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Immunology > Types of immunity, immunisation and vaccines > Flashcards

Types of immunity, immunisation and vaccines Flashcards

1
Q

Why is immunisation important for individuals susceptible to infections?

A

Susceptible individual now has protection against infection, so has lower risks of infection

eg. cowpox vaccine reduces risk of smallpox

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2
Q

Which vaccine is given to reduce risk of smallpox?

A

Cowpox

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3
Q

What effect does immunisation have on disease symptoms, and what greater effect can this lead to?

A

Immunisation reduces disease symptoms

Which reduces disease transmission

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4
Q

What is the correlation between reduced disease transmission, outbreak control and eradication?

A

Reduced transmission can control outbreaks of diseases

Eventually outbreak control can lead to eradication: Transmission rate of worldwide infection is now zero

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5
Q

Does immunisation allow acquired or innate immunity?

A

Acquired immunity

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6
Q

Define acquired immunity and the 2 general causes of it developing?

A

Acquired immunity: Immunity developed during life

When immune system responds to foreign substance

Or individual receives antibodies

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7
Q

What is the difference between innate and acquired immunity?

A

Innate immunity develops before birth, protects against non-specific foreign substances

Acquired immunity develops after birth, protects against specific foreign substances

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8
Q

What are the 2 general types of acquired immunity?

A

Passive

Active

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9
Q

Define passive immunisation?

A

Pre-formed antibodies (natural or synthetic) are transferred to susceptible individual

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10
Q

What is meant by natural passive immunity?

A

Antibodies transferred from mother to baby

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11
Q

In natural passive immunity, which 2 antibody classes are transferred from mother to baby, and through what route?

A

IgA: Breast milk

IgG: Placenta

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12
Q

In artificial passive immunity, where are the pre-formed antibodies collected from?

A

Immune serum medicine

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13
Q

In artificial passive immunisation containing normal IgG antibodies, which 2 diseases does this protect against?

A

Hepatitis A

Measles

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14
Q

Which specific antibodies are given in the artificial passive immunisation against hepatitis B?

A

anti-HBs/HBsAb (Hepatitis B surface antibody)

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15
Q

Which specific antibodies are given in the artificial passive immunisation against rabies?

A

Anti-Rabies Immunoglobulins (RIG)

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16
Q

Which specific antibodies are given in the artificial passive immunisation against chicken pox?

A

Varicella-related IgG

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17
Q

Which specific antibodies are given in the artificial passive immunisation against tetanus?

A

Tetanus immune globulin (TIG)

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18
Q

In artificial passive immunisation containing monoclonal antibodies, which 2 diseases does this protect against?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

SARS-CoV-2

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19
Q

What is the main benefit of passive immunisations?

A

Provides immediate protection

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20
Q

What are the 2 main disadvantages of passive immunisations?

A

Only provide protection for few weeks to 3/4 months

Don’t provide immunological memory

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21
Q

Define active immunity?

A

Antibodies are formed as part of response to foreign substance or pathogen that enters body

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22
Q

What is the difference between natural active and artificial active immunisation?

A

Natural active: Antibodies form in response to infection

Artificial active: Antibodies form in response to vaccination

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23
Q

What is the main substance in an live attentuated vaccine that makes it effective?

A

Contains viable/live infectious agent with altered reduced/harmless virulence

Will still trigger adaptive immune response, so susceptive individuals still develop immunological memory

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24
Q

What is mucosal immunity?

A

Compartments (mucosal surfaces) that respond to antigens that have entered the tissues or spread into the blood

Eg. gut mucosa, Peyer’s patches

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25
Q

Do live attenuated vaccines provide mucosal immunity?

A

Yes

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26
Q

Which 2 types of individuals can’t receive live attenuated vaccines and why?

A

Babies

Immunocompromised individuals

You need to have mature adaptive immune system to receive live attenuated vaccine

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27
Q

Are live attenuated vaccines safe to give to pregnant women?

A

No

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28
Q

Do live attenuated vaccines always stay non-virulent after they have been altered, and why is this a risk?

A

No, they can revert back to pathogenic/virulent form

This can cause infection/disease in that susceptible individual who has received the vaccine

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29
Q

What vaccine is given for tuberculosis, and what type of vaccine is it?

A

Live attenuated vaccine

Bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine

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30
Q

What type of vaccine is given for yellow fever?

A

Live attenuated vaccine

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31
Q

Which 2 diseases is the VSV vaccine given for, and what type of vaccine is this?

A

Live attenuated

Ebola

Marburg virus infections

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32
Q

What live attenuated vaccine is given for protection against polioviruses, and what other types of virus?

A

Sabin/Oral Polio vaccine (OPV)

Given for polioviruses and rotaviruses as they have similarities

33
Q

What vaccine is given for influenza, and what type of vaccine is this?

A

MMR

Live attenuated vaccine

34
Q

What vaccine is given for typhoid, and what type of vaccine is this?

A

Ty21A vaccine

Live attenuated vaccine

35
Q

What is the main substance in an inactivated whole cell vaccine that makes it effective?

A

Pathogen that has been killed by physical/chemical processes

36
Q

Why can inactivated whole cell vaccines be given to immunocompromised individuals and babies, but live attenuated vaccines can’t?

A

Inactive whole cells (pathogens) can’t revert back to pathogenic form as they are not viable

So can’t cause disease/infection

37
Q

What is the main disadvantage of inactive whole cell vaccines compared to live attenuated vaccines?

A

Inactive whole cell vaccine induce less ongoing immunity, so need more doses

38
Q

Give 3 diseases can be protected against with inactivated whole cell vaccines?

A

Rabies

Hepatitis A

Polio

39
Q

What is the main substance of inactivated toxin vaccines that makes it effective?

A

Inactivated disease-causing toxins of the pathogen

40
Q

Give 3 examples of diseases that are protected against with inactivated toxin vaccines?

A

Tetanus

Diphtheria

Pertussis

41
Q

What is the main substance of subunit-recombinant protein vaccines that makes it effective?

A

Isolates specific pathogenic protein and presents it as antigen

42
Q

What type of vaccine is used to protect against hepatitis B?

A

Subunit-recombinant protein vaccine

43
Q

What is the main substance of purified polysaccharide vaccines that makes it effective?

A

Polysaccharides that have been isolated from bacterial coat

44
Q

Why do purified polysaccharide vaccines have poor immunogenicity?

A

They trigger B-cell response but not T-cell response

So T-helper cells can’t develop immunological memory and activate effector cells if infection occurs again

45
Q

Which 2 types of people are purified polysaccharide vaccines not effective in?

A

Children under 2 yrs old

Immunocompromised individuals

46
Q

Which 2 diseases are protected against with purified polysaccharide vaccines?

A

Pneumococcal disease

Meningococcal disease

47
Q

What is the main substance in conjugated polysaccharide vaccines that makes it effective?

A

Purified bacterial polysaccharide linked to a protein

48
Q

Why is the conjugated polysaccharide vaccine better to give than the purified polysaccharide vaccine?

A

Conjugation provides longer-lasting immunity

49
Q

What is the main substance that is inserted and removed in adenovirus vector vaccines, makes it effective?

A

dsDNA with removed replication genes and inserted gene coding protein

that leads to strong expression of viral proteins

50
Q

What is the main substance in mRNA vaccines that makes it effective?

A

mRNA that is translated in cells to produce target antigen

51
Q

What is the main benefit of an mRNA vaccine?

A

Quick to produce

52
Q

What is the main disadvantage of mRNA vaccines, in terms of storage?

A

Need to be refrigerated as they are unstable

53
Q

Give 2 examples of mRNA vaccines?

A

SARS-CoV-2 (Pfizer and Moderna)

54
Q

What is the main substance in adjuvanted vaccines that makes it effective?

A

Substances added to vaccine to increase immunogenicity

eg. Aluminium phosphate/ hydroxide commonly used

55
Q

What is the main disadvantage of adjuvanted vaccines compared to non-adjuvanted vaccines?

A

Causes localised reactions such as swelling, redness, pain and systemic reactions such as fever, chills, body aches

56
Q

How are children vaccinations organised so that they get pre-exposure protection?

A

UK childhood vaccination programmes

57
Q

Which 2 booster vaccines are given to adults over age 65, for pre-exposure protection?

A

pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine

annual influenza vaccine

58
Q

Which booster vaccine is given to adults over age 70, for pre-exposure protection?

A

Varicella zoster (shingles) vaccine

59
Q

Which 2 booster vaccines are given to pregnant women and why?

A

Influenza vaccine: prior to start of flu season

Pertussis vaccine from 16 weeks gestation: protects child who is too young for vaccine

60
Q

How can underlying health conditions influence who receives pre-exposure vaccinations?

A

Adults and children with underlying health conditions are recommended pre-exposure vaccinations

As they can already be immunocompromised

61
Q

If someone has an occupation, lifestyle or contact that increases their risk of infection, are they recommended pre-exposure or post-exposure vaccination?

A

Pre-exposure

62
Q

What are the 3 main factors in determining when to vaccinate an susceptible individual?

A

Age-specific risks

Immune system maturity

Do they have maternal protection (placenta, breastmilk)

63
Q

To protect against disease post-exposure, what is the vaccine combined with?

A

Vaccine and immunoglobins both administered

64
Q

For post-exposure vaccinations and immunoglobulins, why might extra doses be needed?

A

Immunoglobulins can neutralise vaccine

65
Q

Why is it beneficial to give immunoglobins as part of the post-exposure vaccination against disease?

A

Immunoglobulins have immediate effect against antigens

66
Q

In post-exposure vaccinations, what is the main general effect of the vaccine on the pathogen?

A

Reduces risk/attenuates pathogen

67
Q

If someone has a wound at high risk of tetanus, what post-exposure vaccine and immunoglobulins are given?

A

Vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin

68
Q

If someone has a needlestick injury, what post-exposure vaccine and immunoglobulins are given?

A

Vaccine and Hepatitis B immunoglobulin

69
Q

If someone has exposure to rabies, what post-exposure vaccine and immunoglobulins are given?

A

Vaccine and Rabies immunoglobulin

70
Q

Give examples of systemic adverse effects caused by vaccines?

A

Fever
Chills
Malaise
Body aches (arthralgia)

71
Q

Give examples of localised adverse effects caused by vaccines?

A

Redness
Swelling
Warmth
Pain

72
Q

Give 2 examples of vaccines that are associated with causing a rash as an adverse effect?

A

MMR

VSV

73
Q

Can vaccines cause anaphylaxis?

A

Yes

74
Q

What is the rare adverse effect of yellow fever vaccine?

A

Encephalitis

75
Q

What are the 2 rare adverse effects of MMR vaccine?

A

Arthropathy

Thrombocytopenia (Low platelet count)

76
Q

What is the rare adverse effect of the BCG vaccine?

A

Osteitis (inflammation of bone)

77
Q

What is the rare adverse effect of the rotavirus vaccine?

A

Increased risk of intussusception (part of intestine slides into adjacent part)

78
Q

Define secondary vaccine failure?

A

Immunity develops initially, with time immunity wanes (immuno-senescence)

79
Q

Define primary vaccine failure?

A

Failure of the initial doses of the vaccine regimen to induce virus-specific antibodies

Immunology (7 decks)

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