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UK ATC APP > UK APP > Flashcards

UK APP Flashcards

1
Q

What are the privileges of an APP rating?

A

Entitles the holder to provide an ATC service for arriving, departing, and transiting aircraft without the use of surveillance equipment.

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2
Q

What endorsements are there for the APP rating?

A

None

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3
Q

What is the definition of Suspension?

A

To place a licence, or its rating(s), in abeyance, with conditions set

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4
Q

What is the definition of Revocation?

A

The act of withdrawing a licence, or its associated rating(s)

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5
Q

What must be on a licence?

A
  • State issuing Licence
  • Title
  • Licence number
  • Name, DOB, address, nationality and signature of the holder
  • Name of competent authority
  • Validity and date of first issue
  • Signature of issuing officer
  • Stamp of competent authority
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6
Q

What is the definition of Just Culture?

A

A culture in which front line operators or others are not punished for actions, omissions or decisions taken by them which are commensurate with their experience of training but where gross negligence, wilful violations and destructive acts are not tolerated

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7
Q

What is the definition of a non-instrument runway?

A

A runway intended for the operation of aircraft using visual approach procedures

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8
Q

What is the definition of an instrument runway?

A

A runway intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures

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9
Q

What is the definition of the ACN/PCN system?

A

A system providing a method of classifying pavement bearing strength for aircraft above 5700kg MTOM from the standpoint of the stresses exerted by aircraft loads on pavements.

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10
Q

What are the types of Precision/Non-Precision approach?

A 
Precision
• PAR
• RNP (AR)
• ILS
• MLS
Non-Precision
• NDB
• VOR
• GNSS
• SRA
• ILS (LLZ only)
• VDF
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11
Q

What is the definition of a precision approach?

A

An instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation.

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12
Q

What is the definition of a non-precision approach?

A

An instrument approach and landing which utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance.

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13
Q

At what point should all flights be stabilised (recommended)?

A

1000ft – IMC / 500ft – VMC (above aerodrome elevation)

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14
Q

When is an approach “stabilised”?

A 
Aircraft on correct flightpath
• Small control inputs only required
• Aircraft in correct landing configuration
• Sink rate no greater than 1000ft/min
• All briefings/checks complete
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15
Q

What are the five segments of an instrument approach and where do they begin/end if applicable?

A
  1. Arrival
  2. Initial – IAF to IF
  3. Intermediate – IF to FAF/FAP
  4. Final – FAF/FAP to MAPt
  5. Missed
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16
Q

What is a STAR?

A

Standard Terminal Arrival Route, which allows an aircraft to transition from the en-route to the approach phase ending at the IAF

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17
Q

When there is no suitable straight in approach what is used?

A
  • Racetrack
  • Reversal
  • Holding Procedure
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18
Q

What are the three phases of the missed approach?

A
  • Initial – MAPt to Start of Climb
  • Intermediate – SOC to 150ft obstacle clearance
  • Final – 150ft obstacle clearance to point where new approach/hold/en route begins
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19
Q

What can constitute a MAPt?

A
  • DH/DA or MDA/MDH
  • Navigation facility
  • FIX
  • Specified distance from FAF/FAP
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20
Q

Are TCAS manoeuvres in the horizontal plane?

A

NO – Vertical only

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21
Q

Can an aircraft have an RA on another aircraft with no transponder?

A

No

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22
Q

Would you routinely pass traffic information to an aircraft subject to a TCAS TA?

A

No, only if requested – might not be the traffic you think it is

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23
Q

When are Increase Descent RAs inhibited?

A

Below 1450ft AGL

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24
Q

When are all descent RAs inhibited?

A

Below 1100ft AGL

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25
Q

When are all RAs inhibited?

A

Below 1000ft AGL (also in event of W/S or GPWS)

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26
Q

When are all spoken messages (aural alerts) inhibited?

A

Below 500ft AGL

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27
Q

Is ATC responsible for separation of aircraft during a TCAS RA?

A

No, only resume responsibility when aircraft reports clear of conflict and resuming previous clearance or a new heading/level

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28
Q

How many ATC units may have control of an aircraft at one time?

A

Only 1 unless control is delegated following coordination

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29
Q

What is required for control of an aircraft to be passed from one unit to another

A

Receiving unit must give consent

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30
Q

When is responsibility for an arriving aircraft transferred from Approach to Aerodrome?

A 
When the aircraft is:
• In the vicinity of the aerodrome and the approach will be completed with visual reference to the ground
• Already in uninterrupted VMC
OR
• Landed
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31
Q

When is responsibility for a departing aircraft transferred from Aerodrome to Approach?

A

When VMC:
• Prior to aircraft leaving vicinity of aerodrome
• Prior to aircraft entering IMC

When IMC:
• Immediately before entering runway in use for take-off
• Immediately after aircraft is airborne

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32
Q

Can an aircraft be transferred directly from ACC to Tower?

A

Yes, following prior agreement between units concerned

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33
Q

When is responsibility for an arriving or departing aircraft transferred from Approach to ACC?

A

When the aircraft is released from/to the ACC

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34
Q

What information shall be disseminated by an ATCU about an unmanned free balloon?

A
  • Flight Identification/project name
  • Balloon classification/description
  • SSR code or NDB frequency
  • Launch site
  • ETD or planned period of launches
  • Direction of ascent
  • Cruising level
  • EET to pass 60,000ft or to reach cruising level if below 60,000ft, together with est. location
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35
Q

What is the definition of an air report?

A

A report from an aircraft in flight in conformity with requirements for position, and operational and/or meteorological reporting

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36
Q

What is the definition of a reporting point?

A

A specified geographical location in relation to which the position of an aircraft can be reported

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37
Q

What is the definition of a significant point?

A

A specified geographical location used in defining an ATS route or the flight path of an aircraft and for other navigation and ATS purposes

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38
Q

When does a controlled flight not need to pass a position report?

A

When exempted by:
• ATS authority
• ATC unit under conditions specified by that authority

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39
Q

On a route not defined by significant points, when shall position reports be made?

A

ASAP after the first 30min of flight, then every hour after that

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40
Q

What shall a position report include?

A

A.C ident. / Position / Time / FL or Altitude / Next position and estimate for that point

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41
Q

Between what flights shall separation be applied?

A
  • All flights in class A and B airspace
  • IFR in class C, D and E airspace
  • IFR and VFR in class C airspace
  • IFR and SVFR
  • SVFR (unless exemption from authority)
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42
Q

Are IFR flights separated in class F airspace?

A

No – instructions given to assist in achieving separation from other known aircraft

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43
Q

Who is responsible for separation in class G airspace?

A

The pilot

44
Q

When is standard separation increased?

A
  • When requested by the pilot
  • When ATCO considers it necessary
  • When directed by the authority
45
Q

What are the actions to be taken in the event of a loss of separation?

A
  • Use every means to obtain required separation with least possible delay
  • Pass essential traffic information if required
46
Q

How is longitudinal separation applied?

A
  • Requiring aircraft to depart at a specific time
  • Requiring aircraft to lose time to arrive at a point at a specified time
  • Requiring aircraft to hold over a point until a specified time
47
Q

What is the definition of Same Track?

A

Same direction tracks and intersecting tracks (or portions thereof), the angular difference of which is less than 45º or more than 315º, and whose protection areas overlap.

48
Q

What is the definition of Reciprocal Track?

A

Opposite direction tracks and intersecting tracks (or portions thereof), the angular difference of which is more than 135º or less than 225º, and whose protection areas overlap

49
Q

What is the definition of Crossing Track?

A

Intersecting tracks (or portions thereof), the angular difference of which is other than those specified for Same Track or Reciprocal Tracks.

50
Q

What is contained within a release message?

A
  • Aircraft ident / type / point of departure
  • Release point
  • ETA and level at the holding facility
  • Estimated Approach Time
  • Contact point
51
Q

What is the definition of Windshear?

A

A sustained change in wind velocity along the aircraft flight path which occurs significantly faster than the aircraft can accelerate/decelerate

52
Q

What is contained within an ATIS?

A
  • Aerodrome
  • Arrival/Departure ATIS
  • Code Letter
  • Time
  • Type of approach
  • Runway in use
  • Surface conditions
  • Breaking action
  • Transition level
  • Essential operational info
  • Surface wind
  • Visibility/RVR
  • Present weather
  • Significant Cloud
  • Temperature
  • Dew point
  • Altimeter setting
  • Local significant met. Phenomena
  • Trend
  • ATIS instructions
53
Q

What is contained within a SIGMET?

A
  • Thunderstorms/CBs
  • Heavy Hail
  • Freezing Rain
  • Severe Icing
  • Severe turbulence
  • Tropical Cyclone
  • Severe Mountain Waves
  • Heavy dust/sandstorm
  • Volcanic Ash Cloud
54
Q

What is the definition of the transition Level?

A

The lowest Flight Level available for use above the Transition Altitude. It is a min. of 1000ft apart

55
Q

When shall EATs be issued?

A

When a delay is likely before commencing an approach (usually >10min)

56
Q

What is the definition of a Holding Pattern?

A

A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft within a specified airspace while awaiting further clearance

57
Q

Which direction of turn is a standard holding pattern?

A

Right Hand

58
Q

What is the holding axis?

A

The required inbound track to the holding fix.

59
Q

What are the normal holding speeds you would expect to see below 14000ft?

A
  • CAT A&B – 170 KIAS

* CAT C, D&E – 230 KIAS

60
Q

How long is an outbound leg?

A

1min, 1.5min above 14000ft

61
Q

What are the three types of entry procedure?

A
  • Direct – Sector 3
  • Offset – Sector 2
  • Parallel – Sector 1
62
Q

What is the standard separation from a holding pattern?

A

5 minutes flying time

63
Q

What is essential Traffic Information?

A

That controlled traffic to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight, is not separated by the required minima

64
Q

What is essential local traffic?

A

Essential local traffic consists of any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take-off and climb-out area or the final approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraft.

65
Q

When shall essential traffic information be given?

A

Given to controlled flights concerned whenever they constitute essential traffic to each other

66
Q

What are the requirements for issuing VMC climb/descent?

A
  • Requested by one pilot and agreed by another
  • When prescribed by competent authority in Class D and E airspace
  • Pilot must maintain own separation for specific portion of the flight
  • Must be below 10000ft
  • During day only
  • During VMC only
67
Q

What shall essential traffic information include?

A
  • Direction of flight
  • Type of aircraft (with wake if applicable)
  • Cruising level
  • Estimated time over a reporting point nearest to where level will be crossed
68
Q

What is the purpose of aerodrome lighting?

A

To provide the pilot with:

  • Location
  • Orientation
  • Alignment
69
Q

What is the purpose of Approach lighting?

A 
To provide the pilot with:
 - Alignment
 - Roll Guidance
 - Limited Distance to go
In order to complete an instrument approach visually
70
Q

Cat 1 App Minima

A

DH: Not lower than 200ft
Visibility: Not less than 800m or
RVR not less than 550m

71
Q

Cat 2 App Minima

A

DH: Lower than 200ft but not less than 100ft
Visibility: Not less than 300m

72
Q

Cat 3A App Minima

A

DH: Less than 100ft, or

no DH and RVR not less than 175m

73
Q

Cat 3B App Minima

A

DH: Lower than 50ft, or

No DH and RVR less than 175m but not less than 50m

74
Q

Cat 3C App Minima

A

No DH and No RVR Limitations

75
Q

What is the range of PAPIs?

A

15 degrees either side of extended centreline, out to 15nm

76
Q

What colour will an airfield identification beacon flash?

A

Civil land aerodrome - green
Civil water aerodrome - yellow
Military aerodrome - red

77
Q

Cat 1 App Lighting system

A 
Red stopend
Yellow caution runway edge lighting 600m from end
5 Bar Approach lighting
Green threshold lights
At least one set of PAPIs
78
Q

Cat 2/3 Lighting system

A

Red stopend
Coded centreline - red 300m from end, alternating red and white 600m prior to red
5 Bar Approach lighting, supplementary lighting
Green threshold wingbar
At least one set of PAPIs
Touchdown zone lighting

79
Q

5 bar High intensity approach lighting

A

900m from touchdown point

Bar every 150m

80
Q

Simple approach lighting system

A

One bar 300m from threshold
At least 420m of lighting
Extended centreline lights at least 60m apart

81
Q

What is TORA?

A

Take-off Run Available
Length of the runway available for the taking off of aircraft - normally corresponds to the length of the runway pavement

82
Q

What is TODA?

A

Take-Off Distance Available
The length of the TORA plus any clearway
If no Clearway, TORA=TODA

83
Q

What is Clearway?

A

An area beyond the TORA that is free of obstacles, over which an aircraft can safely transit from lift-off to required obstacle clearance height.
Ends at the first obstacle (unless frangible under 0.9m height) or terrain (slope depending on ad category)
If no Clearway, TORA=TODA

84
Q

What is Stopway?

A

A defined rectangular area on the ground
at the end of the TORA
prepared as a suitable area in which an
aircraft can be stopped in the case of an
abandoned take-off.
Must have same width as runway.
Does not need to have same strength as runway but does need to be capable of supporting aircraft.

85
Q

What is ASDA?

A

TORA + Stopway

86
Q

What is LDA?

A

Landing Distance Available

Shorter than TORA if there is a displaced threshold

87
Q

What is RESA?

A

Runway End Safety Area

Provided at the end of each runway to minimise risks of aircraft overshooting

Twice the width of the runway

88
Q

An accepting unit shall notify a transferring unit of:

A

Establishing two-way voice or data comms
Assuming control
(Unless otherwise specified in an agreement)

89
Q

On routes defined by designated significant

points, when shall position reports be made?

A

Over, or as soon as possible after passing, each designated compulsory reporting point

90
Q

to whom shall position reports be made?

A

The ATS unit responsible for the airspace

Additionally, the last position report before passing
from one FIR or CTA to an adjacent FIR or CTA shall
be made to the ATS unit serving the airspace about
to be entered.

91
Q

What is an exact reporting point?

A
  • Overheard a VOR
  • Overhead an NDB
  • A position established by two VOR radials and notified as a reporting point
  • A position established by a VOR radial and an NDB bearing and notified as a reporting point
  • A position established by a VOR radial and notified DME
  • A published RNAV point
92
Q

What are the two types of Lateral Separation?

A

Track

Geographic

93
Q

What is the Time-based separation for aircraft who are
Same Level
Same track

A

15 mins
Unless navigation aids permit frequent checks of posn, then:
10 mins
If preceding ac is maintaining TAS 20kts+ then:
5 mins
If preceding ac is maintaining 40kts+ then:
3 mins

94
Q

What is the Time-based separation for aircraft who are
Same Level
Crossing Track

A

15 mins
Unless navigation aids permit frequent checks of posn, then:
10 mins

95
Q

What is the Time-based separation for aircraft who are
Climbing or Descending
Same track

A

15 mins whilst vertical separation doesn’t exist
Unless navigation aids permit frequent checks of posn, then:
10 mins

96
Q

What is the Time-based separation for aircraft who are
Climbing or Descending
Crossing Track

A

15 mins whilst vertical separation doesn’t exist
Unless navigation aids permit frequent checks of posn, then:
10 mins
If level change is commenced within 10 mins of second ac reporting over an exact reporting point, then:
5 mins

97
Q

What is the Time-based separation for aircraft who are

Reciprocal Tracks

A

10 mins prior to and after time estimated to have passed, or time estimated to pass.

If it is confirmed that both ac have passed (visual report or use of exact reporting point) then this minimum does not apply

98
Q

What is the Distance-based separation for aircraft who are
Same Level
Same track

A

20nm
If first ac has TAS 20kts+ than second, then:
10nm

99
Q

What is the Distance-based separation for aircraft who are
Same Level
Crossing Track

A

Same track minima applies if:

  • Each ac reports distance from same point
  • Angle between tracks is <90 degrees (converging, crossing behind)
100
Q

What is the Distance-based separation for aircraft who are
Climbing or Descending
Same track

A

10nm, providing one ac maintains level flight

101
Q

What is the Distance-based separation for aircraft who are

Reciprocal Tracks

A

10nm, once it has been established that the ac have positively passed

102
Q

What is the VOR lateral separation?

A

Both ac on radials diverging by at least 15 degrees, and at least one ac is 15nm from facility

103
Q

What is the NDB lateral separation?

A

Both ac on bearings diverging by at least 30 degrees, and at least one ac is 15nm from facility

104
Q

What is the Geographical lateral separation?

A

Ac posn reports indicate over different geographical locations determined visually or by a nav aid

105
Q

What is VOR/GNSS or GNSS/GNSS lateral separation?

A

Each ac is confirmed to be on radial/track with 0 degree offset between two waypoints, and at least one ac is a minimum distance from common point

UK ATC APP (3 decks)

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