U1T2 - Factfiles Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of the design stage?

A

To produce a systems specification. Document includes detail on certain design components.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What should the document in the design stage include?

A

Data capture methods + forms for system, data inputs + outputs for system (screen designs, report specifications, query designs, storyboards, macros), data processing within system, data structures (database structure, data models, DFDs, normalisation), user interface (screen layouts, buttons, error messages), hardware used to run new system, detailed design of user interface, switchboard, menus), test plan, program code listings + hardware + software config.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the purpose of development?

A

Develop the software package required for info system. Programming code must be produced/features of software package must be developed, data
structures, data checking procedures + user
interface. Must also be evidence of effective use of hardware specification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the purpose of testing?

A

Ensure system works as described in system specification + is high quality. Should be able to demonstrate all parts/functions of solution work as expected, irrespective of data input. Errors + limitations identified + corrected. Test plan is devised including range of test data ensures it’s structured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a storyboard?

A

Diagram which shows planned sequence of screen displays in user interface. May be branching diagram showing diff paths available to user. Visual aid, helps with test plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is prototyping?

A

Involves building a working model/first cut of new system. Gives user ‘look + feel’ experience. User can eval + give feedback to systems analyst. Analyst can make changes + return to user who evals. Means better quality, identify issues early, end user involved, fulfils requirements, saves cost + trains. Process continues as refinements made. Results in fully working system (Evolutionary Prototyping) or produces set of user requirements (Throw-away Prototyping)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is a system developed with throw away prototyping?

A

Using alt approach e.g. waterfall method. Prototype produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are 3 diff quality indicators?

A

Suitability, usability + effectiveness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some suitability questions in terms of quality indicators?

A

Does system meet all objectives, is it fit for purpose, does system provide required functionality, is it compatible with existing tech/hardware/software/data + is it robust/free from errors?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some usability questions in terms of quality indicators?

A

How fast can user learn to use UI, is UI intuitive, does UI match user’s level of IT competence, how well can user transfer skills + what training required?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some effectiveness questions in terms of quality indicators?

A

Does system perform tasks efficiently + has it been designed to facilitate maintenance, has it delivered promised improvements?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is system testing?

A

Making sure system works as described in spec. Follows test plan to test each individual functions works with extreme/invalid data. Ensures system produces correct results for data input.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is alpha/application testing?

A

Carried out in-house by members of IT development team e.g. programmers. Includes module, integration + system testing whereby software is tested against module + system specs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is beta testing?

A

Takes place after alpha testing. Software given to number of potential users in pre-release version. Users agree to test system in realistic environment + give feedback to developer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is acceptance testing?

A

Testing software by end user in live environment with real data volumes to ensure it meets user requirements. Feedbacks issues to developer. Gets agreement between user and developer. Proves to customer that system works.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the test plan?

A

Produced at design stage. Detailed document which is used by group of testers. Includes ref to part of system to be tested, test data to be entered + result expected. Testers records if successful/not. Test teams must follow test plan. If expected result doesn’t occur, modified. Data that checks validation rules should be included. Should be created early. Created by analyst. Programmer performs it. Hardware, software + procedures should be tested.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 3 categories of test data?

A
Normal Data (Includes data that program will accept)
Extreme Data (Includes data on acceptability limits)
Exceptional Data (Data when entered invalid + not accepted)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe what led to the software crisis.

A

Created when hardware developments (RAM speed, processing power) were growing at much faster speed than software developments. As comp tech more complicated, organisations demanding more complex problems to be solved. Programmers struggled to keep pace with developments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When did the software crisis become evident?

A

Projects ran over budget, were delivered late (if at all) + inefficient software. Low quality software which didn’t meet user’s needs. Projects were difficult to manage + codes difficult to maintain. Also impacted maintenance of older software which needed to be adapted to new user requirements. Programmers must spend more time maintaining older software. Expensive to create new software so reluctant to do so. Inadequate documentation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are productivity tools

A

Generic software purchased and tailored to meet user’s needs. e.g. Microsoft 365.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why might new software have to be produced?

A

Current system may not be suitable for purpose as requirements may have changed/business may
have expanded.
Current system may be too inflexible/expensive to maintain.
Tech support for old system may not be available/available but expensive.
Tech developments could make current system outdated.
Advances in hardware + OS’s may require it as may not support old system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does a computer consist of?

A

User interface allowing data requiring processing to be entered + outputs results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does a user interface allow?

A

Allows user to interact with computer + software

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a process?

A

Activity carried out as part of computer system.

Takes data in form of raw facts + figures + produces info in report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does a systems analyst do?

A

Analyses data processing requirements of organisation
+ documents findings. Conduct feasibility study to find whether system should be computerised
+ which solution suitable + draw up the systems
spec. If fault found during testing reflecting system design then analyst corrects the fault. May have little knowledge of how organisation works.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the systems specification?

A

Criteria against which system testing should be evaluated leading to implementation of system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does a programmer do?

A
Writes source code using programming language. Written from module specs. When program
produced, programmer develops test plan + tests it. If bugs present, then programmer debugs it. To allow further development, they produce technical documentation which is used during maintenance stage. Shouldn't write user guides.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does the project manager do?

A

Oversees development new system development, schedules project, manages budget, allocated resources (human, hardware + software), monitors progress, identifies + responds to risk + reports back to clients as project progresses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the main point in analysis?

A

Investigate problems within an information system. Solution to problem can be improvements
within existing system/creation of new info system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

During analysis, what does a systems analyst do?

A

Investigate present system to establish user requirements. Must understand business purpose + existing system in terms of inputs, processing + outputs. Includes constraints for new system (timescale, cost,
existing hardware + software + staff capability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Give 4 methods of fact finding.

A

Interviews, Questionnaires, Observation + Document Sampling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What do interviews in the analysis stage involve?

A

Users answer questions from system analyst on one-to-one basis/small groups. Express opinions in detailed
way. Interview may be structured or unstructured
so questions followed up as more facts unearthed from answers. Time consuming + users may also suggest answers analyst wants to hear + not truth. Open ended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do questionnaires involve?

A

Representative group of users complete a set of questions (open or closed) to identify detail on current processes + data. Quicker but inflexible opportunities to respond as answers tend to be
multiple choice. Low return rate from staff, particularly if done by post/e-mail. Spread out staff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does observation involve?

A

Systems analyst shadows users carrying out a process. Analyst sees what user’s role entails. Can get a feel of competence + abilities + time required to do a task, constraints + strengths of current system. Users may respond differently if being observed. Not enough alone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is document sampling?

A

Analyst inspects sample docs (orders, invoices, reports)
to identify current system’s inputs + outputs. Analyst gets idea of volume of data stored seeing how data is
collected + stored. Time consuming if many files. Some out of date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the functional requirements of a system?

A

Specifies activities a system must perform/provide for users. What the system must do.
e.g. How data is entered into system, outputs (queries + reports) + operations performed by each screen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the non-functional requirements of a system?

A

Criteria that judges operation of system e.g. Time to update stock database, criteria for usability, security +
access to system, storage capacity, + maintainability, backup of data, recovery procedures,
contingency planning and access restrictions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do access restrictions specify?

A

What data needs protected + what data should be
restricted to a particular user role + level of access such as “read only”. All new computer systems are subject to
legislation such as the Data Protection Act.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are data flow diagrams?

A

Shows how data moves through a system + what data is stored. Doesn’t specify what type of data storage
medium is used or how data is stored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a context diagram?

A

“Level 0” data flow diagram.Sees system as 1 main process, identifies main data source + main data flows into + out of this process. Doesn’t consider data stores .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a level 1 DFD?

A

Breaks down process into sub processes showing how data flows between these. Data stores shown + indication of what data is stored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is data archiving?

A

Storage of info for long period of time. Consists
of info which is still important but not of immediate use/for future reference. Data which must be retained for a period of time to comply with legislation/auditing purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Why is data archiving necessary?

A

Compressed so takes up less space. Stored on cheaper storage medium (optical discs) Still accessible to end user if necessary so may be indexed for easy retrieval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Why is backup important?

A

Makes copies of software/data in case originals lost/damaged. Appropriate backup means if system failure occurs then system/data can be rebuilt accurately. After system failure/data corruption, backup allows corrupt/lost data to be replaced. Should have regular backups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are 3 methods of backup?

A

Full, differential + incremental.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a full backup?

A

Copies all files to provide complete picture of data at given time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a differential backup?

A

Copies files changed since last full backup.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is an incremental backup?

A

Copies files changed since last backup of any type.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the advantages of a full backup?

A

Everything backed up at once + files restored quickly

+ easily as complete files copied from backup.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the disadvantages of a full backup?

A

Most files don’t change so data redundancy in backups, takes longer + security concerns as everything in 1 place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the advantages of a differential backup?

A

Faster than incremental restore as only uses last full backup + last differential backup, only copies updated files so faster + less space than full.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the disadvantages of a differential backup?

A

Requires more space

than incremental, longer restore time than incremental as all changes copied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the advantages of an incremental backup?

A

Faster backup as only amended files copied + less storage space as only copy changed files.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the disadvantages of an incremental backup?

A

Recovery process takes longer as all incremental backups required + problems may occur if any incremental backups corrupted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is a disaster recovery plan?

A

Document which details procedures associated with recovery + protection of IT system in event of disaster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What makes a good disaster recovery plan?

A

Incorporates set of procedures to support
recovery + continuation of vital tech infrastructure following natural, environmental or
man-made disasters. Also takes into consideration processing + operational needs of organisation + potential problems their IT systems might be exposed to.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What 7 things should be in a disaster recovery plan?

A

Potential disaster causes (fire, theft, power loss/telecommunication failure)
Assumptions made in plan writing (all staff involved in implementation of recovery plan available to support
implementation)
Plan Scope identifies infrastructure areas covered by plan (Details organisation areas being supported
by identified services + impact of disaster to that area + recovery priority for each area)
Policies to support infrastructure continuity in identified areas.
Staff w/ responsibility for ensuring adherence to each area.
Plan of action (Identifies steps necessary for recovery, steps taken in given time from start to continuing steps)
Revision + testing plan (Tested + reviewed regularly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is implementation?

A

Creates working computer system based on previously produced system design documentation. Includes systems diagrams, interface design creation + spec of verification + validation techniques to be applied to data as it’s input. Puts design elements into practice.
Determines data structures to store data once it’s input, specifying system modules + describes them in algorithmic form before creating the comp system + its associated elements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is changeover?

A

After design, implementation + testing, changeover from old to new system must occur so info system can be tested in real life scenario. Approached depending on system size + processed data nature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is parallel running?

A

Old + new system operate side by side for short time period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are 4 different ways of changeover?

A

Parallel, direct, phased + pilot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is direct changeover?

A

Discontinuing use of old system + immediately replacing w/ new system. No overlap.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is phased implementation?

A

Some system parts replaced by new system while rest operates using old system.

64
Q

What is pilot running?

A

Similar to phased but only some data from old system

is processed by new. New system operates alongside old, but only processes part of data.

65
Q

What are the advantages of parallel changeover?

A

Supports processing result comparison with new + old system. Old available as backup if new system fails.

66
Q

What are the disadvantages of parallel changeover?

A

Increases staff workload as all items must be processed in duplicate.

67
Q

What are the advantages of direct changeover?

A

New system up + running immediately, no extra costs associated w/ duplicate data processing/dual
systems operating.

68
Q

What are the disadvantages of direct changeover?

A

No means of comparison of output between old + new system (may be only option) No backup if new system fails.

69
Q

What are the advantages of phased changeover?

A

Supports gradual installation of new system + staff training (allows time for end user to become familiar with new system).

70
Q

What are the disadvantages of phased changeover?

A

If system failure occurs in transitioned phase, no backup

available.

71
Q

What are the advantages of pilot changeover?

A

Data processed by old + new system available for comparison. Staff involved in operation of pilot system helps with dissemination of training to other staff members.

72
Q

What are the disadvantages of pilot changeover?

A

Can’t test system efficiency with larger data quantities.

73
Q

What are all systems provided with on implementation to support end user?

A

Series of documents to support planning + development + maintenance of system.

74
Q

What does user documentation provide?

A

Provides user with all necessary info to support them in
successful use of hardware/software. Doesn’t include lots of tech detail as users tend to be non-technical. End user doesn’t need to know how system works, just what it can do.

75
Q

What might user documentation include?

A

Table of contents + index to support location of instructional content, details on min hardware +
software spec necessary to support system, instructions on how to install app, how to start using + exit system, how to use main system features, examples of input + output produced by system, explanations on error messages provided by system + trouble shooting section w/ details on how to resolve common errors.

76
Q

What formats might user documentation be provided in?`

A

Hard copy, online or embedded into app in multimedia format. Complicated systems may provide user w/ extra support (tool-tips, video tutorials, search facilities to support user in location of appropriate instructional content)

77
Q

What is technical documentation?

A

Describes how system works. Written for professional
involved in design, implementation, testing +
maintenance of system. e.g. DFDs, data dictionary, gantt charts, system spec, program listings.

78
Q

What is data conversion?

A

Process of converting/transferring data from old system to new. In some, input of data from paper based records to electronic for storage on database or complete migration of entire database from 1 app to another.
Involves software + human intervention + great care necessary to ensure all necessary data correctly converted. e.g. export from excel to t chartcsv + import to access

79
Q

What is system maintenance?

A

Ensuring system runs smoothly after implementation.
Maintenance regularly carried out to ensure system meets changing organisation requirements. e.g. Addressing needs not previously identified (corrective
maintenance), external factors influencing organisation
(adaptive maintenance), Improvements made to system operation (perfective maintenance)

80
Q

What are 3 types of maintenance?

A

Corrective, adaptive + perfective.

81
Q

What is corrective maintenance?

A

Production of detailed requirement list helps to ensure user’s needs clearly identified + addressed during system development process. Other issues may arise after development stage. Some errors may arise when system in operation for a while. Refers to any action when system/component fails after software delivered to end user. Reactionary response to problems as arise. Any system breakdown/component failure can cost organisation time +money (repair costs, lost production or sales)
Actions taken to remedy issue might involve developers issuing “software patch” which can be installed by end user to ensure error is corrected.

82
Q

What is adaptive maintenance?

A

Any mod of software product after delivery responding to environmental changes within which software is used/meets changing user requirements. Dynamic nature means it’s inevitable. Need for high level of
early adaptive maintenance may indicate user requirements weren’t adequately defined.

83
Q

What is perfective maintenance?

A

Any amendment made to software product, after initial
delivery, to improve the software performance. Allows system to develop to incorporate changes demanded by organisation. When carrying it out, developer can take opportunity to upgrade code, so it’s more
efficient. High level of it at early stage after package release may indicate user requirements lack sufficient detail.

84
Q

Give 3 approaches to system development.

A

Waterfall method, rapid application development + agile development.

85
Q

What is the waterfall method?

A

Abstract description of systems life cycle where each stage of development flows on from last stage. (each stage completed before next begins). At end of each stage, review occurs to ensure project is on right path.
After each review, decision made whether the project should continue or be discarded. No stages overlap + testing occurs when implementation complete.

86
Q

What is rapid application development?

A

Incremental model. Each system component developed in parallel, produced in given time frame + assembled to produce working prototype which is delivered
to user for feedback.

87
Q

What is an incremental model?

A

Whole project subdivided into series of builds, each of which undergoes its own separate lifecycle, passing through requirements, design implementation + testing phases.

88
Q

What are the 5 stages of RAD?

A

Interative process. Business modelling, data modelling, process modelling, application generation + testing + turnover.

89
Q

What is business modelling?

A

Complete analysis of business carried out to determine info flow.

90
Q

What is data modelling?

A

Data objects identified + defined + relations between data objects established.

91
Q

What is process modelling?

A

Description of process to make addition/mod to data object or retrieval of data object identified.

92
Q

What does application generation entail?

A

System developed using automated tools to generate code for final application.

93
Q

What does testing + turnover entail?

A

Prototypes tested at each iteration so overall testing time reduced. Application interface + data flow between components must be tested thoroughly. May use CASE toots e.g. automatic code generation + DFD creation.

94
Q

Describe the agile development model?

A

Iterative + incremental models. Aim is rapid delivery of product in response to customer needs.
Divides process into small incremental tasks which are provided in iterations which last a number of weeks. During each iteration, series of teams simultaneously work on planning, requirements analysis, coding, + testing (unit testing + acceptance testing). e.g. scrum

95
Q

What are some advantages of the waterfall method?

A

Rigid model w/ specific outcomes at end of each phase, easy to understand + apply, good for projects where
user requirements clearly identified + no phase overlapping so easy to implement.

96
Q

What are some disadvantages of the waterfall method?

A

When testing begins, system requirement amendments difficult + no software produced until late in development process so high risk.

97
Q

What are some advantages of RAD?

A

Quicker, components reviewed early, client feedback encouraged + components can be reused.

98
Q

What are some disadvantages of RAD?

A

Not suited to all systems + expensive approach as uses automated code generation + modelling tools.

99
Q

What are some advantages of the agile method?

A

Quicker so customers prefer, system regularly adapted for user requirements + everyone works closely on
development.

100
Q

What are some disadvantages of the agile method?

A

Less docs so future maintenance/review difficult, easily loses focus if customer unclear of own
requirements + only experienced programmers
suited to it.

101
Q

What are the main elements to be considered by a project manager?

A

Resources, constraints + risks.

102
Q

What must a project manager consider in terms of resources?

A

Capital, development environment + personnel (system developers, project
managers, system analysts, stakeholders + development environment) When considering organisation of comp project, organisation of personnel includes ensuring availability of trained staff + efficient deployment of staff across project elements.

103
Q

What must a project manager consider in terms of constraints?

A

Restrictions placed on limitations of project. Project scope (limitations on areas to be implemented),
schedule + cost. Scope identifies project goals + defines project boundaries whilst schedule identifies deadlines to be met across project, including completion. Cost identifies max spend available to project.

104
Q

What must a project manager consider in terms of risks?

A

User involvement, scheduling flaws, requirement inflation, specification breakdown, staff turnover + technology.

105
Q

What must a project manager consider in terms of risks:

User Involvement

A

Not involving end user at planning leads to extra/changing requirements later. Increases costs + time delays.

106
Q

What must a project manager consider in terms of risks:

Scheduling Flaws

A

Inaccurate task scheduling + inefficient staff deployment leads to missed deadlines.

107
Q

What must a project manager consider in terms of risks:

Requirement Inflation

A

Ineffective consideration of user requirements leads to new features being identified as project unfolds, threatening project timeline.

108
Q

What must a project manager consider in terms of risks:

Specification Breakdown

A

Happens if development team didn’t understand specification/user didn’t understand how requirements tied to the specification.

109
Q

What must a project manager consider in terms of risks:

Staff Turnover

A

Loss of key personnel leads to project delays.

110
Q

What must a project manager consider in terms of risks:

Technology

A

Consideration to familiarity of project staff w/ working platform. (prior experience w/ hardware/software, hardware tasks reasonable?)

111
Q

What is software project management?

A

Management of any project where software is planned + implemented. Many project managers use specialised software to support them in this process.

112
Q

What are some key features to consider in software project management?

A

Monitoring, scheduling, budget + resources.

113
Q

What must be considered in software project management in terms of monitoring?

A

Ensures project manager constantly aware of progress + able to apply timely interventions in times of difficulty. Project management software can be used to aid this
process. Progress reports from team managers help provide them with project overview. Regular meetings/diaries can also be used. Based on report findings, they can keep project on schedule.

114
Q

What must be considered in software project management in terms of scheduling?

A

Late project delivery is costly so must ensure deadlines met. Must consider interdependency of tasks, task sequencing + parallelism (which tasks depend on task outcomes, what order tasks completed + which tasks can be completed concurrently) Unrealistic deadlines, changing requirements + unforeseen human/technical difficulties are destructive.

115
Q

What must be considered in software project management in terms of budget?

A

Clients want to know price + project manager must ensure project costs aren’t escalating out of control. Budget/available finance places constraint on project + needs to consider man hours, software + hardware requirements + licensing issues. When project overtime, impacts cost. Project manager must work within budget.

116
Q

What must be considered in software project management in terms of resources?

A

People, equipment, facilities + anything necessary for successful project completion. Effective scheduling + optimum resource deployment necessary if successful completion of project is to be guaranteed. Resources allocated based on priority for each component.

117
Q

What are some project management tools?

A

Gantt charts + critical path analysis.

118
Q

What are gantt charts?

A

Type of bar chart used to show start + end dates of project elements. Show all activities forming part of overall project against time. Time on horizontal, activities vertical depending on start dates. Main features are milestones, resources, status + dependencies.

119
Q

What is critical path analysis?

A

Allows project managers to analyse project activities to min delays + ensure conflicts delayed. Helps managers
calc min time needed to complete project. Allows manager to construct project model where all tasks needed to complete project are listed, time taken for each activity listed + dependencies among activities also listed.

120
Q

What are the benefits of gantt charts?

A

Eliminates idle time in project, provides clarity (allows all
project elements to be displayed on single page), provides motivation for
team members (focus on individual task deadlines) + aids time management.

121
Q

What are the drawbacks of gantt charts?

A

Misleading (Bar size doesn’t reflect task’s work amount) + can become hard for larger projects w/ many components. Harder to see critical path.

122
Q

What are the benefits of CPA?

A

Dependencies displayed visually, supports efficient allocation of resources + costs + helps make impact of schedule revisions more visible.

123
Q

What are the drawbacks of CPA?

A

Diff to develop for larger projects w/ large num of activities.

124
Q

What is version management?

A

System change monitoring during development process + operational life. All changes made to source are tracked, who made change, why, + enhancements made.
This supports software change tracking + all changes can be reversed if necessary. Ensures everyone involved (developers + users) are working on same systems.

125
Q

What is a project?

A

A temporary activity with a defined beginning + end, specific goals + conditions, defined responsibilities, a budget + multiple parties involved.

126
Q

What is the cost-scope triangle?

A

Time (to deliver project) - Cost (More time, more cost) - Quality (robust programs must be developed + tested)

127
Q

What is the purpose of data flow diagrams?

A

Demonstrate proposal to client, show how current + new system work, demonstrate how data flows in + out of system, show how processes interact + become part of system documentation.

128
Q

What is data flow?

A

Path data takes through system, represented by arrow line which has description of data.

129
Q

What is a process?

A

Data is transformed by it. Anything which causes data to be changed in some planned way.

130
Q

What are external entities?

A

Define external things in DFD which have effect but aren’t part of system.

131
Q

What is a data store?

A

Many systems must keep a persistent data copy to support various processes. It can be electronic or paper.

132
Q

What are some of the issues with prototyping?

A

Excessive development time, user confusion, increased development time, too much focus on one part of system + expensive.

133
Q

Why is data archived?

A

Identifying and moving inactive data into long term archival storage systems optimises performance of resources necessary. Store old data in case needed. Speeds up data retrieval reduces current storage (RAM)

134
Q

How can we work out the critical path?

A

Identify all project activities, prioritise activities, which activities before others, EST, LFT, FLOAT, critical path.

135
Q

EST

A

Earliest Start Time

136
Q

LFT

A

Latest Finish Time

137
Q

FLOAT

A

Tasks which can be completed outside of critical path.

138
Q

What are some potential threats to data security?

A

Natural disasters, operator error, ex-employee threats, hacking, breakins, carelessness.

139
Q

What is a security policy?

A

Set of documents which assess threats + propose how to deal with them by assessing risks, implementing diff security layers, educating users.

140
Q

What does a good security policy have?

A

Realistic aims, user responsibility defined, guidance on what to do in an incident, how incidents handled, flexible + can be updated + based on more than one security measure.

141
Q

Examples of security measures:
Physical
Coding
Internet Comms

A

Window bars, security cams, no sprinklers, security pass.
User IDs + passes, limit logins + access rights.
Firewalls (hacks) + call-back system (prevent unauthorised remote access)

142
Q

What is SCRUM?

A

Iterative + incremental agile software development framework for managing product development.

143
Q

What is the key principle of SCRUM?

A

During a project, customers can change minds about what they want so it adopts empirical approach and focuses on maximising team ability to deliver quickly + respond to changing requirements.

144
Q

What happens in SCRUM methodology?

A

Product owner works with team to ID + prioritise system functionality in form of a product backlog consisting of features, bug fixes, non-func requirements etc. With priorities, cross-functional teams estimate + sign up to deliver potentially shippable increments of software in sprints lasting up to 30 days. No add func can be added except by team once backlog committed.

145
Q

What are the advantages of agile SCRUM?

A

Saves time + money, fast developments can be quickly coded + tested, mistakes easily fixed, lightly controlled, frequent progress updates so clear visibility, easier to cope with changes, daily meetings measures + improves productivity + issues ID’d in advance + more likely to be on time,

146
Q

What are the disadvantages of agile SCRUM?

A

If task not well defined, estimating costs + time inaccurate so spreads over several sprints, if not committed, it will fail, good for small, fast projects with one team of experienced people, scrum master must trust team + if anyone leaves it has a huge effect.

147
Q

Black Box Testing

A

Testing without seeing the process i.e. the code

148
Q

White Box Testing

A

Testing while able to see the process i.e. the code

149
Q

Milestones

A

Point in time, not task, don’t take up any time.

150
Q

Resources

A

Workforce e.g. development time

151
Q

Status

A

Where we are in time on gantt chart e.g. week 3 day 2

152
Q

Dependencies

A

What we must do before doing something else e.g. boil kettle before drinking tea.

153
Q

Float/slack

A

When tasks can be done one after the other or take loonger without affecting the deadline.

154
Q

How do you find out EST?

LFT?

A

Left to right, 2 feeder values, use largest.

Right to left, 2 feeder values, use smallest.

155
Q

What is a foreign key?

A

Key field in one data table but non-key field in another. Links 2 tables + creates a relationship.

156
Q

What should be in a test plan?

A

Test timing, personnel who’ll perform tests, testing tools + type of tests to be used.

157
Q

What are the main features of a disaster recovery plan?

A

Potential causes, risks to organisation, key data, how data is to be restored, areas in scope + policies to support their continuity + staff responsible for ensuring plan adherence.