Nucleic Acids Flashcards

(83 cards)

1
Q

Compare deoxyribose to ribose

A

Deoxyribose lacks an oxygen atom that ribose has

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the base and phosphate attached to on the sugar

A

base - 1’ C

phosphate - 5’ C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give the purines and pyrimidines

A

purine (big) - A and G

pyrimidine (small) - C and T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the functional groups present on the bases

A
A - NH2
G - =O, NH2
C - NH2
T - =O, CH3
U - O
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are nucleosides

A

Sugar and base with no phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Give the corresponding nucleosides for each base

A
A - adenosine
G - guanosine
C - cytidine
T - thymidine
U - uridine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How are nucleotides linked to one another

A

3’ OH of one is linked to the 5’ OH phosphate of another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the structure of DNA

A
Asymmetry due to 5' and 3'
right handed double helix
anti-parallel chains
bases point inwards and perpendicular (-ve inside)
10 bp per helical turn
minor and major grooves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many H-bonds are there between bases

A
A-T = 2
C-G = 3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is DNA analysed

A

Separation by heating or low salt and then re annealing/hybridised by cooling or high salt
karyotype can be found

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is DNA arranged in the nucleus

A

Tightly packaged with histones (+ve) to form chromatin. 8 core proteins.

  1. DNA
  2. nucleosome
  3. 30nm fibre
  4. chromatin
  5. chromosome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain what semi-conservative replication is

A

Each daughter DNA inherits one old and one new strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the function of DNA helicase

A

unwinding of the DNA helix using ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In which direction is DNA replicated

A

5’-3’ as nucleotides are added to the 3’ end by DNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does DNA polymerase require

A

Template strand
Oligonucleotide primer
Deoxynucleotide triphosphates (dNTPs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the replication fork

A

Begins at the origin of replication

Asymmetric replication as both strands are synthesised 5’-3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Explain the process in the replication fork

A

Leading strand is synthesised continuously while the lagging strand is synthesised as Okazaki fragments

  1. DNA primase synthesises a short RNA primer fragment
  2. Ribonuclease removes the previous primer 5-3- exonuclease activity
  3. repair DNA polymerase replaces the primer with DNA
  4. DNA ligase joins the two fragments using ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Explain the purpose of the following: single strand DNA binding protein, sliding clamp, exonuclease

A

SSDBP - prevents the single strands from folding
Sliding clamp - prevents DNA polymerase from shifting or falling
3’-5’ exonuclease - checks and fixes mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the replication of E. Coli

A

Begins at OriC
2 replication forks in opposite directions
B-directional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the replication of eukaryotes

A

multiple replication origins distributed at intervals

each give bi-directional forks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the cell cycle

A
G1 - 10 hrs of gap phase
(G0 - cells stop dividing)
S - 9 hrs of DNA synthesis
G2 - 4 hrs of gap phase
M - 1 hr mitosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the stages of mitosis

A

G2 - chromosomes not visible
Early prophase - chromosomes pair + crossing over
Late prophase - chromosomes condense and become visible, spindle fibres move
Metaphase - chromosomes aligned on the central plane
Anaphase - sister chromatids pulled apart
Telophase - sister chromatids move to opposite poles
Cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name 4 nucleoside analogues and explain how they work

A
AZT - N3 group for HIV
Acyclovir - no ring sugar for herpes
ddC - H group for HIV
Cytosine Arabinose - tetrose sugar for chemotherapy
Absence of a 3' OH group
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Explain the basic differences between DNA and RNA

A

DNA - deoxyribose, RNA - ribose
AGCT, AGCU
long and double stranded, short and single stranded
RNA: rRNA, tRNA, mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Explain what transcription means
Production of mRNA from DNA | Growth from 5'-3' (Sense)
26
List the major functional classes of RNA and the classes of RNA polymerases involved in synthesising each of these.
I - rRNA II - mRNA III - tRNA and 5S RNA genes Grooves in the helix allows for adherence to the strands
27
Explain what a gene promoter is
DNA sequences at which the initiation complex assembles at. Gives the initiation point. e.g. TATA
28
Explain what is meant by a transcription factor
Proteins that regulate genes acting collectively to bring about expression. They activate or repress transcription or may model chromatin. May be signalled by hormones, growth factors, stress etc.
29
What is the process involved in transcribing a eukaryotic gene
1. TF II D unwinds the DNA to widen the minor groove 2. TF II A and TF II B bind. 3. RNA polymerase binds to TF II B 4. Other TFs bind to promote further unwinding. TF II H further unwinds the DNA helix (E,F,H,J)
30
Explain how acetylation can affect transcription
Hyperacetylation - expression | Hypoacetylation - repression
31
What does TF II D contain and how does it assist transcription
TBP (TATA binding protein) TAF (TBP accessory factor) unwinds the DNA asymmetrically so that transcription is unidirectional
32
How does aspirin work
inhibits the breakdown of IkB so NFkB remains in the cytoplasm so cannot initiate transcription of cytokine genes
33
What is the structure of pre-mRNA
GU at the start A in the middle 15 pyrimidines, random nucleotide, CAG at the end
34
What does RNA processing use
ribonucleic proteins snRNPs
35
Explain the events that take place in pre-mRNA processing
1. U1 binds to the splice donor sequence (GU) 2. U2, U4, U5, U6 binds to form the spliceosome (U5 binds to CAG) 3. Cleavage of the splice donor sequence and formation of a branch point (phosphodiester bond) at A between 5' P on G and 2'Oh on A 4. PD bond between intron and exon at the end is cleaved to release lariat intermediate 5. DNA ligase joins the exons together
36
What is the purpose of the CAP and PolyA tail
CAP protects the mRNA and enhances translation | PolyAAA = added 11-30 bases from AAUAAA
37
What are the splice donor and acceptor sites
splice donor = GU where U1 binds | spice acceptor = CAG where U5 binds
38
Explain how mutations in splice sites feature in polio
Polio interferes with the recognition of CAP and invades the nervous system to cause total paralysis
39
What proportion of mutations are in splice donor sequences
1/3
40
Explain how mutations in splice sites feature in thalassaemia
Inherited disorder where there is an imbalance in globin chains
41
Explain how mutations in splice sites feature in DMD
Duchenne muscular dystrophy | Dystrophin gene is mutated (most deletion of axons) causing prematurely aborted dystrophin protein synthesis
42
How is DMD treated
Alternative splicing sp that exons are purposefully skipped but the dystrophin remains functional
43
Does genome size = complexity
No
44
What is ENCODE
Encyclopaedia of DNA elements | Identifies all regions of transcription factor association, chromatin structure and histone modification
45
What proportion of introns are functional
20% of introns = functional | 60% = unknown function
46
What is ncRNA
non-translated RNA that is highly abundant and important | e.g. tRNA, rRNA, microRNA, sn, pi, long ncRNA
47
Explain X-inactivation
1/2 X chromosomes in females are inactivated (packaged so one is transciptionally inactive) - heterochromatin choice of which X chromosome is random Controlled by long ncRNA
48
What is long ncRNA
ncRNA >200 n | used in C inactivation/lyonisation
49
What is the experimental support for small ncRNA
Nematode Caenorhabditis elegans is a free living nematode(worm) that is one of the simplest organisms with a nervous system Used to map the connectome and fate map dsRNA is a silencing trigger to C. elegans
50
What is antisense RNA
Transcribing the reverse of a gene It forms H bonds with the sense RNA to prevent translation Forms dsRNA Used in plants against viruses
51
What is RNAi
A small single stranded RNA that anneals to viral RNA to cause degradation (microRNA + siRNA operate via RNAi)
52
Explain how RNAi is developed and works
1. siRNA or microRNA enter the cytoplasm 2. Break down into fragments by DICER and endonuclease 3. Creates 3' overhangs 4. Ago proteins attach to the overhangs 5. Formation of RNA induced silencing complexes (RISC) with ATP 6. Attachment to complementary RNA 7. cleavage and silencing of the RNA
53
what is the difference between siRNA and microRNA
siRNA is made exogenously and cuts mRNA at 1 point | microRNA is made endogenously and cuts at multiple points + hairpin structure
54
Describe microRNA
genetically encoded siRNA which was first seen in C. Elegans (Lin4) 3' overhang by 2 nucleotides
55
Explain how microRNA works
1. miRNA is transcribed by RNA polymerase II into a pre-mRNA 2. Processing by RNase III endonuclease (Dresha) complex with DIGeorge syndrome critical region 3. Transport to the cytoplasm 4. RISC formation 5. Binding via the seed region (rest is not complementary) 6. Permanent binding
56
Give an example of how miRNA is involved in human disease
E.g. chronic lymphoid leukaemia (CLL) Deletion of part of a gene on chromosome 14 leads to loss of miRNA. Supplementing the miRNA to nude mice that have CLL, you can get rid of the cancer
57
Why is analysis of DNA important
Used for personalised mediciein e.g. and increase in HER2 can lead to breast cancer Herceptin can be used for those with HER2
58
What are restriction endonuclease
Enzymes that cleave DNA at specific sequences Only cuts unmethylated DNA Produces blunt or sticky ends
59
What is electrophoresis
Technique to separate DNA fragments -ve DNA is attracted to a +ve charge at the anode Smaller fragments will travel faster and further
60
Describe the process of in vivo cloning
1. cut the target DNA using REs 2. Cut the replicon (replicates out of the host e.g. plasmid bacteriophage) with the same RE 3. combine fragments using DNA ligase 4. transformation of the recombinant DNA 5. Selective propagation of the colonies 6. expansion via culturing
61
Explain one technique for selective propagation in in vivo cloning
Antibiotic resistance in the recombinant gene so exposure to the antibiotic will kill those who did not take up the gene
62
Describe the process for in vitro cloning
Uses polymerase chain reaction (PCR) Primer must be 20N and tandem repeats should be avoided A non-complementary end to 3' so it binds to 5' 1. denaturation at 94 to break H bonds 2. annealing at 50-60 to allow annealing between strands and dNTPs 3. Elongation at 72 for tax polymerase to form PD bonds
63
What are the 3 things required for PCR
Oligonucleotide primer dNTP Taq polymerase
64
What can DNA cloning be used for
``` sequence DNA Detect point mutation DNA microarrays cDNA cloning Typing genetic markers ```
65
What are microarrays
Monitors expression levels for genes Collection of dots that represent single genes sprayed on a surface e.g. a glass slide Expression profiling SNP detection array - SNP in genomes of the population
66
How does hybridisation work
1. denature the nucleic acid 2. single-strand reacts with nylon or nitrocellulose to immobilise 3. complementary nucleic acid (probe) 4. H-bonds form between the target and probe 5. electrophoresis 6. probes show radioactivity or fluorescentivity
67
What are the different types of hybridisation
``` Southern blot - DNA, RNA Northern blot - RNA, DNA Coloney blot - Bacterial DNA, DNA Tissue in situ - RNA x 2 Chromosome in situ - chromosome, DNA reverse - DNA x 2 ```
68
What is hybridisation stringency
precision to which the hybridisation procedure can distinguish between similar nucleic acid sequences
69
How can hybridisation stringency be increased
Increase in temperature and a low salt concentration
70
What is the entry point for a ribosome during translation
7MetG cap
71
What 3 materials are required for translation
mature mRNA, charged tRNA, ribosome
72
What are the start and stop codons
``` Start = AUG = Met Stop = UAA, UAG, UGA ```
73
Describe the structure of tRNA
Clover shaped Carries and amino acid (Charged) anticodon (anti-parallel) 64 RNAs
74
Explain how tRNA becomes charged
1. Amino acid binds to aminoacyl tRNA synthase 2. Aminoacyl tRNA synthase cleaves pyrophosphate from ATP and binds remaining AMP to AA 3. Amino acids is adenylated 4. Adenylated AA is attached to tRNA 5. Aminoacyl tRNA synthase and AMP then detaches leaving the charged tRNA
75
What are the 3 stages of translation
Initiation Elongation Termination
76
Explain the process of initiation in translation
1. ribosomal unit dissociates into 40S and 60S units 2. initiation factor 4G and 4E bind to the cap 3. Charged tRNA, eIF2, GTP, 40S recognise the structure 4. Reads until AUG to form the pre-initation complex 5. GTP is converted to GDP which then binds to 60S 6. met-tRNA binds to the P-site on ribosomes
77
Explain the process of elongation in translation
1. The next tRNA binds to the A site 2. peptide transferase creates a peptide bond 3. elongation factors move along the strand using GTP (translocation)
78
What is the function of GTP hydrolysis in elongation during translation
gives time for dissociation of incorrect amino acids
79
What doe ribosomes split into during translation in prokaryotes
30S and 50S
80
Explain the process of termination in translation
1. Stop codon attracts release factors (no tRNA for stop codon) 2. binding to the A site of the ribosome 3. peptide transferase binds water to the final amino acid (carboxyl group) 4. Translocation complex dissociates
81
What molecules are involved in modification after translation
signal sequence or signal recognition proteins (20-24AA)
82
Explain the process of modification after translation
1. SRP is detected by the SRP receptor in the RER to stop translocation 2. SRP binds to the receptor 3. Translocation resumes 4. Polypeptide moves to the lumen of the RER 5. SRP degraded 6. Polypeptide folded and cleaved 7. Further modification or transmembrane (further hydrophobic groups added)§
83
Describe insulin modification
undergoes disulphide bond formation in the ER and golgi body Proteolytic cleavage in secretory vesicle Chain C is released into the cytoplasm and then the blood so it can be used to detect insulin levels