Tutorials Flashcards

1
Q

What is acyclovir used to treat

A

Herpes (cold sores)
Varicella zoster
Immunosuppressed

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2
Q

What is topoisomerase

A

Enzyme that unravels the DNA in DNA replication

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3
Q

What do kinases and thymidine kinase do

A

kinase - enzyme that phosphorylates

thymidine kinase - enzyme which makes the protein coat

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4
Q

Explain how selective toxicity is used in acyclovir action

A

Virus polymerase is different to the host cell polymerase and acyclovir-GTP only works with viral DNA polymerase
Acyclovir is only activated when it contacts thymidine kinase which the virus releases

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5
Q

Which nucleoside does acyclovir have a similar structure to

A

Deoxyguanosine

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6
Q

Explain how acyclovir is activated

A
  1. Acyclovir converted to acyclovir-guanosin monophosphate (Acyclo-GMP) by Thymidine Kinase
  2. Then Acyclo-GMP is converted into acyclovir-guanosine diphosphate (Acyclo-GDP)
    using GUANYLATE KINASE of the host cell.
  3. The Acyclo-GDP is then converted to acyclo-guanosine triphosphate (Acyclo-GTP) by phosphotransferases of the host cell.
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7
Q

Explain how acyclovir works

A

Acyclovir is incorporated into the viral DNA and because it doesn’t have a 3’ hydroxyl group it can’t continue the chain and join onto another phosphate of a different nucleotide. So the DNA strand terminates and prevents production of viral DNA.

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8
Q

In what tissues is creatine kinase present in high levels

A

Muscle and the brain use a huge amount of ATP therefore need high levels of CK

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9
Q

Describe the types of CK

A
made of 2 subunits that are coded for by 2 different genes
Present in all cells at low levels
Muscle expresses M genes - MM
Brain expresses B genes - BB
Heart muscle expresses both - BM
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10
Q

Why will CK be found in the blood

A

Damage to cell membranes allows leakage into the blood

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11
Q

What causes the plasma membrane of myocardial cells to become leaky

A

Active transport membrane proteins (pumps) stop working because they require ATP to function. High concentrations of everything inside the cells leaks out.

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12
Q

How can CK activity be determined

A

Coupled assay - use 2 or more reactions to find something detectable
1. Creatine Phosphate + ADP ——–> Creatine + ATP (Creatine Kinase)
2. ATP + D-glucose ——–> ADP + Glucose-6-Phosphate (Hexokinase)
3. Glucose-6-Phosphate + NADP+ ——–> 6-PG + NADPH + H+ (G6P dehydrogenase)
NADPH absorbs UV light

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13
Q

Why will the three isoenzymes of CK be separated by electrophoresis

A

Similar molecular weight, therefore separation is due to charges

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14
Q

What is a better technique than traditional electrophoresis for separating CK isoenzymes

A

Isoelectric focussing
Gel with +charge on side and -ve on the other
Isoenzyme moves to three there it has a net charge of zero (isoelectric point)
B - 5.2
M - 6.7

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15
Q

Does an increase in serum CK activity relates to the size or myocardial damage

A

Levels of BM isoform in the serum are directly proportional to the amount of cell death

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16
Q

What is the time course of serum CK after MI

A

30 mins to 2.5 days

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17
Q

What markers can be used to diagnose myocardial damage

A

Lactate dehydrogenase
Troponin
Troponin I and T
Serum glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase

18
Q

What is anoxaemia and what is the compensatory mechanism

A

Low oxygen levels in the blood as its used in respiration

Erythropoiesis

19
Q

Why may skin appear yellow

A

Subcutaneous fat is depleted

20
Q

What is the purpose of metabolic coupling of oxidative phosphorylation and ETC

A

ensures substrates are only metabolised when there is a demand for ATP

21
Q

Why is the rate of respiration in the presence of succinate and ADP greater than with glutamate plus malate and ADP

A

Malate feeds into NADH dehydrogenase complex and generates 3 ATP
Succinate feeds via FADH2 and succinate dehydrogenase and generates 2 ATP
To generate the same amount of ATP, more succinate must be oxidised and therefore more oxygen must be used

22
Q

What occurs when both oligomycin and DNOC are added to mitochondria

A

DNOC uncouples OP from the ETC and so when oligomycin blocks ATP synthase there is no effect and the ETC runs maximally despite no ATP being produced so the energy is lost as heat

23
Q

What is the effect of DNOC on the body

A

Raised temperature due to the ETC
pulmonary ventilation increases as more oxygen is delivered to the respiring cells
Organs fail

24
Q

Why do those poisoned with DNOC often present rigor mortis

A

To relax the muscle fibres before the next power stroke, the ADP must be displaced by incoming ATP. DNOC poisoning greatly decreases the concentration of ATP so the contractile system is left contracted.

25
Q

Why was DNOC discontinued as a weight loss drug

A

Dosage Issues - the margin between the dose for weight loss and a lethal dose is too narrow to justify its licencing.

26
Q

What is the typical feature of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Repeated fracture of long bones

27
Q

What is the cause of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Point mutation in the gene for type I collagen where thymidine replaces guanosine therefore glucose is substituted with cysteine
cysteine causes a kink in the helix which affects helix formation + sulphide bonding

28
Q

How can osteogenesis imperfecta be diagnosed

A

Cross-linked polypeptides of the collagen migrate slowly in electrophoresis in the presence of SDS (depends on size)
2-mercaptoethanol reduces the sulphide bonds so the chains can migrate as normal

29
Q

Why may two bands appear in electrophoresis for osteogenesis imperfecta

A

two alpha1 chain bands appear if the patient is heterozygous

30
Q

What are the consequences of the deformed collagen

A

Formation of bone.
Bone is formed by laying down hydroxyapatite (calcium phosphate) on an ordered scaffold of collagen-I.
Defects in the mineralisation process, leading to skeletal abnormalities and generally weak bones.

31
Q

How is osteogenesis imperfecta diagnosed prenatally

A

Biopsy is impractical and risky on a foetus
Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS) - screen the foetal DNA obtained
Amniocentesis which is amplified by PCR can also be used
Specific probes must be designed

32
Q

What is anaphylaxis

A

IgE mediated acute type I hypersensitivity reaction to an allergen
Leads to shock (- blood pressure)
Can be systemic

33
Q

Describe the normal response of IgE

A

parasitic infections
Antigen binds to IgM of lymphocytes
Proliferation
Th2 cells causes Ig switch to IgE
Binds to IgE receptors (FCεR1) on mast cells
mast cells degranulate on exposure to antigen

34
Q

What are the effects of histamine

A

Vasodilation
Oedema (dyspnoea around the larynx)
Bronchoconstriction
Loss of blood volume (due to extravasation of fluid) leads to hypotension
Heart rate increases a bit but the force of contraction decreases
Contraction of smooth muscle in the walls of the intestines

35
Q

What is urticaria

A

Type of rash characterised by red skin caused by vasodilation and raised skin caused by oedema
e.g. stinging nettle rash

36
Q

Describe allergy testing

A

Small amounts of possible allergens are injected by pin-prick
It is then observed to see whether they cause a localised wheal-and-flare reaction

37
Q

What is allergic rhinitis

A

Inhaled allergen causes mucosal mast cells to bring about oedema in the epithelia lining of the nose and mucous secretion

38
Q

Describe asthma

A

Allergen reaches the bronchioles and the smooth muscle contracts
Inflammation and mucous production

39
Q

Describe food allergies

A

Mucosal mast cells in the intestinal tract
Vomiting and diarrhoea
Pass into the bloodstream - skin symptoms

40
Q

Why is the patient’s feet raised while lying down during anaphylaxis

A

Improve blood supply to the head and trunk

41
Q

What is the treatment for anaphylaxis

A

Adrenaline - constricts peripheral blood vessels and directs blood to organs
IV - controls blood pressures
Antihistamines and anti-inflammatory corticosteroids
oxygen and bronchodilators