ends at a stop codon.

48
Q

Describe how the genetic code is translated into a sequence of amino acids.

A

Anticodons on tRNA bond to codons on mRNA, translating the genetic code into a sequence of amino acids.

49
Q

Name the type of bond which forms between adjacent amino acids.

A

Peptide Bonds

50
Q

Name the molecule produced following translation.

A

Polypeptide chain (protein)

51
Q

Explain how different proteins can be expressed from one gene from alternative RNA splicing.

A

Different mature mRNA transcripts can be produced from the same primary transcript, allowing for the expression of different proteins from a single gene.

52
Q

Explain why proteins have a three-dimensional shape.

A

The shape determines its function

53
Q

Explain how phenotype is determined.

A

Phenotype is determined by the proteins produced from gene expression, influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.

54
Q

Describe what is meant by a genetic mutation.

A

Mutations are changes in DNA that can result in no protein or an altered protein.

55
Q

Describe the possible alterations to DNA nucleotide sequences that could result in a single gene mutation.

A

Single gene mutations involve substitution, insertion, or deletion of DNA nucleotides.

56
Q

Compare missense, nonsense and splice site mutations.

A

Missense change one amino acid,

nonsense produce a premature stop codon,

and splice site affect inclusion of exons/introns in mRNA.

57
Q

Describe the possible alterations to DNA nucleotide sequences that could result in a frame shift mutation.

A

Nucleotide insertions or deletions cause frame-shift mutations, changing all codons and amino acids after the mutation.

58
Q

Explain why chromosome structure mutations are often lethal.

A

The chromosome structure is altered

59
Q

Describe the following chromosome structure mutations- duplication, deletion, inversion and translocation.

A

Mutations include duplication (addition),
deletion (removal),
inversion (reversal),
and translocation (addition to non-homologous chromosome) of chromosome sections

60
Q

State the term used to describe an organism’s entire hereditary information encoded in their DNA.

A

A Genome

61
Q

Describe the makeup of an organism’s genome.

A

A genome consists of genes that code and other non-coding DNA sequence

62
Q

Describe the purpose of bioinformatics.

A

Bioinformatics uses analyses to identify gene and amino acid sequences from genomic data.

63
Q

Explain how the analysis of an individual’s genome can lead to personalised medicine.

A

An individual’s genome sequence can guide selection of effective drugs and dosage for their disease.

64
Q

Describe metabolic pathways found within cells.

A

Metabolic pathways are integrated, enzyme-catalyzed reactions with reversible, irreversible, and alternative steps.

65
Q

Compare anabolic and catabolic reactions.

A

“Anabolic reactions build large molecules from small ones and require energy,
while
catabolic reactions break down large molecules and release energy.”

66
Q

Describe how metabolic pathways are controlled and their rate regulated.

A

They are controlled by the presence/absence of enzymes, and their rate is regulated by key enzyme activity.

67
Q

Describe the role of the active site during an enzyme-controlled reaction.

A

it orientates substrate molecules so they fit more closely

68
Q

Compare the affinity of the substrate and the product for the active site.

A

The substrate has high affinity, while the product has low affinity, allowing it to leave the active site.

69
Q

Describe what happens during induced fit.

A

Induced fit is when the active site changes shape to better fit the substrate, lowering activation energy and temperature.

70
Q

Explain why the rate of reaction increases then stays the same as the substrate concentration increases.

A

there are no more active sites available therefore no effect on rate of reaction

71
Q
  • Describe the changes to the rate and direction of metabolic pathway when the product concentration increases/decreases.
A

“High product concentration decreases rate and drives the pathway in reverse,
while
low product concentration increases rate and drives the pathway forward.”

72
Q

Compare competitive and non-competitive enzyme inhibitors.

A

“Competitive inhibitors bind the active site, and can be reversed by increasing the substrate concentration
while
Non-competitive inhibitors bind elsewhere and change the active site shape. and CAN NOT be reversed”

73
Q

Identify a type of inhibitor from a graph.

A

From the graph, a competitive inhibitor can be identified as its effect is reversible by increasing substrate.

74
Q

Describe what happens during end product inhibition.

A

In end product inhibition, the final product inhibits an earlier enzyme, blocking the pathway and preventing further synthesis.

75
Q

Describe the role of ATP in the transfer of energy.

A

ATP transfers energy to cellular processes requiring energy.

76
Q

Describe the role of ATP in the phosphorylation of molecules.

A

ATP phosphorylates glucose and intermediates during glycolysis.

77
Q

Name the part of the cell where glycolysis occurs.

A

Cytoplasm

78
Q

Describe the process of glycolysis.

A

Glycolysis breaks down glucose to pyruvate.

79
Q

Describe what happens to pyruvate in aerobic conditions.

A

pyruvate forms acetyl coenzyme A.

80
Q

Name the part of the mitochondria where the citric acid cycle occurs.

A

Matrix of mitochondria

81
Q

Describe the citric acid cycle.

A

The citric acid cycle converts acetyl groups to oxaloacetate, generating ATP and CO2.

82
Q

Describe the role of dehydrogenase enzymes during glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.

A

Dehydrogenases remove H+ and e- to form NADH in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.

83
Q

Name the coenzyme which passes hydrogen ions and electrons to the electron transport chain.

A

NAD passes H+ and e- to the electron transport chain.

84
Q

Name the part of the mitochondria where the electron transport chain occurs.

A

Inner Mitochondrial Membrane

85
Q

Describe the electron transport chain

A

The electron transport chain pumps H+ across the membrane to drive ATP synthesis.

86
Q

Describe what happens in muscle cells during vigorous exercise.

A

Describe what happens in muscle cells during vigorous exercise.

87
Q

Explain how lactate can be converted back to pyruvate.

A

After exercise, the oxygen debt is repaid, allowing the liver to convert lactate back to pyruvate and glucose.

88
Q

Name the organ which converts lactate to pyruvate.

A

The liver

89
Q

Compare slow and fast twitch muscle fibres.

A

=- Slow: contract slowly but sustain contraction for longer,
Whereas
Fast: contract quickly but sustain for shorter.

  • Slow: is useful for endurance activities such as long distance or cycling, Whereas Fast: such as sprinting or weightlifting
  • Slow : have many mitochondria , high blood supply and high concentration of myoglobin ,Whereas,
    Fast: have few mitochondria and low blood supply
  • Slow : rely in aerobic respiration
    Whereas,
    Fast: rely on glycolysis
  • Slow: major storage fuel is fat
    Whereas Fast : major storage fuel is glycogen

H HB (3 decks)

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