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UK ATC APP > APP Oral Exam > Flashcards

APP Oral Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the objectives of air traffic services?

A

(1) prevent collisions between aircraft;
(2) prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area;
(3) expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic;
(4) provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights;
(5) notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required

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2
Q

What do Aerodrome control co-ordinate with Approach?

A
  1. Departing IFR flights
  2. Arriving aircraft making their first call on tower frequency (unless they are transferred to Approach control)
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3
Q

What shall approach control coordinate with Aerodrome?

A
  1. aircraft approaching to land; if necessary requesting landing clearance
  2. arriving aircraft which are to be cleared to visual holding points
  3. aircraft routing through the traffic circuit
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4
Q

When shall Aerodrome control transfer control of aircraft to approach?

A
  1. In VMC, prior to the aircraft leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome, or prior to the aircraft entering IMC
  2. In IMC, immediately after the aircraft is airborne.
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5
Q

What do we advise pilots of regarding LVPs?

A

The implementation and cancellation of them

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6
Q

When do we pass traffic information to aircraft?

A

Traffic information and instructions shall be passed to aircraft on any occasion that a controller considers it necessary in the interests of safety, or when requested by a pilot.

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7
Q

What is Essential Aerodrome Information?

A

Information concerning the state of the manoeuvring area and its associated facilities that may constitute a hazard to a particular aircraft. It shall be issued to pilots in sufficient time to ensure the safe operation of aircraft. This may include the provision of urgent information to pilots during take-off or landing runs.

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8
Q

What would constitute Essential Aerodrome Information?

A
  1. Construction work or maintenance on the manoeuvring area
  2. Rough portions of the manoeuvring area and whether marked or not
  3. failure of irregular functioning of Aerodrome lighting system. Pilot is responsible for deciding whether this affects his flight
  4. Failure or irregular operation of approach aids
  5. Aircraft parked close to the runways or taxiways and aircraft engaged in ground running of engines
  6. depth of snow layers on runways and taxiways, snow piled or drifted on the manoeuvring area, melting now and slush, rutted ice and snow.
  7. In snow or ice conditions, information concerning sweeping and/or sanding of runways and taxiways
  8. Reports on the estimated braking action
  9. Bird formations or individual large birds on the manoeuvring area or in the vicinity of the aerodrome. Also bird dispersal action taking place
  10. Warnings on presence of water on runways
  11. Information on the location and operational status of any arrester gear.
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9
Q

How long after ATD are you supposed to leave the aerodrome open?

A

15 minutes after ATD to allow for aircraft having to return

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10
Q

When must the runway lighting be on?

A

By day= High intensity lighting must be used when Vis is less than 5000m and or cloud base is less than 700ft

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11
Q

What happens in the event of a laser attack on a pilot?

A

Where local arrangements have not been established, controllers should take the following actions whenever a report of a laser attack upon an aircraft is received:

(1) Acknowledge the report from the pilot;
(2) Seek as much information regarding the incident as possible from the pilot, including: (a) the time of the attack; (b) altitude and position at the time of the attack; (c) description of the laser light i.e. colour, whether continuous or pulsing etc; (d) any avoiding action taken; (e) any impact upon vision / concentration.
(3) Anticipate the need for the pilot to adopt manoeuvres/operational techniques to minimise the impact on the aircraft;
(4) Dial 999, and pass all relevant information to the local police;
(5) Warn pilots of other aircraft in the vicinity that laser activity has been reported. The duration of providing these warnings will be stated in MATS Part 2;
(6) Record the details in the ATC watch log and report the occurrence

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12
Q

What should you do if subjected to a malicious laser attack?

A
  1. Look away from beam
  2. Shield eyes and consider using sun blinds
  3. Advise aircraft that your are subject to laser attack
  4. Avoid rubbing eyes
  5. Consider increasing ambient light levels to minimise effects
  6. Consider handing over to a colleague
  7. Inform a supervisor who can then inform aerodrome operator and police
  8. Record event in the ATC watch log.
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13
Q

What is wind shear?

A

A sustained change in wind velocity along the aircraft flight path, which occurs significantly faster than the aircraft can accelerate or decelerate

Can occur at any level

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14
Q

Why is wind shear on approach especially dangerous?

A

Because the aircraft is in a critical phase of flight close to the ground where there is not much room for error

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15
Q

What conditions would you expect to bring wind shear?

A
  1. The presence of frontal/squall/thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of the aerodrome
  2. The presence of low level inversions where the surface wind will be significantly different from that at only a few hundred feet above the ground
  3. Local terrain or buildings considered in relation to wind speed and direction; such large obstructions can cause wind shear as well as the more usual turbulence and gusts
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16
Q

What do we do on receipt of a report of windshear?

A

Relay the information to subsequent outbound and inbound flights until confirmation is received that the windshear no longer exists

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17
Q

What should a windshear report from a pilot include?

A
  1. A warning of the presence of windshear
  2. The height or height band where it was encountered
  3. The time at which it was encountered
  4. Details of the effect on the aircraft, eg speed loss/gain, vertical speed tendencies, change in drift
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18
Q

When is the minimum visibility reported?

A

When there is a reported vis in any direction that is below 1500m or less than 50% of the prevailing visibility.

If there is more than one minimum vis than only report the most operationally significant.

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19
Q

When do we pass the instant wind?

A

When the pilot requests it.

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20
Q

In what increments is RVR reported?

A

25m up to 400m

50m between 400-800m

100m above 800m

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21
Q

What is the minimum RVR reportable?

A

50m

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22
Q

What is the maximum RVR reportable?

A

2000m

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23
Q

When are IRVR values passed?

A

At the beginning of each approach to land, changes must be passed until a/c lands

And must be passed before take-off

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24
Q

How would you transmit the RVR?

A

“RVR runway 26, 650-500-550 metres”

If there are only 2 they have to be identified individually;

“RVR runway 26, touchdown 650, stop end 550 metres”

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25
Q

Can you provide RVR is two transmissometeres are U/S?

A

Yes provided the remaining one is not the stop-end otherwise it would be U/S (in this case you would just change runways making the stop-end the touchdown)

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26
Q

Can a controller pass information that suggests that the RVR is better than that reported?

A

No

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27
Q

Can a controller pass information suggesting that the RVR is worse than that being reported?

A

yes

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28
Q

Name some runway contaminants

A
  • Water
  • Ice
  • Snow
  • Slush
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29
Q

What does dry mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

Surface not affected by water, slush, snow or ice

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30
Q

What does Damp mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

When the surface shows a change of colour due to moisture

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31
Q

What does wet mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

When the surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water are visible

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32
Q

What does water patches mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

When significant patches of standing water are visible (ie. more than 25% of the runway surface is covered by water more than 3mm deep)

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33
Q

What does flooded mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

When extensive standing water is visible (more than 50% of the runway surface is covered by water more than 3mm deep)

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34
Q

When can you pass unofficial information regarding changes in the runway state?

A

only when conditions get worse,

never report them as better than they are.

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35
Q

What is the phraseology for the passing of unofficial reports of runway state?

A

Unofficial observation from the control tower/pilots report. The runway surface condition appears to be damp, damp, damp

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36
Q

What effects can water have on aircraft operations?

A
  • Additional drag
  • Possibility of power loss or system malfunction due to spray impingement
  • Reduced wheel-braking performance
  • Directional Control problems
  • Possibility of structural damage.
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37
Q

What changes to runway contaminents are condsidered significant?

A
  • Any change in surface deposit eg snow to slush, or water to ice
  • Changes in depth greater than;
    20mm for dry snow
    10mm for wet snow
    3mm for slush
  • Any change in available length or width of runways of 10% or more
  • Any change which requires reclassification in item F of a Snowtam
  • Any change in the distances apart of snow banks.
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38
Q

When must measurements of runway contaminent be commenced?

A

As soon as the presence of snow, slush, ice and associated standing water is detected or observed and is expected to be operationally significant.

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39
Q

Define dry snow

A

Snow which can be blown loose or, if compacted by hand, will fall apart again

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40
Q

Define wet snow

A

Snow which if compacted by hand will stick together in a snowball

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41
Q

Define compacted snow

A

Snow compresses into solid mass resists further compression, either holds together or breaks up if picked up

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42
Q

Define slush

A

A water saturated snow which, with a heel toe slap down, will be displaced with a splatter.

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43
Q

What is a visual approach?

A

An approach conducting by an aircraft with visual reference to the surface in VMC. IFR conducting a visual approach remain IFR even though they are conducting a visual manoeuvre.

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44
Q

Who is responsible for decisions regarding the operational status of the aerodrome including the apron and manoeuvring area?

A

Aerodrome Operator

This includes

  1. Routine operational limits, eg runway maintenance
  2. Unforeseen hazards to aircraft ops eg obstructions and deteriorating surface conditions
  3. The closure and re-opening of the aerodrome
  4. The withdrawal of runways, taxiways and associated lighting
  5. the revision of declared distances
  6. any markings in connection with the above
  7. Initiating NOTAM action to promulgate changes in serviceability.
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45
Q

What is the aerodrome operator responsible for in regards to restricted operations?

A

They are responsible for decisions regarding the operational status of the aerodrome including;

1) Routine operational limitations, eg runway maintenance

2) unforeseen hazards to aircraft operations, e.g. deteriorating surface conditions, obstructions etc. Specifically, the Aerodrome Operator will make decisions regarding:
(a) the closure or re-opening of the aerodrome;
(b) the withdrawal or return to use of runways, taxiways and associated lighting aids;
(c) the revision of declared distances;
(d) any marking required in connection with the above;
(e) initiating NOTAM action to promulgate changes in serviceability.

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46
Q

What is the definition of vis during the day?

A

The greatest distance at which a black object of suitable dimensions, situated near the ground, can be seen and recognized when observed a black background.

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47
Q

What is the definition of vis at night?

A

The greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1000 candelas can be seen and identified against an unlit background.

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48
Q

What is the definition of ground visibility?

A

The visbility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer or automatic systems.

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49
Q

What is the definition of Flight visibility?

A

The visibility forward from the cockpit of an a/c in flight.

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50
Q

What is the CAA’s definition of night (ANO 2016 schedule 1)

A

Half an hour after sunset until half an hour before sunrise

Determined at surface level

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51
Q

What is the definition of VMC?

A

Meterological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling equal to or better than specified minima.

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52
Q

What is the definition of IMC?

A

Meteorlogical conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling less than the minima specified for VFR

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53
Q

What is the definition of an ATZ?

A

Airspace of defined dimensions established around an aerodrome for the protection of aerodrome traffic.

Radius of 2nm if runway length less than 1850m otherwise radius of 2.5nm

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54
Q

Define Cloud Ceiling

A

From an aerodrome the vertical distance from the elevation of the aerodrome to the base of any cloud layer visible from the aerodrome sufficient to cover half of the sky.

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55
Q

Define an Aerodrome

A

A defined area (including any buildings, installations and equipment) on land or water, or on any fixed, off-shore or floating structure intended to be used either wholly or partly for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft.

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56
Q

Define an ATCU

A

ANO Art 255- A unit established by a person appointed by a person maintaining an aerodrome or place to provide an ATC service.

MATS 1- A generic term meaning variously, area control centre, approach control unit or aerodrome control tower.

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57
Q

Define flight

A

An a/c shall be deemed to be in flight when… In the case of a piloted flying machine from the moment when, after the embarkation of its crew for the purpose of takng off it first moves under its own power until the moment when it next comes to rest after landing. (therefore towing doesnt count)

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58
Q

Define Uncertainity with regards to the phases of an emergency.

A

A situation whereing doubt exists as to the safety of an a/c or a marine vessel and of the persons on board.

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59
Q

Define Alert with regards to the phases of an emergency.

A

Situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft or marine vessel and of the persons on board.

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60
Q

Define distress with regards to the phases of an emergency.

A

Situation wherein there is a reasonable certainity that a vessel or other craft, including an a/c or a person is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance.

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61
Q

What is the definition of an Apron?

A

The part of an aerodrome provided for stationing of ac for the embarkation and disembarkation of passengers loading and unloading of cargo and parking.

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62
Q

What is the definition of a manoeuvring area?

A

That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of ac.

EU 923/2012 and Cap 493

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63
Q

What is the definition of a runway?

A

A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and tak-off of ac.

EU 923/2012 and CAP 493

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64
Q

What is the definition of aerodrome traffic?

A

-All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. An aircraft operating in the vicinity includes but is not limited to a/c entering or leaving an ATZ.

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65
Q

Define a Flight Information Region

A

Airspace of defined dimensions within which FIS and alerting service are provided.

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66
Q

Define a taxiway

A

A defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of a/c and intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another including;

  • Apron taxiways
  • Taxilane
  • Rapid exit taxiways
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67
Q

What is an apron taxiway?

A

A portion of a taxiway system located on an apron and intended to provide a through taxi route across the apron.

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68
Q

What is a taxilane?

A

A portion of an apron designated as a taxiway and intended to provide acess to a/c stands only.

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69
Q

Define a rapid exit taxiway

A

A taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit taxiways thereby minimising runway occupancy times.

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70
Q

Define Landing Area

A

That part of the movement area intended for landing or take-off of aircraft.

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71
Q

Define a safety management system

A

A systematic and explicit approach defining the activities by which safety management is undertaken by an organisation in order to achieve acceptable or tolerable safety.

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72
Q

What is the AAIB?

A

Air Accidents Investigation Board

  • Part of the dept for transport
  • Responsible for investigation of civil a/c accidents and serious incidents within the UK with the view to determining causes of air accidents/ incidents and making safety recommendations to prevent recurrence.
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73
Q

Define an AIRPROX

A

A situation in which in the opinion of the pilot or a controller, the distance between a/c as well as their relative positions and speeds have been such that the safety of the a/c involved was or may have been compromised.

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74
Q

Define SVFR

A

A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in met conditions below VMC.

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75
Q

Define Aerodrome Control Tower

A

A unit established to provide Air Traffic Control Service to aerodrome traffic

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76
Q

Define QFE

A

Atmospehric pressure at offical aerodrome level. When QFE is set on the subscale of a pressure altimeter, the altimeter will read zero when the a/c is on the ground at the station.

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77
Q

Define QNH

A

Atmospheric pressure at mean sea level. When set on the subscale of a pressure altimeter it will read aerodrome elevation when the aircraft is on the ground at the station.

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78
Q

Define QNE

A

Height indicated on a pressure altimeter when the aircraft is on the ground at an airfield with a setting of 1013.2hPa set on the subscale.

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79
Q

Define Height

A

The vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point measured from a specified datum.

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80
Q

Define Altitude

A

The vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point measured from mean sea level.

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81
Q

Define Elevation

A

The vertical distance of a point or level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from mean sea level.

  • NOTE - Aerodrome elevation is the elevation of the highest point on the landing area.*
  • A separate threshold elevation is published if it is 7ft or more BELOW aerodrome elevation and for precision approach runways.*
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82
Q

Define a flight level

A

A surface of constant atmospheric pressure related to the specified pressure datum of 1013.25hPa and separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals.

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83
Q

Define the Transition Altitude

A

The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes. The transition altitude is located at a fixed level and published in aeronautical information publications.

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84
Q

Define Flight level

A

The lowest Flight Level available for use above the Transition Altitude.

Located at least a nominal 1000 ft above the Transition Altitude to permit the TA and TL to be used concurrently in cruising flight, with vertical separation ensured.

Determined by;

  • In CAS, based on the QNH of the major aerodrome
  • Outside CAS, based on the QNH of the local aerodrome
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85
Q

Define the Transition Layer

A

The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level.

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86
Q

RT- define Acknowledge

A

“Let me know that you have received and understood this message.”

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87
Q

R/T define AFFIRM

A

Yes, positive

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88
Q

R/T define Break

A

I hereby indicate the separation between portions of the message

Only really used when it is not clear that this is the different portion of a message to the same a/c

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89
Q

R/T define Break Break

A

I hereby indicate the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environment.

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90
Q

R/T define cancel

A

Annul the previously transmitted clearance.

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91
Q

R/T define Check

A

“Examine a system or procedure.”

(Not to be used in any other context. No answer is normally expected.)

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92
Q

R/T define cleared

A

“Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified.”

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93
Q

R/T define confirm

A

“I request verification of: (clearance, instruction, action, information).”

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94
Q

R/T define Contact

A

“Establish communications with…” – Usually referring to details having been passed

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95
Q

R/T define Correct

A

“True” or “Accurate”.

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96
Q

R/T define Correction

A

“An error has been made in this transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is…”

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97
Q

R/T Define Disregard

A

Ignore

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98
Q

R/T define “How do I read?”

A

“What is the readability of my transmission?”

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99
Q

R/T define “I Say Again”

A

I repeat for clarity or emphasis

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100
Q

R/T define Maintain

A

“Continue in accordance with the condition(s) specified” or in its literal sense, e.g. “Maintain VFR”.

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101
Q

R/T define “Monitor”

A

“Listen out on (frequency).”

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102
Q

R/T define Negative

A

No, not possible etc

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103
Q

R/T define Readback

A

“Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received.”

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104
Q

R/T define Recleared

A

“A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof.”

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105
Q

R/T define “Report…”

A

“Pass me the following information…”

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106
Q

R/T define request

A

“I should like to know…” or “I wish to obtain…”

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107
Q

R/T define Roger

A

“I have received all of your last transmission.” Under no circumstances to be used in reply to a question requiring “READ BACK” or a direct answer in the affirmative (AFFIRM) or negative (NEGATIVE).

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108
Q

R/T define Say Again

A

“Repeat all, or the following part, of your last transmission.”

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109
Q

R/T define Speak Slower

A

“Reduce your rate of speech.”

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110
Q

R/T define Standby

A

“Wait and I will call you.”

(The caller would normally re-establish contact if the delay is lengthy. STANDBY is not an approval or denial.)

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111
Q

R/T define Unable

A

“I cannot comply with your request, instruction, or clearance.” (UNABLE is normally followed by a reason.)

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112
Q

R/T define WILCO

A

“I understand your message and will comply with it.”

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113
Q

R/T define “Words Twice”

A

a) As a request: “Communication is difficult. Please send every word, or group of words, twice.”
b) As information: “Since communication is difficult, every word, or group of words, in this message will be sent twice.

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114
Q

Define an Air Traffic Control Clearance

A

Authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit.

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115
Q

Define a Danger Area

A

Airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.

In the context of the FUA Concept, some Danger Areas subject to management and allocation at ASM Level 2 are established at ASM Level 1 as “AMC-Manageable Areas” and identified as such in AIP

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116
Q

Define a Temporary reserved area

A

A defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily reserved, by common agreement, for the specific use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic may be allowed to transit, under ATC clearance.

In the context of the FUA Concept, all TRAs are airspace reservations subject to management and allocation at ASM Level 2.

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117
Q

Define a Temporary Segregated Area

A

A defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily segregated, by common agreement, for the exclusive use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic will not be allowed to transit.

In FUA, all TSAs are airspace reservations subject to management and allocation at ASM Level 2.

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118
Q

With regards to Longitudinal Separation what is the definition of same track?

A

Where the angular difference of the tracks of both aircraft is less than 45°

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119
Q

With regards to Longitudinal Separation what is the definition of recipricol tracks?

A

Opposite direction tracks and intersecting tracks (or portions thereof), the angular difference of which is more than 135º or less than 225º, and whose protection areas overlap

(Essentially where the track is opposite and within 45° of 180°)

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120
Q

With regards to longitudinal separation what is the definition of crossing tracks?

A

Tracks which have an angular difference that is not specified as a same or recipricol track

121
Q

Define Coordination

A

The act of negotiation between two or more parties each vested with the authority to make executive decisions appropriate to the task being discharged. Effected when the parties concerned, on the basis of known intelligence, agree a course of action. Responsibility for obtaining and ensuring implementation may be vested in one of the ATCOs.

122
Q

Define GAT

A

General Air Traffic

all flights conducted in accordance with the rules and procedures of ICAO and/or the national civil aviation regulations and legislation. (EUROCONTROL ASM Handbook)

123
Q

Define OAT

A

all flights which do not comply with the provisions stated for GAT and for which rules and procedures have been specified by appropriate national authorities

124
Q

R/T define freecall

A

Establish communication with…., your details have not been passed

125
Q

What is an AIC

A

Aeronautical Information Circular A notice containing information which does not qualify for a NOTAM or AIP inclusion. Examples:

White - Admin - AIP Charges

Yellow - Operational/ATS - Requests not to overfly cultural events/flypasts

Pink - Safety - Helicopter flying in degraded weather conditions

Mauve - UK Airspace restrictions

Green - Maps and charts

126
Q

What are the three NOTAM codes?

A

NOTAMN - New NOTAMC - Cancel NOTAMR- Replace

127
Q

What information is in the AIP?

A

National documents (rules of the air etc) Supplements AIP/Amendment service AICs

128
Q

Name four of the ICAO technical divisions

A

MAP MET SAR RAC AGA AIS COM AIG OPS PEL AIR

129
Q

What is the definition of Notified

A

The information is published in the Nation’s AIP or NOTAM

130
Q

What actions can take place with ATCO licenses pending/after investigation?

A

Suspension - placing the license or ratings in abeyance with set conditions. Temporary. Revocation - withdrawing a licence and/or associated ratings. Permanent.

131
Q

What are the ATCO ratings?

A

ADI ADV

APP APS

ACS ACP

132
Q

What are rating endorsements?

A

Specialist additions to ratings

SRA PAR TCL

AIR GMC GMS

OCN

133
Q

What are licence endorsements?

A

Specialist additions to licence OJTI Assessor

134
Q

What is a MOR

A

Mandatory Occurrence report. Complies with CA939 (legal document)

135
Q

How should an ATCO file an MOR?

A

Through the ECCAIRS website (or published ANSP alternative) within 72 hours of incident

136
Q

An aircraft’s nav lights have failed. What are the restrictions?

A
  • Ac shall not depart at night if there is a failure of required lighting which cannot be fixed or replaced. - If in flight, ac should land as soon as safely able unless otherwise authorised. Not authorised outside CAS or Class E.
137
Q

When is an ac considered in flight?

A

From when the ac first moves under its own power until the moment it comes to rest after landing.

138
Q

What is the definition of QFE?

A

Atmospheric pressure at a specified datum (usually aerodrome level). when set, the subscale will read 0 at the datum.

139
Q

What is the definition of QNH?

A

Atmospheric pressure at MSL. When set on the subscale, it will read the aerodrome elevation when the ac is on the ground at the aerodrome.

140
Q

What is the definition of QNE?

A

Indication on altimeter when ac on the ground at an airfield with 1013 set. Usually used when ac cannot sent 950hPa or below.

141
Q

What is the definition of Height?

A

The vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point, measured from a specified datum. (QFE in aviation)

142
Q

What is the definition of Altitude?

A

The vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point measured from MSL

143
Q

What is the definition of elevation?

A

The vertical distance of a point of level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from MSL

144
Q

What is the definition of Flight Level

A

Surfaces of constant atmospheric pressure, related to 1013.25hPa. Separated from by specific constant pressure intervals.

145
Q

What is Transition Altitude?

A

The altitude at or below which the vertical position of the ac is controlled by reference to altitude. Usually 3000ft in UK but specified distances in aerodrome MATSIIs

146
Q

What is the Transition Level?

A

the lowest flight level available for use above the Transition Altitude. At least 1000ft above.

147
Q

What is the Transition Layer?

A

The airspace between the Transition Altitude and the Transition level. At least 1000ft in depth. Ac descending through Tlayer will be descending on altitude, ac climbing through will be climbed on FL.

148
Q

When would a pilot fly IFR?

A
  • in Class A Airspace - When met conditions preclude VFR or SVFR
149
Q

What levels are RVSM

A

FL290 - FL410

150
Q

What is the RVSM minima?

A

Suitably equipped ac can fly in RVSM airspace at 1000ft intervals. Outwith and above FL290 the interval is 2000ft.

151
Q

What is VMC?

A

Visual Meteorological Conditions

152
Q

What is IMC?

A

Instrument Meteorological Conditions

153
Q

What is the the VMC minima for flying VFR by Day?

A

At or above FL100 (all airspace) - 1500m/1000ft from cloud, 8km visibility

Below FL100 in all classes - 1500m/1000ft from cloud, 5km visibility

At and below 900 m (3 000 ft) AMSL, or 300 m (1 000 ft) above terrain, whichever is the higher

  • Class B, C, D and E: 1500m/1000ft, 5km
  • Class F and G: Clear of cloud, in sight of surface, 5km

Alternatively, at or below 900 m (3 000 ft) amsl For aircraft including helicopters, flying at 140 kt IAS or less in Class G

  • Clear of cloud with surface in sight, 1500m
154
Q

How many Oktas in each cloud category?

A

FEW - 1-2 SCT - 3-4 BKN - 5-7 OVC - 8

155
Q

What is the requirement for CAVOK?

A

Visibility 10km or more No cloud below 5000ft or MSA, whichever is highest No significant weather in the vicinity of the ad No CB or TCU present anywhere

156
Q

What is RVR?

A

Runway visual Range The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centreline of a runway can expect to see surface markings, runway edge lights or runway centreline lights. Included in METAR when visibility is below 1500m, and minimum value is 50m.

157
Q

How is RVR measured?

A

instrument - photo-optical sensors measure the amount of light received from rwy lights for each third of the rwy - requires at least 10% of runway lighting. Human observer method - counting visible lights and comparing against a table of values.

158
Q

What is fog?

A

Suspension of water droplets giving a visibility of less than 1000m

159
Q

What is mist?

A

Suspension of water droplets giving a visibility of not less than 1000m

160
Q

What is haze?

A

Suspension of solid particles reducing visibility to not less than 1000m. Humidity must be less than 95%

161
Q

When vis is below 5km, what must be reported?

A

Reason for obscuration: Fog, mist, dust, sand, smoke, haze, volcanic ash, spray FG, BR, DU, SA, FU, HZ, VA, SY

162
Q

What is an Air Traffic Service?

A

Either an: -Air Traffic Control Service -Air Traffic Advisory Service -Flight Information Service -Alerting Service

163
Q

What information of given in a FIS?

A

Information essential for the safe conduct of flight. SIGMET, AIRMET, VOLMET, release of toxic chemicals or radiation, navaid serviceability, aerodrome conditions, unmanned balloons, collision hazards in Classes C, D, E, F and G

164
Q

What is a Basic Service?

A

Provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful the safe and efficient conduct of flights. E.g. weather information, conditions at aerodromes and general airspace activity. Avoidance of traffic is entirely pilot’s responsibility but advice may be given with duty of care if risk of collision exists.

165
Q

What is a Traffic Service?

A

surveillance-based UK FIS, in addition to the provisions of BS, controlled provides surveillance-derived traffic information to assist pilots in avoiding other traffic. Headings and levels may be given for positioning or sequencing, however no deconfliction minima and collision avoidance with terrain and other aircraft remains responsibility of the pilot.

166
Q

What is a Deconfliction Service?

A

Surveillance-based UK FIS where the controlled provides specific surveillance-derived traffic information and issues headings and level information to achieve deconfliction minima, or for positioning/sequencing. Avoiding traffic is ultimately pilot’s responsibility.

167
Q

What is a Procedural Service?

A

In addition to the provisions of a BS, the controller provides restrictions, instructions and clearances to achieve deconfliction minima against participating traffic. No information can be passed about unknown traffic.

168
Q

What is an alerting service?

A

Service notifying appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of SAR, and assisting those organisations as required

169
Q

What is the definition of co-ordination?

A

The act of negotiation between two more parties, each with the vested authority to make executive decisions appropriate to the task being discharged.

170
Q

What are the two types of co-ordination?

A

Tactical - co-ordination of individual aircraft receiving or about to receive an ATS. Achieved either verbally or silently using an electronic data comms system. silent co-ordination procedures are to be detailed in the MATS P2. Standing Co-ordination - co-ordination implemented automatically on a permanent basis without communication between the controllers involved. Effected iaw written agreement between sectors or units involved, and only valid for the aircraft and circumstances specified.

171
Q

What are the stages of coordination?

A

Notification of Flight - Coordination of conditions - acceptance or amendment of conditions - transfer of control

172
Q

What are the flight priorities?

A

Cat A: Emergency aircraft, police emergency, ambulance when safety of life involved.

Cat B - SAR/ Humanitarian rescue, post-accident flight checks, Open skies, normal police flights

Cat C - Royal flights, flights carrying visiting heads of state

Cat D - Heads of government or very senior government ministers

Cat E - Time or weather critical calibration flights, other flights authorised by CAA, repositions ambulance flights Cat Z - Training Normal flights - flights under normal routing procedures, Exam flights by CAA

173
Q

What are the departure separations?

A

1 minute - Tracks divering by 45 degrees or more immediately after take-off

2 minutes - Preceding ac filed TAS 40kts or more faster. Neither ac to make manouevre to reduce separation

5 minutes - Preceding ac filed TAS 20kts faster

5 minutes - If 5 minutes of separation will be maintained to a point where ac will be separated either vertically, by tracks of 30 degrees or more or by radar.

10 minutes - basic departure separation

174
Q

What is the Readability Scale?

A

1 - Unreadable 2 - Readable now and then 3 - readable with difficulty 4 - Readable 5 - Perfectly readable

175
Q

When would an ac be told to freecall and when to contact?

A

Contact - details have been passed to next agency Freecall - no details have been passed

176
Q

What is an AIRPROX?

A

A situation in which a pilot or controller believes that the distance between aircraft as well as their positions/speeds has been such that safety was or may have been compromised.

177
Q

To which ICAO annexes does the UK generally conform?

A

1 - Personnel and Licensing 2 - Rules of the Air 11 - Air Traffic services Also some PANS-ATM, PANS-OPS and Doc 7030

178
Q

Where are the UK differences to ICAO SARPS published?

A

AIP gen 1.7

179
Q

Which UK document contains differences in procedures from SERA?

A

CAP 393 - the Air Navigation Order

180
Q

What are the Mandatory descriptive words?

A

Is to, must, shall, Are to

181
Q

What is the informative descriptive word?

A

Will

182
Q

What is the permissive descriptive word?

A

May

183
Q

What is the strongly advisable descriptive word?

A

Should

184
Q

Which documents reflect temporary differences from EU regulations?

A

The Official Record Series

185
Q

SARG may use what additional mechanism for licensing action, in response to an incident?

A

Provisional suspension

186
Q

What are the three stages of ATC incident investigation?

A

Initial Phase - Full investigation - Remedial Action

187
Q

How may an MOR be filed?

A

Via ECCAIRS or ADREP (aerodrome report, specific to ANSPs)

188
Q

What is the maximum weight for a small unmanned aircraft?

A

20kg

189
Q

Small unmanned aircraft are limited to not above what height in Class A, C, D or E?

A

400ft

190
Q

How many balloons can be release at a single site without CAA written notice?

A

1000

191
Q

How many days notice is required for the CAA before releasing >1000 balloons?

A

28

192
Q

How many balloons can be released at a single site without CAA written permission?

A

2000-10,000

193
Q

What is the UK definition of night?

A

the time between half an hour after sunset to half an hour before sunrise

194
Q

What is the weather minima for SVFR?

A

Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface, speed of 140kts or less

Fixed wing, not less than 1500m flight vis

Heli not less than 800m flight visilibity,

195
Q

What are the two emergency frequencies?

A

121.5 Mhz 243.0 MHz

196
Q

What is the accuracy of an NDB?

A

5 degrees

197
Q

What is the accuracy of a VOR?

A

2 degrees

198
Q

What is the accuracy of a DME?

A

1nm (cannot be used for separation within 15nm)

199
Q

When should an ac not hold over a VRP?

A

Outside CAS - as other ac may be using it as a turning point

200
Q

Who provides the UK met services?

A

Met Office, Exeter

201
Q

When can only 1 IRVR value be used?

A

If it is either TDZ or mid point - cannot be the final third. If only final third sensor is serviceable, then an option could be to swap runways.

202
Q

What are the dimensions of an ATZ?

A

2000ft vertical, 2nm radius, except if the length of the longest runway is longer than 1850m, or the ATZ boundary would be less than 1nm from the end of a runway, in which case the radius is 2.5nm

203
Q

How many ASRs in the UK?

A

20

204
Q

When should an ATCO pass the RPS?

A

If pilot requests, or at ATCO’s discretion

205
Q

What are the UK wake turbulence categories?

A

L - <17000kg

S - 17000-40,000kg

LM - 40 - 104000kg

UM - 104 - 136000kg

H - >136000 Kg

Super - A380

206
Q

What is the VMC flight minima by night?

A

At and Above FL 100, Class B, C, D, E, F and G airspace: 1500 m, 300 m (1 000 ft), 8 km

Below FL 100 and above 900 m (3 000 ft) AMSL, or above 300 m (1 000 ft) above terrain, whichever is the higher, Class B, C, D, E, F and G airspace: 1500 m, 300 m (1 000 ft), 5 km

At and below 900 m (3 000 ft) AMSL, or 300 m (1 000 ft) above terrain, whichever is the higher, Class B, C, D, and E: 1500 m, 300 m (1 000 ft), 5 km, maintain continuous sight of the surface

Class F and G airspace: Clear of cloud and maintain continuous sight of the surface, 5 km

207
Q

What are the restrictions for flying VFR?

A
  • Must apply with VMC Minima - Not available above FL195 or in Class A - Not less than 1000ft above settlements/assemblies of people within 600m of aircraft position - Minimum of 500ft, or 500ft above highest obstacle within 500ft of aircraft
208
Q

What flights are exempt from VMC/VFR restrictions?

A

SAR, HEMS and police flights, ac in support of national infrastructure (pipeline)

209
Q

What words within ATS documentation means that compliance with the instruction or regulatory requirement is necessary?

A

Shall

Is too

Are to

Must

210
Q

What words within ATS documentation means that it is strongly advisable that an instruction is carried out and is applied where the more positive ‘shall’ is unreasonable, but nevertheless a pilot/controller would have to have good reason for not doing so?

A

Should

211
Q

What word within ATS documentation means that the isntruction is permissive, optional or alternative?

A

May

212
Q

How is UK airspace divided?

A

Into two FIRs. Below FL245 Lower FIR, FL245 and above Upper FIR

213
Q

What is an air traffic advisory service?

A

An Air Traffic Advisory Service is a service provided within Class F airspace to ensure separation, in so far as practical, between participating IFR flights.

214
Q

What is a Flight Information Service?

A

FIS is a service provided for the purposes of supplying advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight, together with pertinent information about:

(1) weather;
(2) changes to serviceability of facilities;
(3) conditions at aerodromes;
(4) any other information likely to affect safety

215
Q

What are the UK FIS?

A

Basic Service

Procedural Service

Traffic Service

Deconfliction Service

216
Q

Which aircraft should receive an alerting service?

A

In the UK, to any aircraft under their jurisdiction or otherwise known about, including hijacked aircraft.

217
Q

What are the flight rules, requirements for entry and minimum services by ATC for Class A Airspace?

A

Flight Rules: IFR only

Entry Requirements: ATC Clearance before entry, comply with ATC instructions

minimum services: Separate all aircraft from each other

218
Q

What are the flight rules, requirements for entry and minimum services by ATC for Class G Airspace?

A

Flight Rules: IFR and VFR

Requirements for entry: None

Minimum services:
None

219
Q

What are the flight rules, requirements for entry and minimum services by ATC for Class E Airspace?

A

Flight Rules: IFR and VFR

Requirements for entry: ATC clearance before entry, comply with ATC instructions. VFR aircraft do not require clearance

Minimum services:

(a) Separate IFR flights from other IFR flights;
(b) to IFR flights: wherever practicable, pass traffic information and if requested by the pilot or when deemed necessary by the controller, suggest traffic avoidance advice on participating and non-participating VFR flights;
(c) to VFR flights: provide traffic information in accordance with CAP 774 – UK Flight Information Services).

220
Q

What are the flight rules, requirements for entry and minimum services by ATC for Class D Airspace?

A

Flight Rules: IFR and VFR

Requirements for entry: ATC clearance before entry, comply with ATC instructions

Minimum services:

(a) Separate IFR flights from other IFR flights;
(b) Pass traffic information to IFR flights and SVFR flights on VFR flights and give traffic avoidance advice when requested;
(c) Pass traffic information to VFR flights on all other flights and provide traffic avoidance advice when requested..

221
Q

What are the flight rules, requirements for entry and minimum services by ATC for Class C Airspace?

A

Flight Rules: IFR and VFR

Requirements for entry: ATC clearance before entry, comply with ATC instructions

Minimum services:

(a) Separate IFR flights from other IFR and VFR flights;
(b) Separate VFR flights from IFR flights;
(c) Pass traffic information to VFR flights on other VFR flights and give traffic avoidance advice if requested.

222
Q

What is the UK Speed Limit?

A

250kts

223
Q

When does the UK speed limit NOT apply?

A

(1) flights in Class A and B airspace;
(2) IFR flights in Class C airspace;
(3) for exempted VFR flights in Class C and/or Class D airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance with MATS Part 2;
(4) test flights in accordance with specified conditions;
(5) aircraft taking part in flying displays when authorised by the CAA;
(6) aircraft subject to a written permission granted by the CAA;
(7) State aircraft such as military aircraft.

224
Q

Other than flying IFR when in Class A or when met conditions preclude, what other rules are there regarding IFR flights?

A

Within Controlled Airspace (Classes A to E)

(a) File a flight plan and obtain a clearance before proceeding with the flight;
(b) Conduct the flight in accordance with clearances and instructions from ATC;
(c) Maintain a listening watch on the appropriate radio frequencies; Report the position of the aircraft according to published procedures.

Outside Controlled Airspace (Classes F and G)

Comply with the table of cruising levels ((EU) 923/2012 SERA.5025(a) and Appendix 3) when in level flight above 3000 feet amsl. The altimeter is set to 1013.2 hPa and the cruising level is selected according to the magnetic track unless the aircraft is holding according to published procedures or is otherwise instructed by ATC.

225
Q

What are the semicircular cruising levels?

A

Magnetic Track Less than 180°

FL30, 50, 70, 90 etc. up to FL190

Magnetic Track At least 180° but less than 360°

FL40, 60, 80,100 etc. up to FL180

226
Q

What airspace classification does an ATZ have?

A

The classification of the airspace in which it lies

227
Q

How may an aircraft change from an IFR flight to VFR?

A

Change from IFR flight to VFR flight shall only be acceptable when the pilot uses the expression “cancelling my IFR flight”. No invitation to change from IFR flight to VFR flight shall be made by ATC either directly or by inference. Controllers are to acknowledge a cancellation using the phrase “IFR flight cancelled at (time)”.

Pilots cancelling IFR plans shall be given any information which indicates that IMC may be encountered along the intended route.

ATS units receiving notification of an aircraft’s intention to change from IFR to VFR flight shall, as necessary, by automated means or otherwise, inform subsequent ATS units of the IFR flight plan cancellation.

228
Q

What is the weather minima for SVFR refusal?

A

By day or night:

(a) Aircraft other than helicopters: ground visibility less than 1500 m and/or cloud ceiling less than 600 feet
(b) Helicopters: ground visibility less than 800 m and/or cloud ceiling less than 600 feet

Except: Police; Helimed; Rescue; Electricity; Grid; Powerline, or Pipeline callsigns, or a SAR training flight operating in accordance with MATS Part 2, or rail track inspection flights

When the reported ground visibility at the aerodrome is less than 1500 m, ATC may issue a Special VFR clearance for a flight crossing the control zone and not intending to take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic circuit when the flight visibility reported by the pilot is not less than 1500 m, or for helicopters, not less than 800 m

229
Q

What are the two categories of flight plans?

A

Full and abbreviated

230
Q

When is a pilot required to file a flight plan?

A

(1) any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an air traffic control service;
(2) any IFR flight within advisory airspace;
(3) any flight within or into areas, or along routes designated by the Authority, to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services;
(4) any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the Authority, to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or with air traffic service units in adjacent States in order to avoid the possible need for interception for the purposes of identification prescribed by the States concerned;
(5) any flight across international boundaries; in the UK, the international borders for flight planning purposes are the international FIR boundaries.
6) any flight planned to operate at night, if leaving the vicinity of an aerodrome.

231
Q

When is a pilot advised to file a flight plan?

A

(1) if his flight involves flying over the sea more than 10 miles from the UK coast or flying over sparsely populated areas where SAR operations would be difficult
(2) if he intends to fly into an area in which SAR operations are in progress. The flight plan should include the expected times of entering and leaving the area and the details must also be passed to the parent ACC. The ACC is to notify the ARCC concerned.

232
Q

A pilot who has filed a flight plan to a destination without an ATSU and not connected to the AFTN shall comply with what procedure?

A

(1) Nominate a responsible person at his destination and inform him of the planned ETA. If the aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA the responsible person will notify the parent ATSU. That ATSU will then initiate Alerting action; or
(2) If no responsible person can be found, the pilot will contact the parent ATSU and request that they act in the same capacity. The pilot is then required to inform the parent ATSU of his arrival within 30 minutes of the notified ETA, otherwise Alerting action will automatically be initiated.

233
Q

What should a pilot who isn’t filing a flight plan do?

A

Book out at the departure aerodrome

234
Q

Whose responsibility is it for decisions regarding serviceability of an aircraft for flight?

A

Pilot in command

235
Q

When shall standard horizontal/vertical separation be applied?

A

(1) all flights in Class A airspace;
(2) IFR flights in Class C, D and E airspace;
(3) IFR flights and VFR flights in Class C airspace;
(4) IFR flights and Special VFR flights;
(5) Special VFR flights, except where a reduction is authorised by the CAA.

In Class G airspace, separation between aircraft is ultimately the responsibility of the pilot; however, in providing a Deconfliction Service or a Procedural Service, controllers will provide information and advice aimed at achieving a defined deconfliction minima.

236
Q

When shall separation standards be increased?

A

(1) requested by the pilot;
(2) a controller considers it necessary;
(3) directed by the CAA.

237
Q

When may standard separation be reduced in the vicinity of an aerodrome?

A

In the vicinity of aerodromes, the standard separation minima may be reduced if:

(1) adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to this controller; or
(2) each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of other aircraft concerned and the pilots report that they can maintain their own separation; or
(3) when one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports that he has the other aircraft in sight and can maintain own separation.

Other situations may exist if approved by the CAA and notified in MATS2

238
Q

When may standard separation be reduced?

A

In the vicnity of an aerodrome

During a search and rescue effort

During a surveillance system failure

Loss of separation

  • controller is required to meet the required minimum with the least possible delay
  • when considered practical, pass traffic information
239
Q

What is the format for essential traffic information?

A
  • Direction of flight
  • Type of conflicting traffic
  • Cruising level and ETA for reporting point
  • Alternative clearance
240
Q

What is the vertical separation minima?

A

Up to FL290: 1000ft

Fl290 - FL410 in RVSM airspace: 1000ft

FL290+ not in RVSM: 2000ft

Between aircraft flying supersonic and between aircraft flying supersonic and aircraft flying subsonic:

(a) Up to FL450 apply 2000 feet;
(b) Above FL450 apply 4000 feet.

241
Q

When may an aircraft be instructed to change levels?

A

At a time, place or rate

242
Q

When may an aircraft may be instructed to climb or descend to a level previously occupied by another aircraft?

A

(1) vertical separation already exists;
(2) the vacating aircraft is proceeding to a level that will maintain vertical separation; and

(3) either:
(a) the controller observes that the vacating aircraft has left the level; or
(b) the pilot has reported vacating the level

Exercise caution when known to be severe turbulence, or marked difference in rates of climb or descent

243
Q

What is the criteria for authorising a VMC climb or descent?

A

(1) the manoeuvre is restricted to Class D, E, F and G airspace at or below FL100;
(2) it is during the hours of daylight;
(3) the aircraft is flying in visual meteorological conditions;
(4) the pilot of the aircraft climbing or descending agrees to maintain his own separation from other aircraft and the manoeuvre is agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft; and
(5) essential traffic information is given.

244
Q

What are the three types of horizontal separation?

A
  • Lateral
  • Longitudinal
  • RADAR
245
Q

What is an exact reporting point?

A

(1) overhead a VOR;
(2) overhead an NDB;
(3) a position notified as a reporting point and which is established by the intersection of VOR radials, or of a VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB;
(4) a position established by a VOR radial combined with a range from a co-located or associated DME.

246
Q

What are the VOR/DME lateral separations?

A

Using a VOR and associated DME/TACAN station. Both aircraft must have reported established on radials at least 20° apart;

Aircraft diverge and one aircraft is 15 miles from the DME/TACAN station.

Aircraft converge and one aircraft is 30 miles from the DME/TACAN station.

One aircraft inbound and the other outbound from the VOR station provided that the outbound aircraft is at least 20 miles OR the inbound at least 30 miles from the station.

Using VOR radials. When one aircraft is a time equivalent of 15 miles or 4 minutes (whichever is the greater) from the VOR and both aircraft have reported established on radials which diverge by 20° or more

(3) Using VOR radials. Both aircraft must have passed a VOR on tracks diverging by 45° or more and have reported established on the relevant radials;

247
Q

What is the NDB lateral separation?

A

Using specified tracks from an NDB. When one aircraft is the time equivalent of 15 miles or 4 minutes (whichever is the greater) from an NDB and both aircraft have reported established on tracks which diverge by 30° or more.

248
Q

What is geographical separation?

A

Geographical separation must be: (1) indicated by position reports over different geographical locations that have been specified in MATS Part 2 as being separated; and (2) constant or increasing

249
Q

How may longitudinal separation be applied?

A

(1) depart at a specified time;
(2) lose or gain time to arrive at a geographical location at a specified time; or
(3) hold over a geographical location until a specified time.

250
Q

What is ‘same track’?

A

when the track of one aircraft is separated from the track of the other by less than 45°

251
Q

What is reciprocal track?

A

when the track of one aircraft is separated from the reciprocal of the other by less than 45°

252
Q

What is crossing track?

A

intersecting tracks which are not classed as ‘same’ or ‘reciprocal’

253
Q

What is the time-based longitudinal separation for same track, same cruising level?

A

2 minutes* Provided the 2 minute departure separation has been applied (see separate table).

5 minutes* Provided the preceding aircraft has filed an airspeed of 20 knots or more faster than the following aircraft.

10 minutes

254
Q

What is the time-based longitudinal separation for same track, climbing or descending?

A

5 minutes* at time levels are crossed Provided that the level change is commenced within 10 minutes of the time the second aircraft has reported over the same exact reporting point.

10 minutes –

255
Q

What is the time-based longitudinal separation for crossing tracks?

A

10 minutes

256
Q

What is the time-based longitudinal separation for reciprocal tracks?

A

Vertical separation shall be provided for at least 10 minutes both prior to and after the estimated time of passing unless it is confirmed that the aircraft have actually passed each other by:

(1) ATS surveillance system derived information;***
(2) a visual sighting report from both pilots (by day only); or
(3) aircraft position reports over the same exact reporting point; provided vertical separation is maintained for sufficient time to take into consideration possible navigation errors.

257
Q

What is the distance longitudinal separation for same track, same cruising level?

A

15 miles Provided the preceding aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 knots or more faster than the following aircraft and both are within 100 miles of the DME/ TACAN station.

20 miles Provided the preceding aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 knots or more faster than the following aircraft.

20 miles Provided both aircraft are within 100 miles of the DME/TACAN station.

25 miles –

258
Q

What is the distance longitudinal separation for same track, climb and descent ?

A

15 miles at the time levels are crossed, Provided that one aircraft maintains level flight while vertical separation does not exist.

259
Q

What is the distance longitudinal separation for reciprocal tracks?

A

40 miles - need not apply if it has been established that the aircraft have passed each other and are at least 10 miles apart.

The 10 miles may be further reduced to 5 miles when both aircraft are within 100 miles of the DME/TACAN station.

260
Q

What are the minimum departure separations?

A

1 minute - Provided that the aircraft fly on tracks diverging by 45° or more immediately after take-off. The minimum may be reduced when aircraft are taking-off from independent diverging or parallel runways provided the procedures have been approved by the CAA.

2 minutes Provided that:

(1) the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed 40 knots or more faster than the following;
(2) neither aircraft is cleared to execute any manoeuvre that would decrease the 2 minute separation between them.

5 minutes - provided that the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 20 knots or more faster than the following aircraft.

5 minutes - provided that the 5 minutes separation is maintained up to a reporting point, within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal control area and the aircraft will subsequently be separated either: (1) vertically; (2) by tracks which diverge by 30° or more; or (3) by radar. Only to be used at locations approved by the CAA.

10 minutes –

261
Q

What is the minimum longitudinal separation between an en-route aircraft and a departing aircraft?

A

10 minutes.

This may be reduced to 5 minutes provided that:

(1) the en route aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 20 knots or more faster than the departing aircraft; and
(2) the en route aircraft has reported over an exact reporting point at which the departing aircraft will join the same route; and
(3) the departing aircraft is given positive instructions to arrive at the same exact reporting point 5 minutes behind the en route aircraft.

262
Q

How many units can an aircraft be under control of?

A

One

263
Q

What is an ATC clearance?

A

Conditions for an aircraft to proceed under the conditions specified by an ATC unit

264
Q

What should an ATC clearance include?

A

Aircraft identification

Clearance limit

Route

Levels

Any other information

265
Q

What is a clearance limit?

A

A clearance limit is the point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance and shall be specified by naming: (1) an aerodrome; (2) a reporting point; or (3) a controlled or advisory airspace boundary.

266
Q

When does transfer of control normally take place?

A

(1) At an agreed reporting point;
(2) On an estimate for an FIR boundary;
(3) At or passing an agreed level; or
(4) While the aircraft is climbing or descending to a previously agreed level, provided that the transferring controller has ensured that standard separation will exist between the transferred aircraft and all others for the remainder of the climb or descent.

267
Q

What is ‘Delay not determined?’

A

If, for reasons other than weather, e.g. an obstruction on the runway, the extent of the delay is not known, aircraft are to be advised “delay not determined”. As soon as it is possible for aircraft to re-commence approach procedures, EATs are to be issued. The expression “delay not determined” is not to be used when changing runways.

If aircraft elect to hold for the weather to improve at the landing aerodrome the controller shall inform the first aircraft entering the holding pattern “no traffic delay expected”. Subsequent aircraft are to be passed “delay not determined (number) aircraft holding for weather improvement”

268
Q

What is Non-Deviating Status?

A

Aircraft, both military and civil, which have been allocated this status have an operational requirement to maintain a specific track and level(s) or a particular route and level(s). It is imperative that an NDS aircraft is not moved from its pre-planned flight path because this could render it operationally ineffective. If, for any reason, it is anticipated that adequate separation cannot be maintained between other aircraft and the NDS flight, controllers are to seek co-ordination with the agency providing the service to the NDS aircraft.

269
Q

What are examples of unusual aerial activity?

A

(1) A concentration of aircraft that is significantly greater than normal;
(2) Activities that may require the issue of a Permission or an Exemption from the ANO or R of A Regulations;
(3) Air Shows, Displays, Air Races or other competitions;
(4) Activities which require the establishment of a temporary ATSU

270
Q

What is the aerodrome elevation?

A

The elevation of the highest point on the landing area

271
Q

Examples of reasons aircraft may divert

A

(1) When the weather at the planned destination is reported to be below the minima prescribed by an Aircraft Operator for their aircraft;
(2) When obstructions on the landing area, which constitute a hazard to aircraft landing, cannot be cleared within a reasonable period

; (3) The failure of airborne equipment;

(4) The failure of essential ground aids to landing in circumstances which would require their use;
(5) Unacceptable delay due to congestion of air traffic;
(6) The closure of the aerodrome of destination.

272
Q

What is the dimensions of a temporary control zone established for a royal flight and how long is it established for?

A

Control zones for Royal Flights will extend between a 5 and 10 NM radius from the centre of the aerodrome from ground level to an upper level designated for each Royal Flight dependent upon the Royal aircraft type and the aerodrome’s surrounding airspace.

The control zone will be established for a period (for outbound flights) of 15 minutes before, until 30 minutes after, the ETD of the Royal aircraft or (for inbound flights) for a period of 15 minutes before, until 30 minutes after, the ETA of the Royal aircraft at the aerodrome concerned.

273
Q

What are the dimensions of a temporary controlled airway, and the timings for which it is established?

A

15 minutes before ETA at the start point of the temporary airway until 30 minutes after ETD from the end/departure point of the temporary airway.

The lateral dimensions of such airways will be 5 NM each side of the intended track of the Royal Flight and vertical limits will be designated.

274
Q

What aircraft are mandated to carry an airborne collision avoidance system?

A

any civil, turbine powered aircraft weighing more than 5700kg max take off weight, or carrying more than 19 passengers

275
Q

What is co-ordination?

A

Co-ordination is the act of negotiation between two or more parties each vested with the authority to make executive decisions appropriate to the task being discharged. Co-ordination is effectected when the parties concerned, on the basis of known intelligence, agree a course of action. Responsibility for obtaining the agreement and for ensuring implementation may be vested in one of the controllers involved.

276
Q

What are the two types of co-ordination?

A

Tactical - The co-ordination of individual aircraft to which the coordinating controllers are providing, or are about to provide, an ATS. It is achieved either verbally (face-to-face or over a landline) or silently using an electronic data communications system.

Standing - Co-ordination which is implemented automatically, on a permanent basis, without communication between the controllers involved. It is effected in accordance with a written agreement between the units or sectors involved, and is only valid for the aircraft and circumstances specified in the MATS Part 2.

277
Q

When should speed control not be applied?

A
  • In holding patterns, other than where published on approach charts;
  • In areas of thunderstorms or known turbulence.
  • to aircraft after passing a point 4 NM from the threshold on final approach
278
Q

What aircraft would Aerodrome co-ordinate with Approach

A

(1) departing IFR flights;
(2) arriving aircraft which make their first call on the tower frequency (unless they are transferred to Approach Control).

279
Q

What aircraft would approach coordinate with aerodrome?

A

Approach Control will co-ordinate with Aerodrome Control:

(1) aircraft approaching to land; if necessary requesting landing clearance;
(2) arriving aircraft which are to be cleared to visual holding points;
(3) aircraft routeing through the traffic circuit

280
Q

When would control of an aircraft be transferred from aerodrome to approach?

A

(1) in VMC: prior to the aircraft leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome, or prior to the aircraft entering IMC;
(2) in IMC: immediately after the aircraft is airborne.

281
Q

What is essential aerodrome information?

A

Essential aerodrome information is that concerning the state of the manoeuvring area and its associated facilities that may constitute a hazard to a particular aircraft. It shall be issued to pilots in sufficient time to ensure the safe operation of aircraft.

282
Q

Examples of essential aerodrome information

A

(1) construction work or maintenance on the manoeuvring area;
(2) rough portions of the manoeuvring area and whether marked or not;
(3) failure or irregular functioning of the aerodrome lighting system. Defects must be passed to pilots in the form that they have been reported to the controller. Controllers should not make assumptions that a particular defect renders an associated aid unserviceable or not available. The pilot is responsible for deciding his course of action;
(4) failure or irregular functioning of approach aids;
(5) aircraft parked close to the runways or taxiways and aircraft engaged in ground running of engines;
(6) depth of snow layers on runways and taxiways, snow piled or drifted on the manoeuvring area, melting snow and slush, rutted ice and snow;
(7) in snow and ice conditions: information concerning sweeping and/or sanding of runways and taxiways;
(8) reports on the estimated braking action determined either by the equipment described in Chapter 8 or by reports from pilots of aircraft, which have already landed, including: a description of the prevailing conditions, e.g. standing water, snow settling; the time of measurement; the type of aircraft if an aircraft report. When the braking action has been reported as less than good and more than thirty minutes has elapsed since the previous aircraft report or measurement, the braking action should be checked before passing details to an aircraft. The assessment of braking action by use of a brake testing decelerometer (e.g. the Tapley Meter) is to be carried out solely in conditions of dry snow and ice, gritted or ungritted;
(9) bird formations or individual large birds reported or observed on or above the manoeuvring area or in the immediate vicinity of the aerodrome and the extent of any bird dispersal action being carried out. When flocks of birds or single large ones are seen, the Aerodrome Operator or Bird Control Unit must be informed;
(10) warnings of the presence of water on runways (as described in Chapter 7);
(11) information on the location and operational status of any arrester gear installation

283
Q

When taking RVR readings from reference lights, when should the aerodrome lighting NOT be switched off?

A

(1) while an aircraft is taking-off;
(2) after an aircraft has reported completing a final procedure turn; or
(3) after an aircraft has reached 5 miles from touchdown on a radar approach.

284
Q

When should obstruction lighting be displayed?

A

Obstruction lighting, hazard beacons and aerodrome light beacons shall be displayed at night during the published hours of watch. Hazard beacons shall also be displayed by day whenever the visibility is less than 3500 metres.

285
Q

When should aerodrome lighting be displayed?

A

By day: when the visibility drops below 5km and/or cloud base below 700ft

By night: irrespective of weather conditions

286
Q

What conditions may induce windshear?

A

(1) The presence of frontal/squall/thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of the aerodrome.
(2) The presence of low level inversions where the surface wind will be significantly different from that at only a few hundred feet above the ground.
(3) Local terrain or buildings considered in relation to wind speed and direction; such large obs

287
Q

When should an airfield inspection take place?

A

(1) at cessation of work on the manoeuvring area;
(2) when a runway not previously inspected is brought into use;
(3) following an aircraft accident;
(4) following an abandoned take-off by a turbine-engined aircraft due to engine malfunction, or by any aircraft due to burst tyres;
(5) during snow and ice conditions as frequently as weather conditions warrant;
(6) when considered necessary by ATC, the Aerodrome Operator or as detailed in local instructions.

288
Q

What CAP details the UK FIS?

A

CAP 774

289
Q

When shall an Approach controller apply an ATS to an aircraft outside of controlled airspace?

A
  • Arriving aircraft - until transferred to aerodrome control
  • Departing aircraft - until they no longer wish to receive a service or are ten minutes flying time from the aerodrome, whichever is sooner
  • overflying aircraft place themselves under the control of Approach Control until they are clear of the approach pattern and either no longer wish to receive a service or are 10 minutes flying time away from the aerodrome, whichever is the sooner
290
Q

When may an IFR flights operating with visual reference to the surface be transferred by Approach Control to Aerodrome Control?

A

(1) When an aircraft carrying out an instrument approach has become ‘number 1 to land’, and for following aircraft when they are established on final approach and have been provided with the appropriate separation from preceding aircraft;
(2) Aircraft operating in the traffic circuit;
(3) Aircraft approaching visually below all cloud when the reported aerodrome visibility is 10 km or more.

291
Q

How long before ETA at the fix should Area control pass estimates to approach control?

A

15 minutes

292
Q

Once an aircraft is released to Approach Control by Area Control, what may Approach control not do?

A

The aircraft must not be instructed to climb above, or stop its descent to, the level at the holding point agreed with Area Control and passed in the release message, without prior co- ordination with Area Control.

293
Q

What is aerodrome operating minima?

A

Aerodrome Operating Minima are criteria used by pilots to determine whether they may land or take off from any runway at night or in IMC. Aerodrome Operating Minima in relation to take offs are the RVR and/or visibility, and if necessary, cloud conditions. For approach and landings, the Aerodrome Operating Minima consist of the decision height or minimum descent height, RVR and or visibility, and, if necessary, cloud conditions, as applicable for the type of approach.

294
Q

If ATIS isn’t available, what information should be passed to arriving aircraft as soon as possible?

A
  • Runway in use
  • current met info including time of observation
    surface wind, visibility, weather, cloud, pressure setting, pilot reports, sig met info, warnings, RVR
  • Current runway surface conditions if appropriate
  • Any changes in the operational status of navigational aids
  • LVPs if in operation
295
Q

When may a controller authorise a visual Approach?

A
  • If the pilot reports they can maintain visual reference to the surface
  • the reported cloud ceiling is at or above the beginning of the initial approach segment
  • the pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach procedure that the visibility will permit a visual approach and landing, and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished
296
Q

What is the weather minima for authorising a visual approach?

A

800m RVR (touchdown transmissometer)

297
Q

What caution should be taken when authorising a visual approach?

A

Where IFR flights are authorised to make a visual approach, pilots are to be informed of any recommended wake turbulence separation minima.

Controllers shall exercise caution in initiating a visual approach when there is reason to believe that the flight crew concerned is not familiar with the aerodrome and its surrounding terrain.

298
Q

What information should be transmitted if a pilot is uncertain of the published aerodrome instrument approach procedures?

A

(a) “This is the approach procedure for (aid) for category A aircraft. Final approach track (degrees)”;
(b) Arrival level (if necessary);
(c) Type of reversal manoeuvre including outbound track, length in time or distance, level instructions and direction of procedure turn where applicable.
(2) When aircraft commences final reversal: intermediate and final approach track, intermediate and final approach fixes together with level instructions, stepdown fixes and OCH;
(3) Missed approach point and missed approach procedure (when required).

UK ATC APP (3 decks)

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