Unit 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Phosphorylation Cascades

A

Involve a series of events with on kinase activating the next and so on.
Phosphorylation cascades can result in the phosphorylation of many proteins.

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2
Q

G-Proteins

A

Relay signals from activated receptors to target proteins such as enzymes and ion-channels

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3
Q

Process of a peptide/hydrophilic hormone

A

Reception- Transmembrane receptors change conformation when the ligand binds to the extracellular face; the signal is transduced across the plasma membrane.

Transduction- Transmembrane receptors act as signal transducers by converting the extracellular signals which alters the behaviour of the cell.

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4
Q

Hydrophilic Signalling

A

Hydrophilic signals molecules bind to transmembrane receptors so do not enter the cytosol.

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5
Q

Process of A Steroid Hormone

A

Steroid hormone passes across the plasma membrane.

The hormone binds to the receptor protein activates it.

the hormone receptor complex binds to the hormone response elements.

Binding at the HRE influences the rate of transcriptions.

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6
Q

What are the receptors for hydrophobic signalling molecules

A

Transcription Factors

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7
Q

Transcription Factors

A

Proteins that when bound to DNA can either stimulate/inhibit initiation of transcription.

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8
Q

Hydrophobic signalling

A

Hydrophobic signalling molecules can diffuse directly through the phospholipid bi-layer of the membrane, so bind to intracellular receptors.

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9
Q

How are cells ‘Switched on’

A

Binding changes the conformation of the receptor which initiates a response within the cell.

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10
Q

Receptor Molecules

A

Proteins with a binding site for specific signal molecules.

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11
Q

Examples of extracellular signalling molecules

A

Steroid hormones- Vitamin D
Peptide Hormones- Insulin

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12
Q

What drives the active transport of glucose in the small intestine.

A

The sodium gradient created by the sodium potassium pump drives the active transport of glucose

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13
Q

Sodium Potassium Pump

A

1- The transporter protein has its ion binding sites exposed to the cytoplasm. The protein has a high affinity for Na+ ions and 3 Na+ ions bind to the sites.

2- When the sodium ions are attached, the transporter protein is able to hydrolyse ATP. The phosphate attaches to the protein to phosphorylate it and this causes a conformational change.

3- This new conformation has its ion binding sites exposed to the outside of the cell, because it has a lower affinity for Na+ ions, they are released outside the cell.

4- This new conformation has a high affinity for K+ ions and 2 K+ ions bind to the proteins outside the cell, this triggers dephosphorylation.

5- Dephosphorylation causes the protein to revert to its original conformation with its binding sites exposed to the cytoplasm.

Step 6- This conformation has a low affinity for K+ ions so the are released into the cell.

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14
Q

How does the sodium potassium pump gain energy and what is its use for it.

A

Using energy from the hydrolysis of ATP to maintain ion gradients.

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15
Q

Membrane Potential

A

An electrical potential difference.

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16
Q

What enzymes hydrolyse ATP

A

ATPases

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17
Q

How does active transport go against the gradient

A

Using pump proteins that transfer substances across the membrane.
Pump proteins are transporter proteins that are coupled to an energy source.

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18
Q

Transporter Proteins

A

Bind to specific substance to be transported and undergo a conformational change to transfer the solute across the membrane.

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19
Q

Voltage-Gated Channes

A

Controlled by changes in ion concentration.

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20
Q

Ligand Gated Channels

A

Controlled by the binding of signal molecules.

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21
Q

Channels

A

Multi sub unit proteins with the sub units arranged to form water filled pores that extend across the membrane

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22
Q

Facilitated Diffusion

A

The passive transport of substances across the membrane through specific transmembrane proteins.

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23
Q

How are peripheral proteins held.

A

They have hydrophilic R groups on their surface and are bound to the surface membranes, mainly by ionic and hydrogen bond interactions.

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24
Q

What holds integral proteins in the bi-layer.

A

regions of hydrophobic R groups that allow strong hydrophobic intercations.

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25
Q

What term is used to describe the cell membrane.

A

Fluid Mosaic Model

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26
Q

What charge does a phosphate group add.

A

Negative Charge

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27
Q

Phosphotases

A

Catalyses the removal of a phosphate group.

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28
Q

Kinases

A

Catalyses the transfer of a phosphate group to other proteins.

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29
Q

What does the addition/removal of a phosphate cause in proteins.

A

Causes reversible conformational change.

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30
Q

How does pH and temp affect co-operativity of haemoglobin.

A

Decrease in pH/ increase in temp lowers affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen so binding of 02 is increased.
This means oxygen delivery to tissues is increased.

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31
Q

How is co-operativity shown in haemoglobin

A

The binding and release of oxygen

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32
Q

Process of modulators

A

Following binding of a modulator the conformation of the enzyme changes and this alters the affinity of the active site.

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33
Q

What do positive modulators do

A

Increase enzymes affinity for the substrate

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34
Q

What do negative modulators do

A

Decrease enzymes affinity for the substrate.

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35
Q

Function of modulators

A

To regulate the activity of an enzyme when it binds to the allosteric site

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36
Q

What structure do allosteric proteins have

A

Quaternary structure and consist of multiple sub units.

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37
Q

Denaturation

A

Increased temp disrupts interactions that hold proteins in shape, protein begins to unfold eventually becoming denatured.

As pH increases or decreases from optimum the ionic interactions between charged groups are lost which changes the conformation of the protein, it becomes denatured.

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38
Q

What happens when a substrate binds to the allosteric site.

A

It increases the affinity of the other active sites for binding of subsequent substrate molecules.

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39
Q

Ligand binding process

A

As a ligand binds to the protein binding site the conformation of the protein changes. This change in conformation causes a functional change of the protein.

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40
Q

What do binding sites have to ligands

A

Complementary shape and chemistry

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41
Q

Ligand

A

A substance that can bind to a protein.

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42
Q

Quaternary protein structure

A

Exists in proteins with 2 or more connected polypeptide sub units.
The spatial arrangements of said sub units is the quaternary structure.

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43
Q

Di-Sulfide Bridges

A

Covalent bonds between R groups containing Sulfur.

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44
Q

Tertiary Protein Structure

A

The polypeptide folds, this conformation is stabilised by R group interactions:
Hydrophobic interactions, ionic bonds, LDF’s, hydrogen bonds and disulfide bridges.

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45
Q

Secondary Protein Structure

A

Hydrogen bonding along the backbone of the protein strand results in regions of secondary structure;

Alpha Helices, Parallel or anti-parallel beta plated sheets, turns.

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46
Q

Primary Protein Structure

A

Sequence in which the amino acids are synthesised onto the polypeptide.

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47
Q

What are the three different types of R groups.

A

Basic (positive charge)

Acidic (negative charge)

Polar (hydrophobic)

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48
Q

How do R groups differ

A

Shape, charge, hydrogen, bonding capacity and chemical reactivity.

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49
Q

Examples of secreted proteins

A

Digestive Enzymes
Peptide Hormones

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50
Q

How do proteins become active after secretion

A

Through proteolytic cleavage, breaking peptide bonds between the amino acids in the protein.

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51
Q

Secretory Pathway

A

1- proteins that have to be secreted are translated in the ribosomes on the RER. They enter the lumen.

2- The proteins move through the Golgi Apparatus as normal and are packaged into vesicles.

3- The vesicles move to the membrane and fuse with it, releasing their contents into the cell

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52
Q

What are the major modifications of the proteins

A

The addition of complex carbohydrates, cutting/combining of strands, addition of phosphate groups.

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53
Q

Movement of proteins between membranes

A

Once the proteins are in the ER, they are transported by vesicles that bud off from the endoplasmic reticulum and fuse with the Golgi apparatus. As proteins move through the G.A they undergo post translational modifications. Vesicles move along microtubules to other membranes and fuse with them within a cell.

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54
Q

Synthesis of transmembrane proteins

A

The synthesis of all transmembrane proteins begins at the cytosolic ribosomes;

  1. A polypeptide that will become part of a transmembrane protein starts with a short strand of about 20 amino acids called a signal sequence. When the signal sequence emerges from the ribosome a cytosolic particle binds to it and halts translation.

2.The particle also directs the ribosome to dock with a protein pore on the endoplasmic reticulum thus forming Rough ER.

  1. After docking, the protein pore removes the cytosolic particle and the signal sequence so translation can continue.
  2. As it is translated the polypeptide chain is inserted directly into the membrane of the ER. The ribosome is released back into the cytosol once translation finishes.
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55
Q

Vesicles

A

Vesicles are fluid filled sacs which transport materials between different membrane components.

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56
Q

Lysosomes

A

Membrane bound organelles containing a variety of hydrolases that digest proteins, lipids, nucleic acid and carbohydrates.

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57
Q

Golgi Appartus

A

A series of flattened membrane discs.
Its job is to process proteins to be used inside and outside the cell.

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58
Q

Endoplasmic Reticulum

A

The ER forms a network of membrane tubules that branch off from the nuclear membrane.

It folds proteins and transports completed proteins to the Golgi apparatus.

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59
Q

Why can some vital functions not be carried out by them membrane in eukaryotes.

A

Because the plasma membrane is too small.

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60
Q

What do eukaryotes have due to their size.

A

Eukaryotes have a small surface area to volume ratio.

61
Q

What do eukaryotic cells have to increase total area.

A

System of internal membranes.

62
Q

Factors affecting proteins expressed.

A

Cellular Stress

Metabolic activity of the cell.

Response to signalling molecules.

Diseased vs Healthy cells.

63
Q

Non Coding RNA Genes

A

Genes that do not code for proteins, that are transcribed to produce tRNA, rRNA and RNA.

64
Q

Proteome

A

The entire set of proteins expressed by a genome.

65
Q

How to calculate concentration of cells using a haecytometer

A

Multiply LxBxDepth x10,000 to get cm3

Cells along top/right boundary are counted

66
Q

What is a hemocytometer used for

A

To count cell density

67
Q

What proteins are added to cell culture

A

Growth factors are proteins that promote cell growth and proliferation. Growth factors are essential for culture of animal cells.

68
Q

Examples of aceptic techniques

A

Sterilization of equipment and culture media by heat or chemical means.

69
Q

How is a microbial culture setup

A

Innoculum of microbial cells on an agar medium or in a broth with suitable nutrients.

70
Q

What is the purpose of aseptic techniques.

A

Eliminates unwanted microbial contaminants when culturing microorganisms or cells.

71
Q

Fluorescence microscopy

A

Uses specific fluorescent labels to bind to and visualize certain molecules or structures within cells and tissues.

72
Q

Bright field microscopy

A

Commonly used to observe whole organisms, thin sections of tissues or individual cells.

73
Q

Western blotting

A

A technique used after SDS page. The separated proteins are transferred to a solid medium.

74
Q

Immunoassay techniques

A

Used to detect and identify specific proteins. Where an antibody specific to the protein antigen is linked to a chemical label.

75
Q

Centrifugation

A

Rapid revolution of a liquid in which more dense components settle in the pellet whereas less dense remain in the supernatant.

76
Q

What is a risk assessment

A

The identification of control measures to minimize the risk.

77
Q

What are examples of control measures

A

Appropriate handling techniques, protective clothing, protective equipment, aseptic technique.

78
Q

What are some hazards in labs

A

Toxic chemicals
Corrosive chemicals
Flammable substances
Pathogenic organisms

79
Q

Gel Electrophoresis

A

Uses a current flowing through a buffer to separate molecules by size and charge and shape.
Molecules are in their (native) folded state.

80
Q

SDS page

A

Uses a current flowing through a buffer to separate proteins based on size alone. Molecules are in their non-native (unfolded) state.

81
Q

What is a ligand

A

Molecules that bind specifically to another molecule.

82
Q

What is a proteins iso-electric point

A

The pH at which a protein has no charge so is insoluble.

83
Q

How to use iso electric point to separate proteins

A

Proteins at their iso-electric point are insoluble. This means that they will form a solid. They will be able to be separated from soluble proteins in a liquid at that point.

84
Q

Affinity chromatography

A

1- A solid matrix or gel column is created with specific molecules bound to the matrix or the gel.

2- Soluble, target proteins in a mixture with a high affinity for these molecules becomes attached to them.

3- Other non target proteins with a weaker affinity are washed out.

4- The column is then washed with a buffer which lowers the affinity of target molecules allowing them to be collected.

85
Q

How is a buffer used with iso-electric point.

A

If the solution is buffered to a specific pH only the proteins that have an IEP at that pH will precipitate.

86
Q

Paper/Thin layer chromatography

A

Used for separating substances such as amino acids and sugars.
The speed at which each solute travels along the chromatogram depends on its solubility in the solvent used.

87
Q

Colorimeter

A

The colorimeter is used to quantify the concentration of a pigmented compound.

Passes a light beam at a specific wavelength through a cuvette causing a simple solution.

88
Q

What is a buffer

A

A solution that can resist pH change upon the addition of an acidic or base components.

89
Q

Standard curves

A

Graphs or lights absorbance against concentration which can be used to figure out the solute concentration in unknown samples.

90
Q

Linear dilutions

A

Dilutions that differ by an equal interval for example

0.1, 0.2, 0.3 and so on

91
Q

Log dilution series

A

Differ by a constant proportion for example

0.1, 0.01, 0.001 and so on

92
Q

Risk

A

The likely hood of harm arising from exposure to a hazard

93
Q

How is GLUT-4 recruited.

A

Binding of insulin to its receptor causes a conformational change that triggers phosphorylation of the receptor. This starts a phosphorylation cascade inside the cell, which eventually leads to GLUT4-containing vesicles being transported to the cell membrane.

94
Q

How is diabetes type 1 caused

A

Diabetes mellitus type 1 can be caused by failure to produce insulin

95
Q
A

Diabetes mellitus type 2 is caused by loss of receptor function

96
Q

How can the uptake of glucose be increased

A

By exercise triggering the recruitment of GLUT-4.

97
Q

Resting membrane potential.

A

a state where there is no net flow of ions across the membrane

98
Q

What does a nerve impulse require to take place

A

Changes in the membrane potential of the neurons plasma membrane.

99
Q

Action potential

A

is a wave of electrical excitation along a neuron’s plasma membrane

100
Q

Process of a nerve impulse.

A

Binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptor triggers the opening of ligand gated ion channels at at synapse.

Positive ions enter the cell and there is depolarization of the plasma membrane.

Adjacent voltage gated sodium channels are opened.

When the action potential reaches the end of the neuron it causes vesicles containing neurotransmitters to fuse with the membrane, this releases neurotransmitter, which stimulates are response in the connecting cell.

If sufficient ion movement occurs, and the membrane is depolarized beyond a solution threshold value, the opening of voltage gated sodium channels is triggered and sodium ions enter the cell down their electrochemical gradient.

This leads to a rapid and large change in the membrane potential.

A short time after opening the sodium channels become inactivated.

Voltage gated potassium channels then open to allow potassium ions to move out of the cell to restore the resting membrane potentials.

101
Q

Restoration of resting membrane potential.

A

allows the inactive voltage-gated sodium channels to return to a conformation that allows them to open again in response to depolarisation of the membrane.

102
Q

How are ion concentration gradients re established after nerve impulses

A

Ion concentration gradients are re- established by the sodium-potassium pump, which actively transports excess ions in and out of the cell.

103
Q

Retina

A

Area within the eye that detects light.

104
Q

Two types of photoreceptor cells

A

Cones and Rods

105
Q

Rods

A

Rods function in dim light but don’t allow colour perception.

106
Q

Cones

A

Are responsible for colour vision and only function in bright light .

107
Q

How are photoreceptors in the eye formed.

A

Light sensitive molecules Retinal is combined with membrane protein opsin.

108
Q

How is photo excited rhodopsin formed

A

Retinal absorbs a photon of light and rhodopsin changes concentration.

109
Q

What type of molecule is activated by photo-excited rhodopsin.

A

Activates hundreds of molecules of a G-Protein called transducin.

110
Q

What does transducin activate.

A

One molecule of the enzyme photodiesterase.

111
Q

Function of photodiesterase

A

Catalyses the hydrolysis of a molecule called Cyclic GMP at a rate of a thousand molecules per second.

112
Q

What does the reduction of cGMP affect

A

This results in the closure of ion channels in the membrane of the rod cells, which triggers nerve impulses in neurons in the retina.

113
Q

How can rod cells respond to low intensities of light.

A

It has a very high degree of amplification.

114
Q

What colour/wavelength do cone cells have a sensitivity to.

A

Red, blue, green or UV.

115
Q

Function of the cytoskeleton

A

The cytoskeleton gives mechanical support and shape to cells and transports molecules along the cytosol.

116
Q

What are microtubules made of

A

Alpha tubulin and Beta tubulin

117
Q

Where do microtubules originate from

A

Microtubule organizing centre(MTOC)/ centrosome

118
Q

What is the function of microtubules

A

control of the movement of membrane-bound organelles and chromosomes

119
Q

How do microtubules form and breakdown

A

Polymerization and depolymerization of tubulin.

120
Q

What role do microtubules play during cell division

A

They form the spindle fibers.

121
Q

What is the first phase of the cell cycle

A

Interphase

122
Q

What are the three stages of interphase

A

G1, S, G2

123
Q

What occurs during G1

A

Growth phase

124
Q

What occurs during S phase

A

DNA replication

125
Q

What happens during G2 phase

A

Further growth

126
Q

What are the 6 stages of mitosis

A

Mitosis consists of prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase and cytokinesis.

127
Q

Prophase

A

— DNA condenses into chromosomes each consisting of two sister chromatids. Nuclear membrane breaks down; spindle microtubules extend from the MTOC by polymerisation and attach to chromosomes via their kinetochores in the centromere region.

128
Q

Metaphase

A

Chromosomes are aligned at the metaphase plate (equator)

129
Q

Anaphase

A

as spindle microtubules shorten by depolymerisation, sister chromatids are separated, and the chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles.

130
Q

Telophase

A

the chromosomes decondense and nuclear membranes are formed around them.

131
Q

Cytokinesis

A

the cytoplasm is separated into two daughter cells.

132
Q

What is a checkpoint in cells.

A

Checkpoints are mechanisms within the cell that assess the condition of the cell during the cell cycle and halt progression to the next phase until certain requirements are met.

133
Q

What are cyclins function

A

Cyclins combine with and activate cyclin- dependent kinases (CDKs). Active cyclin- CDK complexes phosphorylate proteins that regulate progression through the cycle. If sufficient phosphorylation is reached, progression occurs.

134
Q

What occurs at the G1 checkpoint

A

retinoblastoma protein (Rb) acts as a tumour suppressor by inhibiting the transcription of genes that code for proteins needed for DNA replication

Phosphorylation by G1 cyclin-CDK inhibits the retinoblastoma protein (Rb)

This allows transcription of the genes that code for proteins needed for DNA replication.

135
Q

What happens at the G2 checkpoint

A

the success of DNA replication and any damage to DNA is assessed

136
Q

During the G2 checkpoint what happens if DNA damage is detected

A

DNA damage triggers the activation of several proteins including p53 that can stimulate DNA repair, arrest the cell cycle or cause cell death.

137
Q

What happens at the metaphase checkpoint

A

At the metaphase checkpoint, progression is halted until the chromosomes are aligned correctly on the metaphase plate and attached to the spindle microtubules.

138
Q

What does an uncontrolled reduction in cell cycle rate result on

A

A degenerative condition such as MS

139
Q

What does an uncontrolled increase in the cell cycle result in

A

Cancers and Tumor formation

140
Q

Porto-oncogene

A

is a normal gene, usually involved in the control of cell growth or division, which can mutate to form a tumour- promoting oncogene.

141
Q

How is apoptosis triggered

A

Apoptosis is triggered by cell death signals that can be external or internal.

142
Q

Example of internal death signal

A

DNA damage

143
Q

Example of an external death signal

A

Signal molecules from lymphocytes

144
Q

How are external death signals caused

A

External death signal molecules bind to a surface receptor protein and trigger a protein cascade within the cytoplasm

145
Q

Caspases

A

Type of protease enzymes that cause destruction of the cell.

146
Q

What happens in the absence of growth factors

A

Apoptosis

147
Q

p53 protein

A

A protein that acts as a tumor suppressor and regulates cell division.

148
Q

Electrochemical Gradient

A

Electrochemical gradient) is a combination of the concentration gradient.
AND
Potential/charge difference (across the plasma membrane)/membrane potential.

149
Q

Monoclonal

A

An antibody derived from a single cell line