Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Internal Med > U world only > Flashcards

U world only Flashcards

1
Q

Malaria Prophylaxis

A

atovaquone proguanil
doxycycline
mefloquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

malaria prophylaxis in pregnacy

A

mefloquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Methanol - symptoms besides metabolic acidosis

A

vision loss

optic disc hyperemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CML translocation

A

9,22

bcr-ab1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CML decreased…. (what) activate

A

lap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

meds causing hearing loss

A

furosemide, aspirin, aminoglycoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ARDS - mechanism

A

decreased lung compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

molluscum contagiousum

A

flesh colored dome shaped papules

pox virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

chronic corticosteroid use + bone pain mechanism

A

osteonecrosis/avascular necrosis of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HIV esophagitis without thrush

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

elastic pressure inversely prop to

A

compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

echinococus granulosus

A

liver cysts

sheep, dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ca oxalate crystals

A

ethylene glycol ingestions

treat with fomepizole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

fomepizole

A

treatment for ethylene glycol intox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

hard submandiubular or cervical lymph nodes ddx

A

head/neck cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

vaccination for asplenic pts - timing

A

2 weeks before or 2 weeks after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

asplenic pts vaccines

A

PCV 13,23 (repeat 23 5 years later and when 65)
h flu
meningococcal every 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

RAAS activity

A

increasing angiotensin II levels
vasoconstriction of efferent > afferent glomerulr arterioles causing decrease RBF
increased NA reabsorption in collection tubule so decreased delivery to distal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

plasma free metanephrines

A

pheochromocytome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

nitrate reduce

A

preload, LVEDV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

adrenal insuff - infectious causes

A

HIV, TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

primary adrenal insuff

A

low cortisol, increased acth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

secondary adrenal insuff

A

low cortisol, low acth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

GGT in alcoholic hepatitis

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

choricoarcinoma can spread to

A

lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ventilation =

A

TV x RR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

myopathy with increased CK, normal ESR ddx

A

hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

pounding heart sensation when laying on L sie

A

AR

LV brought closer to chest wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

hashimoto - increased risk of

A

thyroid lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ehrlichiosis

A

tick borne acute febrile illness with AMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ehrlichiosis treatment

A

doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

spinal stenosis worse with

A

extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

macular degeneration

A

issues with fine visual accuity
straight lines appear wavy on grid test
drusen deposits in macule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

IE in someone with recent UTI

A

enteroccoccus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

hemolysis and haptoglobin

A

free hgb binds haptoglobin

excess free hgb due to hemolysis it will bind haptoglobin and decrease it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

complication of nephrotic syndrome

A

renal vein thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

renal vein thrombosis symptoms

A

flank, abd pain, hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

renal vein thrombosis mechanism

A

loss of antithrombin III in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

osteomyelitis from nail puncture - organism

A

pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

osteomalacia labs

A

decrease ca, ph (vit d low)

increased PTH, alk phos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

drug induced esophagitis causes

A

tetracycline, aspirin/nsaids, KCL, alderonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

dequerviran tenosynitis

A

common in new mothers

pain on lateral side of wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

chest tube placement in parapneumonic effusion

A

low ph, less than 7.2

glucose less than 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

ischemic colitis - most common location

A

splenic flexure

watershed area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

ischemic colitis - labs

A

leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

nitrites in urine caused y

A

enterobacteriacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

macrocytic anemia in sickle cell dz

A

folic acid def

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

lung adenocarcinoma

A

non smokers
peripheral
solitary nodule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

dark brown discoloration of colon with lymph follicles showing through

A

laxative abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

flail chest

A

crush injury, more than 3 rib fractures

unstable chest wall segment, paradoixcal motion with breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

earliest renal sign associated with DM

A

glomerular hyperfiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

acyclovir AE

A

crystal stone renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

polyp most likely to be malignant

A

villous adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

bacillary angiomatosis

A

angioma like growths on both skin and viscera

prone to hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

angiodysplasia symptoms

A

anemia
painless rectal/gi bleeding
AS murmur: systolic at RSB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Graves disease - what treatment can initially worsen eye symptoms

A

radioactive iodine

destroyed thyroid cells release excess thyroid hormone which exacerbates eye symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

UC colonosocpy screening

A

1-2yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

multinucleated cells on tzanck smear

A

herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

nonpurulent vesicles on fingers

A

herpetic whitlow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Paget’s Disease of breast

A
  • eczematous lesions on breast
  • path: large cells with halo
  • usually adenocarcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

mechanism of expthalamos

A

stimulation of orbital fibroblasts by anti-TSH receptor autoantibotides
orbital tissue expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

scabies treatment

A

permethrin cream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

osler weber rendu

A

teleangiectasis
epistaxis
AVMs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

patellofemoral syndrome

A

young women
pain with squatting
patellofemoral compression test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

patellar tendonitis

A

athletes, episodic

pain and tenderness at inferior patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

osgood schlatter disease

A

adolescent/growth spurt
episodic
tender and tibial tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

low thyroglubin =

A

exogenous thyroid homrone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

prinzmetal angia risk factor

A

smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

prinzmetal angina treatmetn

A

ccb or nitrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what drug prevents ventricular remodeling

A

acei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

chalazion

A

nodular rubbery lesion
if it keeps returning, change of sebacious carcinoma
do histopath exam to rule out malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

dacrocystitis

A

infection of lacrimal gland

s aureus or streptococc al

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

solitary brain metastasis – treatment

A

resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

chronic scar that turns into non healing ulcer, think

A

SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

periarticular ostepenia

A

RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

central retinal artery occlusion symptoms

A

painless loss of vision 2/2 embolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

central retinal artery occlusion treatment

A

occular massage and high flow o2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

neuro symptoms in copd resp failure due to

A

co2 retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

exertional heat stroke

A

hot weather
temp greater than 104
collapse
ams/ards/dic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

exertional heat stroke risk increased with

A

anticholinergics, antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

water bottle shaped heart with clear lungs

A

pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

non palpable maximal impuse

A

pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

polycytehmia vera low levels of

A

epo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

drug that increases chance of hypothermia

A

haloperidal, fluphenazol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

beta cell tumor labs

A

increased c peptide levels

proinsulin greater than 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

hidradenitis supprativa

A

also called acne inversa
axillary/inguinal regions
painful tender mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

caustic poisoning

A

salviation, mouth burns, severe pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

refractory hypokalemia possible treatment/cause

A

hypomagnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

symptoms of MI + pulm edema

A

give furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

urine ph >7

A

proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

exudative pleural effusion causes

A

infection: TB, PNA
malignancy
CTD
PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

gum hypertrophy

A

cyclosporine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

hodgkin’s lymphoma treated with chemo and radiation 20 years ago

A

chance of solid tumor malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

hyposthenuria

A

nocturia/impairement of kidneys ability to concentrate urine

associated with SSD/SST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

ankylosing spondylosis + SOA

A

restrictive lung dz due to decreased chest wall mobility

96
Q

screening test for viriliaizng neoplasma

A

tesosterone and DHEAS

97
Q

DHEAS made by

A

adrenals only

98
Q

ovarian neoplasm - labs

A

increased tesosterone

normal dheas

99
Q

adrenal neoplasm (virilism) - labs

A

normal testosterone

elevated DHEAS

100
Q

foodborne illnes with vomiting

A

s aureus, bacillus cereus, norovisu

101
Q

necrotizing pneumonia with pneumatocele think

A

s aureus

102
Q

hep b screening based on

A

unprotected sex/needle use

103
Q

hep c screening based on

A

blood transfusions before 1992

104
Q

acute angle glaucoma symptoms

A

ha/nausea/eye pain

mid-dilated pupil

105
Q

acute angle glaucoma can be triggered by

A

decongestants

106
Q

diagnosis of acute angle glaucoma

A

tonometry to measure IOP

goinoscopy gold standard

107
Q

electrical alterans

A

varifying amplitudes of QRS

108
Q

trastuzumab toxicity

A

cardiotoxicity

109
Q

liver mets

A

GI, lung, breast

110
Q

retrophyargneal space is danger space because

A

drains into mediastinum

111
Q

inconclusive fast exam

A

unstable, diagnostic peritoneal lavage

stable, CT

112
Q

constrictive pericarditis etiology

A

viruses
cardiac surgery
chest radiation
tb

113
Q

stroke management in sickle cell pt

A

exchange transfusion

114
Q

syphilis treatment

A

penicillin g

doxy if allergeric

115
Q

indicator of severe asthma attck

A

normal pco2
hypervenitiatlion would cause decreased pco2
so normal pco2 indicates airway obstruction or resp muscle fatigue

116
Q

toxic adenoma scan

A

diffuse uptake only in nodule/adenoma

117
Q

ckd anemia

A

due to epo def, normocytic

when you supplement epo, surge of rbc production can cause iron def

118
Q

emphysematus cholecysitis

A

secondary infection of gallbladder with gas forming bacteria

occurs in diabetic males

119
Q

trichinellosis - risk factors

A

undercooked meat, mexico

120
Q

trichinellosis symptoms

A

intestinal stage followed my muscle stage

121
Q

muscle stage of trichinellosis

A

splinter hemorrhages
myositis
perioorbital edema
eosinophilia

122
Q

corneal vesicles and dendritic ulcers

A

herpes simplex keratitis

123
Q

cherry vs strawberry angioma

A

adults - cherry

strawberry - children

124
Q

HA, nausea, dizziness

A

carbon monoxide poisoning

125
Q

colloid =

A

albumin

126
Q

terminal hematuria, think

A

prostate or bladder cause

127
Q

whipple’s dz

A

diarrhea
joint pain
lad

128
Q

behcets

A

oral ulcers +

genital ulcers, eye lesions/uveitis, nodules/erythem nodosum

129
Q

avascular necrosis diagnosed with

A

MRI

130
Q

temporal arteritis associated with

A

aortic aneurysm

serial CXRs

131
Q

charcot joint

A

deformed

associated with nerve damage/neuropathy

132
Q

hydroxychloroquine ae

A

retinopathy

eye exams q6mo

133
Q

SLE pt presenting with renal damage, next step

A

kidney biopsy

134
Q

reactive arthritis treatment

A

NSAIDS

135
Q

carcinoid syndrome associated with what deficiency

A

niacin

136
Q

leukoplakia

A

smokeless tobacco

can progress to squamous cell carcinoma

137
Q

AFib: most common location of ectopic foci

A

pulmonary veins

138
Q

Presbycusis

A

sensorineural hearing loss

trouble hearing in crowded places

139
Q

infective endocarditis and conduction abnormality, think

A

perivalvular abscess

140
Q

hemochromatosis - cardiac consequences

A

restrictive or dilated cardiomyopathy

conduction abnormalities

141
Q

NSAID induced bronchospasm, what other finding

A

nasal polpys

142
Q

Complications of Pancreatitis

A

ileus, pleural effusion

143
Q

SIBO

A

small intestine bacterial overgrwoth

diarrhea/bloating

144
Q

SIBO can be associated with

A

scleroderma, surgeries

145
Q

appendicitis pain

A

visceral - periumbicial

somatic - right lower abdomen

146
Q

zenker’s diverticulum test

A

contrast esophagram

147
Q

tropical sprue

A

chronic diarrhea

can be associated with nutrient deficiences

148
Q

tropical sprue biopsy

A

blunting of villi

149
Q

antimitochondrial Ab

A

PBC

150
Q

anti smooth muscle AB

A

autoimmune hepatitis

151
Q

PBC treatment

A

UDA

152
Q

HIV linear vs round ulcers

A

linear - CMV

round - HSV

153
Q

Gram positive aerobic branching bacteria

A

Acintomyces

Pencillin

154
Q

Acid fast, aerobic branching bacteria

A

Nocardia

TMP-SMX

155
Q

PCPtreatment

A

TMP-SMX

+ steroids if severe

156
Q

necroitizing surgical site

A

cloudy gray d/c
paresthesia/anathesia around wound edge
hypotension/fever/tachy

157
Q

Postop cholestasis occurs after

A

prolonged surgery with hypotension
massive blood less
excessive blood replacement

158
Q

necrotizing fascitis

A

pain out of proprortional to physical exam

history of trauma

159
Q

hypopigmented plaque + muscle atrophy

A

leprosy

160
Q

post-BMT pneumonitis + colitis

A

CMV

161
Q

caustic ingestion is ingestion of

A

NaOH (lye)

162
Q

caustic ingestion management

A

endoscopy

163
Q

beta blocker overdose antidote

A

glucagon

164
Q

ACL injury

A

popping sensation

hemarthrosis

165
Q

CI for succinylcholine use

A

hyperkalemia

release of K can cause arrythmias

166
Q

cyanide toxicity antidoe

A

sodium thiosulfate

hydroxocobalmin

167
Q

colon cancer screening if first degree relative

A

age 40 or 10 years before their onset

168
Q

PPSV23 vs PCV 13 immunology

A

23- t cell indep B cell rxn

13 - t cell dep B cell rxn (dep because its for kids)

169
Q

low urine CL metabolic aklalosis

A

vomiting

diuretic use

170
Q

high urine cl metabolic alkalosis

A

excess MC

RTA

171
Q

acute hemolytic rxn within

A

1 hr

172
Q

acute hemolytic rxn mechanism

A

ABO incompatibility

173
Q

delayed hemolytic rxn within

A

2-10 d

174
Q

delayed hemolytic rxn mechansims

A

anamestic antibody response

175
Q

Warm AIHA

A

anti-IgG

176
Q

Cold AIHA

A

anti-IGM

mycoplasma

177
Q

Lynch syndrome

A

HNPCC

colon + endometrial cancer

178
Q

hypercalcimea due to malignancy treatment

A

bisphosphonates

179
Q

spinal cord compression management

A

MRI
IV glucocorticoids
consult

180
Q

Solitary Brain Mets

A

Breast, Colon, RCC

181
Q

Multiple Brain Mets

A

Lung, Malignant Metastasis

182
Q

Febrile Nonhemolytic transfusion rxn

A

within 1-6 hrs

183
Q

leukoreduced cells for

A

febrile nonhemolytic

184
Q

irridated rbcs for

A

bmt pts

185
Q

washed RBCs for

A

Iga def
allergic rbc rxn
AIHA

186
Q

tumor lysis syndrome

A

increased K, Phos, UA

decreased CA due to phos binding

187
Q

paroxysmal noctural hemoglobinuria symptoms

A

hemolysis + thrombosis

188
Q

contraindications to radioactiv eiodine

A

pregnancy

severe ophthalmopathy

189
Q

risk of untreated hyperthyroidism

A

bone loss

cardiac arrhthmias

190
Q

sildenafil + alpha blocker

A

give 4 hrs apart

191
Q

leydig cell tumor

A

most common

makes testosterone, sometimes estrogen

192
Q

choriocarcinoma hormones

A

increase BHCG

193
Q

seminomas hormones

A

usually none

sometimes B-hcg

194
Q

secondary hyperaldosteronism

A

RAS
Cushings
renin secreting tumors

195
Q

most common cause of death in acromegaly

A

CVD

196
Q

diabetics age 40-75

A

always on statin!

197
Q

PTHrp

A

decrease PTH

decrease 1,25 vit d

198
Q

if you give B Blocker during Pheo crisis

A

unopposed stimulation of vascular alpha receptors

increased BP

199
Q

SFU side effects

A

wt gain, hypoglycemia

200
Q

TZD side effects

A

wt gain, edema, chf

201
Q

DPP-IV inhibitor

A

sitagliptin

wt neutral

202
Q

GLP-1 receptor agonist

A

exenatide

wt loss

203
Q

dermatofibroma

A

nontender, hyperpigmented, less than 1 cm

dimpling in center

204
Q

senile purpura due to

A

perivascular CT atrophy

205
Q

PBC cutaneous manifestations

A

xanthesmas and xanthelasmas

206
Q

lesion on lip, high ddx for

A

SCC

207
Q

doxycycline AE

A

photosensitivity

208
Q

frost bite treatment

A

rapid rewarming with warm h20

209
Q

melanoma type of biopsy

A

excisional

210
Q

ichthyosis vulgaris

A

dry and rough skin

211
Q

curtain came down over eyes

A

retinal detachment

212
Q

hordeloum or style

A

staphylococcal

treat with warm compresses

213
Q

vitreous hemorrhage

A

sudden loss of vision and floaters
common in diabetics
hard to visualize fundus

214
Q

sympatheti cphtthalmia

A

spared eye injury

due to hidden antigens

215
Q

cataract symptoms

A

blurred vision and glare

216
Q

acute glaucoma, avoid

A

atropine

217
Q

BPH diagnosis

A

ultrasound

218
Q

death in dialysis pts

A

CVD

219
Q

urethritis with no organisms on gram stain

A

chlyamdiae

220
Q

struvite stones

A

proteus

221
Q

most common cause of kidney stones

A

calcium oxalate

222
Q

calcium phosphate kidney stones

A

primer hyper PTH

RTA

223
Q

cystinuria

A

impaired aa transport
hexagonal crystals
urinary cyanide nitroprusside test

224
Q

EPO side effects

A

worsenign HTN, HA, flu like syndrome, red cell aplasia

225
Q

WBC casts

A

TIN

226
Q

analgestic nephropathy

A

TIN or papillary necrosis

227
Q

minimal change disease associated with

A

NSAIDS

lymphoma (hodgkins)

228
Q

acute kidney transplant rejection, treat with

A

IV steroids

229
Q

recurrent pneumonia in one location

A

think anatomic obstruction

order CT

230
Q

sleep apnea acid base

A

decreased chloride due to bicarb retention

231
Q

bronchoalveolar lavage best diagnoses

A

malignancy

oppurtunistic infections

232
Q

theophylline AE

A

arrythmias
cns - ha/seizures/insmonia
N/V

233
Q

decreased DLCO

A

emphysema

restrictive/fibrotic lung diseases

234
Q

normal DLCO

A

chronic bronchitis

235
Q

increased DLCO

A

asthma

Internal Med (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions