Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Written Examination > Tutankhamen -2 > Flashcards

Tutankhamen -2 Flashcards

1
Q

A laser diode works by?

A

Ablation of tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How much bone loss occurs 6 years post extraction? and in the first 6 months? and with guide eruption?

A

30% (6 years post)
23% (first 6 months)
<1% (with guide eruption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is the best time to extract an ankylosed tooth?

A

as soon as it is identified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When a tooth is ankylosed, the amount of ridge defect depends mainly upon?

A

the amount of facial growth after ankylosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What side effect occurs when you move 2nd molars into extracted 1st molars space?

A

3mm gingival cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If the central incisor is located 5mm apical to the CEJ of the other tooth. Do you do closed eruption of apically positioned flap?

A

Closed eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In a patient with palatally impacted canines what surgical exposure technique should be used?

A

Open eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Of impacted canines … are palatal and the primary etiology is…

A

2/3rds palatal, genetic etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Of impacted canines … are labial and the primary etiology is …

A

1/3rd labially, arch lenth transverse skeletal discrepancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Orthodontic traction of an unerupted tooth towards the line of the arch should begin … following surgical exposure

A

no later then 2-3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A molar has a buccal pocket down to the furcation area, what is the periodontal treatment of choice?

A

Guided tissue regeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If you begin orthodontic treatment in a patient with a 3 wall defect what will happen?

A

the defect will get worse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A patient presents with a significant crater btwn maxillary premolars what is the recommended periodontal treatment?

A

Ossesous recontouring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Gingival recession in adult occurs about …% of the time, is more prevalent on which arch?

A

68% of the time, more prevalent in the mandibular teeth, and occurs more symmetrically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Orthodontic patients with mucogingival problems that require perio tx prior to ortho?
Children …%
Adults …%

A

5-10% children

20-25% adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If you find a internal resorption what is the treatment?

A

Immediate RCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the periodontal indications for controlled orthodontic extrusion?

A
  • one wall vertical defect
  • two wall vertical defect
  • defect in cervical 3rd of root (not in apical 3rd of root)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do you treat vertical root fracture?

A

Extract dat shit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Endodontically treated teeth have what affect on root resorption?

A

decreased tendency for root resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Peak incidence of dental trauma occurs at what age?

A

8-10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

With a root fracture 1mm below the CEJ what is the primary thing to evaluate?

A

Root Length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tetracycline studies show that implants…

A

do not move at all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the minimum osteointegration required for successful TAD placement?

A

5% (regular restorative implant 75%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When 300g of force is applied for 3 months to TAD for anchorage in animals, they are successful …%.

A

94%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The estimated healing time for implants in the mandible is… and the maxilla is…

A

Md. 4-6 months

Mx. 6-8 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When should an implant be placed after extraction of over retained primary?

A

2 months after extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How do you wait for an implant after a bone graft?

A

9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When is the best time to get implants?

A

when growth ceases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Esthetically how much room do you need for an implant?

A

7mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When placing implant the head of the fixture should be how many mm apical to the desired gingival margin?

A

4mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When restoring peg laterals, create … space

A

more space than needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How much OB is needed for bonded bridge

A

0.5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How much OB is needed for Maryland bridge?

A

1mm or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If a patient congenitally missing lateral with retained b and c, how is it managed?

A

Extract b to guide canine to erupt; then move it distally for a lateral implant. Preserving bone on the lateral Alveolus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

CPR for an adult what is the the compression to breath ratio.

A

30:2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

For adult CPR where do you place your hands for chest compression?

A

lower half of sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How many minutes can the brain survive without oxygen?

A

4-6 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

For an adult CPR, a rescue breath is given every?

A

5 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What’s the percentage of self-correction of an impacted canine if the tip is distal to the lateral midline?

A

91%

if mesial to the 2’s > 64%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most common transpositioned tooth?

A

Maxillary canine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A patient with nasopharyngeal obstruction who undergoes adenoidectomy will go from open mouth breathing to closed mouth brething by what percentage?

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What percentage of contemporary US and northern European population exhibit Class II malocclusion?

A

15-20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the average oral temperature in degree Celsius?

A

35-37 degrees C (95-99 degrees F)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What statistical test should be used for 3 or more variables?

A

ANOVA (analysis of variance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the population within one standard deviation? two? three?

A

68%
96%
99.7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is sensitivity?

A

True positive/pt w/ disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What statistical test should be used to compare two means?

A

T-test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does a Chi-square test measure?

A

observed vs expected frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A statistical correlation is generally expressed as a…

A

Fraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What statistically analysis would you use to find relation btwn brushing and gum disease?

A

Correlation analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If there is no correlation btwn two data sets, what is the coefficient?

A

0 (1 means they are linearly correlated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What statistically analysis should be used to predict the ceph measurement with mandibular rotation?

A

Correlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is most affected by extreme values? (mean, median, mode)

A

Mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is most affected by a large sample size? (mean, median, mode)

A

Median

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the minimum sample size in a ceph study aiming to produce data for a clinical study?

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A gold standard in clinical research for evaluating a clinical procedure?

A

Randomized clinical trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Where is the thyroglossal duct attached to the foramen cecum?

A

at the posterior of the sulcus terminalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Is the Nasal floor higher in an adult or a child?

A

Children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The Lacrimal bone articulate with what bones (4)?

A

Frontal, inferior concha, maxilla, ethmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A Brown tumor is associated with what disease?

A

Hyperparathyroidism (Stones, bones and abdominal groans)

-loss of lamina dura around multiple teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Apertognathia associated with what condition?

A

Acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Undermining resorption is characterized by…

A
  • hyalinization
  • infiltration of osteoclasts
  • infiltration of macrophages
  • infiltration of neutrophils
  • occurs in medullary space
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Most synchondroses fuse at what age?

A

2-4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Wolf-Hirschorn syndrome is associated with what gene?

A

MSX1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What chromosomes play important role in tooth development?

A

Chromosome X and Chromosome 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What disease may develop benign or malignant osteosarcoma?

A

pagets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Under development of mandible and maxilla (micrognathia) is seen in what syndromes (3)?

A
  • Treacher Collins
  • Hemifacial Microsomia
  • Marfan Syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What syndrome is due to failure of neural crest migration?

A

Treacher Colins, Hemifacial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What four syndromes can cause multiple supernumerary teeth?

A
  • Gardners Syndrome
  • Cleidocranial dysplasia
  • Sturge-Weber syndrome
  • Cleft lip and palate
  • (Crouzon although rarely)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What condition can cause early exfoliation?

A

Hyperparathyroidism (also cause loss of lamina dura)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What syndrome can cause early permanent teeth eruption?

A

Turners (only occurs in females, small permanent teeth, likely root resorption, SHOX gene)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The oral symptoms of Down’s Syndrome are…

A
  • posterior crossbite (97%)
  • prognathic mandible (69%)
  • Class III molar (65%)
  • Open bite (54%)
  • freeway space 3 times more than normal 2-3mm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Down syndrome patient commonly have (caries or periodontal disease)?

A

Peridontal Disease (90%) Caries are rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Crouzon Syndrome is associated with the following genes…. and has a … inheritance pattern.

A

FGFR2 & FGFR3 Mutation

Autosomal Dominat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

T/F Crouzon Syndrome is associated with Cleft Palate and supernumerary teeth.

A

True

also hearing loss, Craniofacial synostosis, midface hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Apert Syndrome is associated with the following genes … and has a … inheritance pattern.

A

FGFR2 and KGFR2

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The key clinical presentation differentiating Apert to Crouzon’s is…

A

Syndactyly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Gardner’s syndrome is associated with multiple … and …, …. cysts, …. of the skin but does not cause….

A

Gardner’s syndrome is associated with multiple polyposis and osteomas, Epidermoid cysts (slow growing, caused by blockage of sebaceous gland), Fibromas of the skin but does not cause clefting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Treacher Colins is associated with the … gene.

A

TCOF1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The presentation of Treacher Colins includes…

A

Supraorbital hypoplasia, lower eye lip coloboma, retrognathic mandible, normal mental status, ear deformity/absence of ears, Cleft Palate, large mouth, hair extends to cheeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The classic Triad of Pierre Robin’s Sequence is..

A
  • Retrognathic mandible
  • Glossoptosis
  • U shaped cleft palate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Marfan Syndrome is associated with the … genes and have a oral presentation of …

A

FBN1 and TGFB2
Retrognathic Mandible
(prophylaxic antibiotics to prevent endocarditis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

A patient with Cleidocranial dystosis will present with early fontanelle closure resulting in …

A

Brachycephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

T/F Cleidocranial dystosis results in absence/incomplete formation of the collar bone. These patients have no oral manifestations.

A

T, F (primary failure of eruption, delayed eruption, supernumerary teeth, absence of sutural fusion of the mandible, and under-developed maxilla)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is associated with … genes and affects…

A

COL1A1 and COL1A2

Type 1 collagen defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The classic symptoms of Osteogensis imperfecta are (3)…

A
  • Blue sclera
  • Fragile bones (brittle bone disease)
  • early hearing loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Ectodermal dyplasia has a …inheritance pattern and patients have the following symptoms…

A

X chromosome (usually affect men)

  • lack of sweat glands, skin, sparse hair, sparse hair
  • Missing teeth, peg shaped laterals, pointed teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Peutz-Jegher syndrome presents with the oral manifestation of …

A

Pigmentation of the lips, gums, mucous membrane and skin

also intestinal polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Cushing’s syndrome is caused by …and presents with …

A
  • Increased corticosteroid and ACTH

- symptoms: Moon face, buffalo hump, central obesity with thin legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Turners syndrome is associated with the … gene and follows the … inheritance pattern.

A 
SHOX gene
Sex chromosome (XO)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The dental presentation of Turner’s syndrome are…

A

Early eruption of permanent teeth, small teeth, root resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The primary palate is formed in week … in utero.

A

6th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The secondary palate is formed in week … in utero.

A

6-8th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Palatogenesis is completed by week… in utero.

A

12th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What structures does the medial nasal process give rise to?

A
  • nasal septum
  • bridge of nose
  • philitrum
  • premaxilla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What structures does the lateral nasal process give rise to?

A

-Ala of the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Cleft lip (chieloschisis) is caused by the failure of the fusion of … and …

A

Medial nasal process and Maxillary Processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What dental finding is NOT associated with Cleft Palate?

A

-Impacted centrals

common findings: rotated incisors, missing laterals, posterior x bite, ectopic eruption, supernumeraries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the most common congenital defect of the face and jaw?

A

Cleft Palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the incidence of Cleft Palate across the following races: Black, asian, white and american indian?

A

American Indian > Asian > White > black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Cleft lip is more common in (males/females) while cleft palate alone is more common in (males/females).

A 
males = lip
females = cleft palate alone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

If a sibling/kin is affect by a cleft there is a …% chance an unborn child will be afffected.

A

4% (also if 1 parent is affected but no sibling)

9% if two siblings are affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the probability of cleft lip/palate when 1 sibling and 1 parent are affected?

A

17%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the cleft “rule of ten”?

A

First cleft lip surgery (lip repair)

  • 10 weeks (~2-4 months)
  • 10 lbs
  • 10 grams of hemoglobin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

The cleft soft/hard palate is normally closed…

A

within the 1st year of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

When is the alveolar bone graft performed in a cleft patient?

A

7-10 years, when the canine root is 1/2 or 2/3rd formed (so the U2 and U3 will erupt through the graft)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Following surgery the relapse often seen in cleft patients is caused by…

A

Scarring tissue “rebound” due to a lack of elasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

A failure of fusion of the 2nd and 3rd brachial arches results in …

A 
Cervical cyst (brachial cleft cyst) 
Diverticulum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Hypotelorism is associated with a …. cleft

A

Oro-ocular cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

The …. is used to classify case difficulty of cleft patients.

A

Golson Yardstick (1 best prognosis, no treatment needed, 5 very poor prognosis, surgery and treatment needed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

The nasal bone completes growth as age …

A

10 (cartilage continues growth for life)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

On Scammons curve, the Skeletal curve is inversely proportional to the … curve.

A

Lymphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The limit for transverse expansion of a SARPE is the…

A

coronoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Soft tissue thickness increases more with age in (female/male)

A

Female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

On Scammon’s curve what curve parallels the facial growth curve?

A

Somatic curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are the two growth peaks on on Scammon’s curve?

A

Early infancy and adolescent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Describe the male growth sequence

A

Fat spurt > 12 months > Puberty > 8-12 months > PVH > 15-24 months > end of spurt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Describe the female growth sequence

A

Puberty > 12 months > PVH > 18 months > menarche (end of spurt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

According to Behrent study there is an increase in the following facial dimensions in adults…

A

All facial dimensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Palatogensis is completed at what age in utero?

A

12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the rate of ramal height growth prior to puberty? and following puberty?

A

Before puberty 1-2 mm/year

After puberty 2-3 mm/year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What are the 3 mandibular growth sites?

A
  • Condylar process
  • Posterior border of the Ramus
  • Dentoalveoalr process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

In a female what direction of mandibular growth is more than what direction?

A

Vertical more than AP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Mandibular hypplasia/condylar hypoplasia is most common in what age population?

A

Early childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What happens to arch length and perimeter from primary to permanent dentition?

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Rotation of the Mandible is show by what 2 signs from Bjork?

A
  • Bending of the mandibular canal

- condlyar neck angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is the ideal CVMS for functional appliances?

A

CVMS II (peak growth will occur within one year)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is a patient’s growth status relative to CVMS III?

A

Peak growth occurred within one or two years prior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

At puberty what SMI is occuring?

A

SMI 4 = Sesamoid bone ossification

  • Occurs 1 year prior to pubertal maximum growth spurt
  • 60-70% of growth remaining
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

At SMI 4 …% of growth is completed in females and …% is completed in males.

A

33% females (age 11)

29% males (age 12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

At SMI 6..% of growth is completed.

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

At SMI 7 …% of growth is completed.

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are the most common teeth with ectopic eruption?

A

Max 1st molars, Md laterals, Max canines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What are the most common signs of aberrant eruption in the Maxilla and Mandible?

A

U3’s before U4’s and U5’s

L7’s before U5’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is the most common tooth agenesis in primary dentition?

A

Maxillary Laterals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is the most common ankylosed primary tooth?

A

Primary Mandibular Second molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Transposition is more common on the … arch.

A

Maxillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What are the most common teeth to transpose?

A

Maxilary canine with the Maxilary 1st premolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

How long does primary root completion take following eruption?

A

18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is the ideal time to remove impacted 3rd molars?

A

Root 2/3rd formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What are the most common teeth for root resorption in each arch?

A
  • Mx. laterals > centrals > Canines

- Md. centrals > laterals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Root resorption is related to what conditions/syndromes (3)?

A

hypothyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, Paget’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

In children, incisors that are traumatically intruded have a 5 year survival rate of..

A

50% for intrusion > 6mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

In children, incisors that are traumatically intruded (< 3 mm) have a survival rate of..

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What protein is the major organic component of mature enamel?

A

Enamelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

The matrix of developing enamel induces what 3 proteins?

A

Enamelin, amelogenin, tuft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What teeth show the greatest variation in the onset of mineralization besides the 3rd molars?

A

Maxillary laterals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What ligament is related to the eruption of teeth?

A

Hammock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

In a 11 yo male, over a 2 year period the mandibular molars are expect to erupt how much?

A

1.5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

In a 11 yo male, the lower facial height is expect to increase …mm/year

A

1 mm/year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What tooth is most likely to be crowded out of the maxillary arch?

A

Canines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What has a stronger genetic inheritance pattern: Anterior open bite or midline diastema?

A

Midline diastema (AOB is not an inherited trait)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What is the most common cyst?

A

Radicular cyst (teeth are non-vital)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What cyst can remain following an extraction?

A

Residular cyst (maybe of apical or dentigerous origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What is the most common developmental cyst?

A

Dentigerous cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What is the most common location of an OKC and what is the clinical presentation?

A

posterior md., symptomatic, 50% jaw swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

An AOT arises from … and is commonly found…

A

Adenomatoid odontigenic tumor

  • arises from enamel organ or dental lamina
  • 2/3 in female, anterior maxilla, impacted canine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Ameloblastoma presents with a … radiographic appearance.

A
  • Multilocular radiolucency
  • benign jaw lesion, may result in expansion
  • more common in the posterior mandible
  • Pathologic origin - odontogenic epithelium
  • common recurrence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Cementoblastomas are common in the … and are associated with … teeth.

A
  • usually 2nd or 3rd decades in life before 25
  • More often in Caucasian males
  • mandible in 1st premolar to molar region
  • pain, swelling and expansion of cortical plates
  • Teeth are normally vital
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

A excessive deposit of cementum on the root surface is known as …

A

Hypercementosis (vital)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

A cotton wool radiographic appearance is associated with..

A

Paget’s disease

  • high alkaline phosphatase
  • high chance of osteosarcoma
  • bone pain, Hat and Denture don’t fit anymore; mx. enlargement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Fibrous dysplasia has a … radiographic appearance.

A
  • Ground glass
  • aysmptomatic regional alteration of bone by replacing fibrous tissue, monostotic or polystotic
  • most often in young adults and juveniles
  • singular, slow growing and painless swelling of the jaws
  • Increase in akaline phosphatase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Periapical Cemento-osseous dysplasia is associated with …teeth and common in…

A

Vital md. anterior
MABF
3 stages (osteolytic, cementoblastic, mature inactive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Osteopetrosis results in…

A
  • fragile bones
  • abnormal calcified cartilage
  • highly radiopaque
  • high alkaline phosphatase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is the recommend treatment for Condensing Osteitis?

A
  • RCT or EXT

- usually associated with non-vital tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Eagles syndrome results in …. ligament calcification.

A

Syloid ligament (also elongation of the styloid process)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

HBsAg indicates…

A

infectious person, high during acute or chronic hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Anti-HBs indicates

A

recovery and immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Anti-HBc indicates

A

a previous or ongoing infection;appears at the onset in acute infection and persists for life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

IgM anti-HBc indicates

A

an acute or recent HBV; present for about 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

The symptoms of Hep b are… following a …. incubation period

A

jaundice, dark brown urine

4wks - 6mos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What is the radiographic appearance of osteomylitis?

A

Moth-eaten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

The radiographic appearance of a Osteocarcoma is…

A
  • sunburst, codman’s triangle
  • can manifest as myositis
  • Most common malignancy in children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

The radiographic appearance of Ewing Sarcoma is… and it is most common in… (sex).

A

Onion skin

Boys (<15 years old)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is the most common malignant salivary tumor?

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What are the systemic symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Fever, fatigue, pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Active pain is associated with Osteoarthritis or osteoarthrosis?

A

Osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Multiple myelomas has what clinical feature?

A
  • punched-out bone

- most common maliganancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What is the blood glucose level of a Diabetes meliltus patient?

A

> 160 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

A 5 yo patient presents with symmetric bilateral enlargement of the posterior mandible. The radiograph reveals large, multiocular radiolucencies. What is the diagnosis?

A

Cherubism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What are the symptoms of Velopharyngeal insufficiency?

A
  • hypernasality

- sleep apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Osteomyelitis is caused by what bacteria?

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What systemic antibiotic is least effective for periodontal disease?

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Place the following tumors from most to least common: Monomorphic adenoma, Pleomorphic adenoma, Warthin’s tumor, and Oncocytoma.

A

Pleomorphic adenoma > monomorphic adenoma > Oncocytoma > Warthin’s tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

The clinical sign of traumatic occlusion is..

A

Mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What are the most common to least common malignant tumors (4)?

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma > adenoid cystic carcinoma > Carcinoma EX Pleomorphic adenoma > polymorphous low grade adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

A protrusive wax bite provides information on…

A

condylar inclination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What is the force of swallowing?

A

70-150 N (7-14 lbs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Bennett angle is formed by a …. plane and the path of advancing the condyle during … movement

A

angle formed by horizontal plane and the path of advancing condyle during lateral moment (during lateral movement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

The articular tubercle is a part of the …. bone and found…

A

Part of the temporal bone, located at the base of the zygomatic arch
-anterior to the condyle, posterior to coronoid notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Condylar hyperplasia usually presents during the … decade of life.

A

2nd (early adult/ late adolescent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What is a latent radiographic image?

A

Image produced after exposure but prior to development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Why is radiographic filtration needed?

A

To remove low energy radiation, increase penetration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What thickness of aluminum is needed for filtration of radiographs above 70 kVp and below 70 kVp?

A

> 70 kVp = 2.5 mm

< 70 kVp = 1.5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What is mandatory for patient protection in radiography?

A

Collimation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What does a using a Intensifying screen accomplish?

A

To reduce radiation needed to exposure film, thicker film -> less sharp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Using a double intensifying screen to reduce what?

A

Exposure time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What is the earliest sign of radition?

A

Erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What oral tissue is most sensitive to radiation?

A

Developing tooth buds, salivary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Increasing kVP has what affect on density?

A

increases density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

In order to radiograph a root fracture what should be done to kVP?

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Double mA has what effect on exposure time?

A

halves it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Density =

A

= kVp x mA x T/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What are the possible causes of a light radiograph?

A
  • under exposed
  • excessive fixation
  • long distance
  • film pack reversed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What are the possible causes of a dark radiograph?

A
  • over exposure
  • over development
  • inadequate fixation
  • short distance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

A panorex is not useful in determining…

A

Arch perimeter/length deficiency and caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What imaging technique would be useful to diagnose internal derangement and anterior displaced disc?

A

MRI

Arthrogram for perforated disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

What imaging technique is used to diagnose a perforated disk?

A

Atrhogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

A submentovertex radiograph is good to view what structure?

A

Zygomatic arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

A Towne’s view radiograph is good to view what structures?

A

occipital bone, petrous bone, and condylar fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

A Water’s view radiograph is useful to view what structures?

A

Maxillary sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

A Cauldwell’s view radiograph is useful to view what structures?

A

frontal sinus, ethmoid sinus and orbital margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

A Transcranial view radiograph is useful to view what structures?

A
  • lateral poles of condyles
  • least reliable for condylar shape
  • taken in open and closed postion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

T/F increasing voxel size will increase magnification. A decrease in voxel size increases resolution.

A

TT

215
Q

What are the Class II indicators on the Ceph cranial base landmarks?

A
  • Large anterior cranial base (S-N)
  • Large posterior cranial base (S-Ba)
  • Large cranial base angle (S-N-Ba)
216
Q

A significantly short posterior cranial base indicates..

A

Mandibular prognathism

217
Q

CBCT has (better or worse) resolution than medical CT?

A

Better

218
Q

Where is the Jugal Process located?

A

Intersection btwn maxilla and zygomatic buttress

219
Q

What the the midline structures on a ceph?

A

OMG MidBase
Opisthion
Menton
crista Galli

Midagittal sture
Basion

220
Q

What is Bolton point and broad bent triangle?

A
  • Bolton point inferior aspect of occipital bone

- Bo-N-S

221
Q

What does a holdaway ratio of 2:1 mean?

A

Lower incisor more proclined compared to chin

222
Q

Where is PT point on a lateral ceph?

A

Foramen rotundum

223
Q

What is the major/most common source of error in ceph tracing?

A

Landmark identification

224
Q

The frankfort horizonatal plane is most level with …

A

Zygomatic arch

225
Q

The frankfort horizontal plane is most parallel with…

A

the palatal plane

226
Q

What is not an ABO ceph measurement?

A

FMA

227
Q

Mandibular plane angle for the ABO?

A

Constucted gonion to menton

228
Q

The external acoustic meatus location compared to internal?

A

External is located anterior and inferior to internal

229
Q

What is the ratio btwn AFH:PFH?

A

60:40

230
Q

How is the Z angle drawn?

A

Chin to most anterior upper/lower lip to FH line, 78 degrees

231
Q

How is holdaway angle formed?

A

Facial plane (N-Pg) and Chin to upper lip; should 7-15 degrees

232
Q

The AB plane to facial plane is a part of what analysis?

A

Down’s, relate denture bases to each other
Negative value -> Class II
Positive value -> class III

233
Q

What lines form the angle of convexity?

A

N-A and A-Pog

  • relate upper jaw to lower jaw
  • Positive value -> Class II
  • Negative value -> Class III
234
Q

According to Steiner analysis, U1 to NA in mm and angle?

A

U1-NA: 22 degrees, 4mm

L1-NB: 25 degrees, 4mm

235
Q

In relation to the S line the lips…

A

touch

236
Q

In the Tweed Triangle
FMA =
IMPA =
FMIA =

A 
FMA = 25 
IMPA = 87
FMIA = 68
Low angle ( FMA <20)
High angle (FMA >30)
237
Q

What is Sassouni’s analysis?

A
  • demonstrates vertical relationship
  • all 4 lines in balanced face should merge posterior at center point
  • more parallel plane, greater tendency for deepbite
238
Q

What is the occlusal reference plane for the Wits analysis?

A

Functional occlusal plane

( Downs uses—-bisecting occlusal plane: bisects incisor overbite and passes over the distal cusps of the most posterior teeth)

239
Q

Where do you superimpose for the mandible?

A
  • 3rd molar crypt
  • mandibular canal
  • inner cortical plate of cortical plate of symphysis
240
Q

What is the most stable reference plane?

A

FH plane

241
Q

Cephalic index =

A

Weigh/Height x 100 (transverse view)
Dolico < 76
Brachy > 81
Meso - 76-81

242
Q

Facial Index =

A

Length/Width x 100 (frontal view)

  • Dolico = leptoproscopic
  • Meso = mesoproscopic
  • Brachy = Euryproscopic
243
Q

Craniofacial composite superimposition

A
  • planum sphenoidum
  • cribiform plate
  • greater wing of sphenoid
  • anterior clinoidale
244
Q

Maxillary superimposition

A
  • vertical legs of keyridge (anterior/posterior contours of zygomatic arches)
  • Align key ridge AP and vertical and best fit of internal structures of maxillary bony complex
245
Q

Mandibular superimpostion

A
  • internal cortical outline of symphysis

- best fit on mandibular canal

246
Q

What two drugs can inhibit tooth movement?

A
  • bisphosphanates (Alondronate~fosamax, risedronate~actonel)
  • Steroids and NSAIDS
  • Indomethacin (more potent) inhibit tooth moment at normal level
247
Q

What is the MOA of NSAIDS that leads to reduced tooth movment?

A

inhibit conversion of arachondonic acid to prostaglandins

248
Q

What is the MOA of Steroids that leads to reduced tooth movement?

A

inhibit formation of arachondonic acid by blocking phospholipase A2

249
Q

What is Prostaglandin E (PGE) affect on tooth movement?

A
  • cause appearance of osteoclasts and bone resorption

- detected in gingival fluid during ortho tx.

250
Q

What is pro-banthine?

A
  • parasympathetic antagonist

- Anti-cholinergic (by blocking muscarinic Ach receptor)

251
Q

Non-selective NSAIDS act on …. and have the following side effects…

A

-Both COX 1 & 2
-Rental toxcity, GI bleeding
(Aspirin, ibuprofen, naproxen, ketoprofen)

252
Q

Selective NSAIDS act on… and have the following side effects…

A
  • target COX2
  • less GI bleeding and platelet inhibition
  • Celebrex (Celecoxib) not effective in actue post op pain
  • Vioxx (Rofecoxib) long lasting up to 24 horus
253
Q

Calcium will increase/decrease tooth movement?

A

Decrease

254
Q

Vitamin D will increase/decease tooth movement?

A

increase

255
Q

Where and when was the first meeting of the AAO?

A

1900 St. Louis

256
Q

Where and when was the ABO formed and by whom?

A

1929, Estes park, CO by Dr. Alber Ketcham

257
Q

Who was the first editor of the AJO?

A

Dewey

258
Q

Preceptorship was abolished by the ADA in what year?

A

1969

259
Q

The CDABO was formed in…

A

1979

260
Q

The stress/strain curve shows..

A

elastic behavior/property of a material

261
Q

In relation to an arch wire what is stress?

A

Force/area

262
Q

In relation to an arch wire what is strain?

A

Deflection/unit length

263
Q

What is the elastic limit/proportional limit of an arch wire?

A

The point at which it becomes permanently deformed

264
Q

What is the yield strength of an arch wire?

A

0.1% deformation if observed (yield point)

265
Q

What is the ultimate yield strength of an arch wire?

A
  • max load wire can sustain after some permanent deformation

- greater than yield strength

266
Q

What is the energy storage capacity of an archwire?

A

Resilience (area of the curve up to the proportional limit range)

267
Q

What is formability of an arch wire?

A

amount of permanent bending a wire can sustain before breaking

268
Q

What is range of an arch wire?

A

Distance that a wire can bend before permanent defromation

269
Q

What is the Modulus of elasticity?

A

Stiffness; slope of stress-strain curve

270
Q

Asperities of arch wire in order by different materials?

A

NiTi > TMA > SS

271
Q

Rank friction of arch wire materials during sliding mechanics

A

TMA > NiTi > SS

272
Q

No superelastic or phase changes are observed in what type of arch wire?

A

Nitinol

273
Q

What is the superelastic property of an AW?

A

Wire has the ability to change molecular structure

274
Q

NiTi wires have a low or high load deflection rate?

A

Low

275
Q

What are the two possible ways to induce a phase change in NiTi?

A

Pseudoelasticity (a -> m more specifically stress induced martensic)
Thermoelasticity (a -> m when cool, then m - > a when deactivated)

276
Q

What is the ideal temperature for phase change in NiTi?

A

35 degrees C

277
Q

What is the advantage of Copper Niti arch wires?

A

resistant to deformation, guaranteed TTR, aka Beta-NiTi

278
Q

When is the appropriate time in treatment to use a M-NiTi?

A 
Later stage (when flexible but larger and somewhat stiffer wire is needed)
-Small round NiTi are better for A-NiTi and large rectangular AW are better with M-NiTi
279
Q

What is the composition of TMA (Titanium Molybdenum)?

A

80% Ti
11.5% Molebdenum
6% zircornium
4.5% tin

280
Q

At what stage of treatment is a TMA an appropriate choice?

A
  • intermediate and finishing wires

- excellent choice for auxillary springs

281
Q

The center of resistance of a single rooted tooth is located…and a multi-rooted tooth is…

A

Single: 1/2-1/3 root length
Multi: btwn roots/furcation, 2mm apical

282
Q

How do you counter molar tip by using maxillary incisors intrusion?

A

HPHG with short outer bow

283
Q

If distance is decreased by half what is the resulting force?

A

Force = 1/(distance)^2

Force is increased 4 times

284
Q

Of untreated subjects about …% have no mandibular incisor irregularity, …% have moderate crowding, …% have severe crowding.

A

50% no crowding
23% moderate
17% severe

285
Q

Mandibular crowding is more prevalent in (males/females) and (white/black).

A

Male > Female

White > Black

286
Q

For every 1 mm increase in intercanine width, … mm are gained in arch perimeter.

A

1mm

287
Q

For every 1mm increase in interpremolar with, … mm are gained in arch perimeter.

A

0.75mm

288
Q

For every 1mm increase in intermolar width, … are gained in arch perimeter.

A

0.25mm

289
Q

The greatest arch perimeter is achieved by…

A

incisor advancement

290
Q

Mandibular expansion is achieved by …% expansion and …% incisor flaring.

A

50% expansion

50% incisor flaring

291
Q

When expanding the maxilla 10 mm you would expect a gain of …mm.

A

7mm (70% Mx expansion percentage)

292
Q

By flaring an incisor 1mm how much arch perimeter space is gained?

A

2mm (every 1 degree proclination = 0.8 mm space)

293
Q

Flaring the maxillary 1 mm results in the upper lip moving … mm and when the mandibular incisors are flared 1 mm the lower lip moves …mm.

A

Upper lip 0.3 mm

Lower lip 1 mm

294
Q

In the transition from the primary to permanent dentition space is recaptured in 3 ways.

A
  • slight increase in arch width across canines
  • slight labial position of permanent incisors
  • distal shift of L3’s when primary molars are exfoliated
295
Q

What the indications for a canine substitution?

A
  • Class II molar
  • Anterior tooth size relationship
  • length, shape and color of canine
296
Q

What are the three exposure techniques for labial canine impaction and their indications?

A

Close eruption- most labial impacted teeth, mid alveolar impaction, mimics natural eruption (best esthetics)

Apically Positioned Flap- simple labial impaction, cases where canine is displaced mesiodistally or inadequate gingiva

Excisional (open)- when there’s adequate gingiva, when tooth is 2 mm below MGJ

297
Q

Describe the sequence and timing of serial extraction.

A

Extract C’s as soon as lower incisors erupt, D’s when 2/3 of premolar root is formed, and the 4’s as soon as they emerge

298
Q

T/F The Eruption follicle is not absolutely necessary for eruption. If a crown is dragged against bone the result is resorption.

A

F/T

299
Q

What are the 7 indications for interceptive treatment in mixed dentition?

A
  1. space maintenance
  2. Posterior crossbite
  3. psychosocial issues
  4. skeletal vertical excess
  5. extopic eruption
  6. myofunctional habits
  7. Skeletal AP Class III
300
Q

Bond strength is increased by …% adhesive filler for cremic brackets.

A

80%

301
Q

Bond strength is (increased/decreased) by fluoride application prior to bonding.

A

decreased

302
Q

What type of tooth movement is the most prone to relapse?

A

Rotation

303
Q

Following treatment of a Class II Div 2 patient what is most likely to relapse?

A

Deep bite

304
Q

What fibers are important in stability/relapse?

A

transeptal

305
Q

What is the most retentive clasp design for a Hawley retainer?

A

Adams

306
Q

The ratio of dental to skeletal expansion for an RPE is…

A

50:50

307
Q

What are the circummaxillary sutures (5)?

A 
Frontonasal
Zygomaticomaxillary
Intermaxillary
Transpalatal
Midpalatal
308
Q

What is the appropriate force for headgear?

A

500-1000g (1-2 lbs) total or 400-800 g/side

309
Q

What is the appropriate force for a facemask?

A

1000g total or 500g/side

310
Q

When using HPHG a long bow bent … and a short bow bent… produce the same effect.

A

Long bow up

short bow down

311
Q

The Bionator is a Class … corrector and its main advantage is…

A

Class II Corrector
Extremely useful in controlling vertical dimension
(acrylic stops in incisal/occlusal and facial surface)

312
Q

What is the cause of OJ and sagittal molar relationship relapse following Herbst appliance therapy?

A

Anterior movement of Maxillary molars and incisors

313
Q

The Herbst and Mara class II correctors tend to …

A
  • Deepen the bite

- increase ramus height/ anterior facial height

314
Q

A Mara appliance tends to deepen the bite because…

A

its allows for anterior teeth extrusion

315
Q

What are the undesired side effects of Sleep Apnea appliances?

A
  • Lateral open bite
  • Flaring of mandibular incisors
  • Mandibular posterior rotation
316
Q

In general, what type of surgery is used to increase facial height?

A

BSSO

317
Q

In general, what type of surgery is used to decrease facial height?

A

Maxillary Impaction

318
Q

The most stable surgical changes are…(3)

A

Maxilla up (impaction) > Mandible forward> maxilla forward

319
Q

The least stable surgical changes are…(3)

A

Mx. Transverse expansion > maxilla down > mandible back

320
Q

What surgery is associated with condylar saggin?

A

BSSO

321
Q

Following BSSO surgery diminished sensations occur in … and after a year postop …

A

Almost all have diminished sensation following surgery, 2/3rds have some deficit in sensation 1 year post-op

322
Q

The most common occlusal complications of BSSO sugery are…

A

midline discrepancy, posterior openbite, edge to edge incisors

323
Q

A … is the most likely surgical procedure to produce TMJ popping or crepitation sounds.

A

BSSO

324
Q

What is a common complication of a mandibular setback?

A

Condyles located posteriorly and causes anterior open bite

325
Q

What are the implications for a Leforte II?

A

retrusive nose and maxilla

326
Q

Traction in distraction osteogenesis should follow a …

A

5-7 day latency period, a soft tissue callus is converted into fibrous connective tissue

327
Q

Slow traction during Distraction osteogenesis can produce …mm of traction without associated pain.

A

20 mm

328
Q

According to Burstone, the upper occlusal plane should be … and no more than …mm of incisal show should occur at rest.

A

Flat, 3mm

329
Q

Reorganization of the PDL occurs after…

A

3-4 months

330
Q

What is the suggested treatment for a asymptomtic horizontal root fracture?

A

2 years observation post orthodontic treatment

331
Q

With gingival inflammation there is great breakdown of bone due to an increase in…

A

prostaglanding, IL-1, IL-6 and MMP

332
Q

Biologic width is…

A

2.01mm

333
Q

The gingival margin should be ..mm coronal to the CEJ

A

1 mm

334
Q

What are the 5 types of PDL fibers?

A
  1. alveolar crest
  2. Horizontal
  3. Oblique
  4. Apical
  5. Interradicular
335
Q

What the 3 types of gingival fibers?

A
  1. Dentogingival
  2. Transepttal
  3. Circumferential
336
Q

PDL fibers reorganize in … months and Gingival fibers in …months.

A

PDL fibers ~3 months

Gingival fiber 4-6 months

337
Q

How long should orthodontic treatment be delayed for a stable 3 wall defect?

A

3-6 months

338
Q

What is the treatment of 3 wall periodontonal defect?

A

GTR (guided tissue regenertation)

339
Q

What is the treatment for a 2 wall peridontal defect?

A

Osseous recontour/resetion

340
Q

What is the treatment for a 1 wall peridontal defect?

A

Ortho can correct it by extraction, intrusion and uprighting

341
Q

If the bone is level and a ther is marginal ridge discrepancy, leveling may result in..

A

a hemiseptal defect

342
Q

An orthodontist treating a patient with a horizontal/circumferential periodontal defect should avoid …

A

vertical movement

343
Q

The classification ,description and treatment of furcation defects.

A

o Class I – just the tip of the probe; tx – membrane graft; osseous recontour
o Class II – half way through; tx – GTR
o Class III – through and through; hemisection, TE, open flap curettage

344
Q

Pre-orthodontic peridontal records of a patient >18 yo for the ABO should include..

A
  • full mouth perio probing by examinee
  • written documentation from GP, Perio, Pedo
  • Pretreatment pano, BW, Md/mx PAs
  • FMX
345
Q

What are the causes of a gummy smile (4)?

A
  • excessive Mx. Growth
  • Short upper lip
  • Increased eruption of Mx. Teeth
  • Delayed apical migration of gingival margin
346
Q

Apexification vs. Apexogenesis

A

Apexification- necrotic pulp; immediate ortho ok; can be done concurrently

Apexogensis- vital pulp

347
Q

What is the minimal OJ needed for PCF crowns/bridges and maryland bridges?

A

0.5-0.75 mm (avoid additional prep on lingual)

348
Q

When preparing for a venner, how much OJ is needed?

A

No OJ needed

349
Q

The width to length ratio for a Maxillary Central is …%

A

65-75%

350
Q

What is the CPR chest compression and breath ratio for 2 rescuers?

A

15:2 (one rescurer - 30:2)

351
Q

According to Kokich what is the best time for implants

A

-No change in vertical facial development from serial cephs 12 months apart (Girls: 17 years; Boys: 21 years)

352
Q

Bone on which side of the implant is thicker?

A

Compression

353
Q

What is the worst type of bone to use for bone graft when planning for a later implant?

A

Hydroxyapetite

354
Q

The proper width of a pilot drill for an implant should be..

A

0.2 to 0.5 mm smaller than the implant diameter

355
Q

What affects implant stability between length and width?

A

Width

356
Q

TAD failure is more prevalent in which arch?

A

Mandible

357
Q

In order to prove/disprove a hypothesis, what kind of statistical test should be preformed?

A

Chi-square test (observed vs. expected)

358
Q

When should a multiple regression test be used?

A

When several factors need to be evaluated simultaneously

359
Q

When should a correlation test be used?

A

When you want to find out the association btwn 2 variables

360
Q

When should a Wilcoxon test be used?

A

When you want to compare two paired groups

361
Q

Incidence is … why prevalence is…

A

New case; total amount of disease at a certain time

362
Q

What is standard error and how is it calculated?

A

Variation in mean from sample (SE = SD/square root of N)

363
Q

According to federal law, how long should the records on the staff be kept?

A

30 years

364
Q

According to federal law, how long should an employee needle stick record be kept?

A

5 years

365
Q

According to federal law, how quickly should a newly employed person should Hep B shots be made available?

A

ASAP

366
Q

What borders the petrous portion of the temporal bone?

A

Foramen lacerum

367
Q

Machine porion is where related to anatomical porion? and how does if affect FMA, FMIA and Y-axis?

A

Anterior and inferior
Increases Y axis & FMA
Decrease FMIA

368
Q

What is the most reliable dental land mark in a PA ceph? and most reliable skeletal landmark?

A

Dental: mandibular canine
Skeletal: Menton and B point

369
Q

What is the least reliable dental landmark in a PA ceph? and the least reliable skeletal land mark?

A

Dental: mandibular 1st molar
Skeletal: Zygomatic-frontal suture

370
Q

Where does the petrous portion of the temporal bone lie in a PA ceph?

A

inferior 1/3rd of the orbit

371
Q

What are the suprahyoid muscles?

A 
Dig My Style, it Genius
Digastric
Myohyoid
Stylohyoid
Geniohyoid
372
Q

What muscles form the floor of the mouth?

A

Mylohyoid and Geniohyoid

373
Q

The Geniohyoid muscle is innervated by what CN?

A

C1 via Hypoglossal (CN XII)

374
Q

The Mylohoid muscle is innervated by what CN?

A

Inferior alveolar branch of the Mandibular nerve (V3)

375
Q

What are the Infrahyoid muscles (4)?

A 
TOSS
Thyrohyoid
Omohyoid
Sternohyoid
Sternothyroid
376
Q

The Thyrohyoid is innervated by what nerve?

A

C1 via CNXII

377
Q

What are the extrinsic tongue muscles?

A 
PSGH
Paltaoglossus
Styloglossus
Genioglossus
Hyoglossus
378
Q

What the the intrinsic muscles fo the tongue?

A

Vertical, transverse, and longitudinal

379
Q

The Palatoglossus is innervated by what nerve?

A

CN X

380
Q

What structures lie between the Mylohyoid and Hyoglosus muscles?

A
  • Hypoglossal n.
  • lingual n. carrying chorda tympani
  • Submandibular ganglion suspended from V3
  • Submandibular duct
  • deep lingual, sublingual vein
381
Q

The …gland is located above the mylohyoid muscle.

A

Sublingual

382
Q

The … gland is located below the Mylohyoid muscle and wraps around toward the superior at the posterior end of the muscle.

A

Submandibular

383
Q

What are the three pharyngeal msucles?

A

palatopharyngeus, stylopharyngeus, salpingopharyngeus

384
Q

All Pharyngeal muscles are innervated by the … nerve except the … muscle which is innervated by the… nerve.

A

CNX

Stylopharyngeus CNIX

385
Q

All the muscles of the soft palate are innervated by the … nerve except fot the … muscle which is innervated by the … nerve.

A

CNX

tensor veli palatini V3

386
Q

The … muscle is the primary elevator of the soft palate and found on the … wall of the eustachian tube.

A

Leveator veli palatini

Medial wall of the eustachian tube

387
Q

The … muscle is the dilator of the Eustachian tube and found on the …wall of the tube.

A

Tensor veli palatini

Lateral wall of eustachian tube

388
Q

The … muscle forms the anterior faucial pillar and the … muscle forms the posterior pillar.

A

Palatoglossus

Palatopharyngeus

389
Q

The submental space is found … the mylohyoid muscle and drains the …

A

Below mylohyoid m.

Drains incisors

390
Q

The Sublingual space is found … the mylohyoid muscle and drains the …

A

Above mylohyoid

Drains 1st premolar and 1st molars

391
Q

The submandibular space is found … the mylohyoid muscle and drains…

A

Below mylohyoid

drains 2nd and 3rd molars

392
Q

What are the three maxillary spaces?

A

Canine, buccal and Infra-termporal

393
Q

What are the contects of the the Cavernous sinus?

A

-CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI, internal carotid; (Abducens CNVI and carotid are not in the wall)

394
Q

A lesion in CNVII and XII results on the …

A

affected side (XII tongue deviation, VII Bells Palsy)

395
Q

A lesion in CNXI results in head movement … the affected side

A

Head turns toward the affected side

396
Q

A lesion in CNX results in the Uvula deviating…

A

Away from the lesion side

397
Q

General sensation of the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue is provided by..

A

Lingual n. (CNV3)

398
Q

Taste sensation of the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue is provided by..

A

Chorda tympani (CNVII)

399
Q

General sensation of the posterior 1/3rd of the tongue is provided by..

A 
CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
also provides gag reflex)
400
Q

The general sensation and taste sensation of the Epiglottis are provided by…

A

CNX (vagus)

401
Q

What are the 5 major branches of the Maxillary artery?

A 
Men In Black Private Investigators
Middle meningeal artery
Inferior Alveolar 
Buccal
PSA
Infraorbital
402
Q

What vitamins are involved in production dentin and enamel?

A

CAD
C more for dentin
A more for enamel

403
Q

Hemophilia A shows a .. inheritance pattern and results in a …deficiency.

A
  • x linked, recessive

- Factor 8 deficiency

404
Q

Hemophilia A results in a … PTT, …PT and …bleeding time.

A

increased PTT
Normal PT and Bleeding time
* no contraindication for orthodontic treatment

405
Q

Superior Oblique Capitis
Origin:…
Insertion:…
Invervation:…

A

Origin - atlas
Insertion- nuchal line of occipital bone
Innervation- Suboccipital n. of C1

406
Q

Growth of the Orbit is compensated by a change in what bone?

A

Frontal

407
Q

Where does mandibular remodeling occur?

A 
Resorption of the Anterior Ramus
Deposition of the Posterior Ramus
Resorption at B point 
Deposition at external surface of lingual cortical symphysis 
Deposition at alveolus
408
Q

Chin prominence is common in what syndrome?

A

Cleidocranial dysotosis

409
Q

…mg of folic acid can reduce the incidence of cleft by …%

A

0.4 mg folic acid

33%

410
Q

What is the appropriate situation to use a LLHA?

A

Premature exfoliation of the primary molar with succedaneous eruption > 6 months, Scheduled exfoliation

411
Q

What muscle is responsible for the flaring of the nose?

A

Nasalis

412
Q

The Semilunar ganglion is location on what bone?

A

Sphenoid

413
Q

Orthodotnic treatment of a endodontically treated tooth results in ..

A

less resorption

414
Q

What is the calculation and assessment of the ionizing radiation dose recieved by the human body>

A

Dosimetry

415
Q

What is the most common Pimary molar occlusion?

A

Flush Terminal Plane

416
Q

What percentage of Class II are due to a retrognathic mandible?

A

75%

417
Q

What are the two types of “play” at the wire bracket interface? and which one can be minimized and how?

A

Torquing and Rotation play; rotation play can be minimized by ligation (play can never be eliminated and is required for the wire to be removed and reinserted)

418
Q

ABO DI Score ANB

A

> 6 and

419
Q

ABO DI Score IMPA

A

IMPA > 98, 1 point increment

420
Q

What structures are used to superimpose the maxilla?

A

Lingual contour of the palate and PT fissure

421
Q

When adjusting a twin block where is the acrylic removed?

A

Posterior

422
Q

An ameloblastoma is commonly seen in… and located …

A

Black, Males

Posterior mndible, show growing and agressive

423
Q

After a 6 month serial ceph to monitor growth may an impalnt be placed in a 19 year old?

A

No, need a year without growth

424
Q

What is the primary reason for an impacted canine?

A

Over-retained C or genetics

425
Q

..% of Anterior open bite is successfully corrected surgically and …% non-surgical

A

82% surgical

75% non-surgical

426
Q

When treating a Class II for phase I treatment, what % will have a reasonable correction?

A

75%

427
Q

What bone contains the carotid canal?

A

Temporal

428
Q

Geniohyoid vs. Anterior Digastric

A
  • geniohyoid is deeper dissection from submentovertex position
  • after removing the mylohyoid you will see the geniohyoid
  • digastrics are mor superficial
429
Q

What is amphetiamine used to treat and what are its side effects?

A
  • ADHD

- reduced appetite, pupil dilation, constricted blood vessels, increased heart reate, feeling of happiness and power

430
Q

What blood vessel is found in the pterygomaxillary fissure?

A

Sphenopalatine a.

431
Q

T/F the Frontonasal process form the lateral lip?

A

False, maxillary process

432
Q

What muscle is least likely to be associated with smiling?

A

Obicularis oris

433
Q

What muscle is the agonist of the medial pterygoid muscle?

A

Masseter muscle

434
Q

What are has all 3 types of bone grwoth: intramembranous, endochondrous and sutral?

A

Neurocranium and midface

435
Q

What side of the jaw moves during disclocation?

A

affected side

436
Q

What factors contribute to TAD stablity?

A
  • Tight pitch (threads clsoe to one another)

- Diameter (length, surface, and taper do not help)

437
Q

What is the risk when moving a tooth that underwent apexification?

A

Fracture

438
Q

IF you have maxillary impaction, how do you evaluate about incisors?

A

Incisors at rest and 3mm of incior display at rest

439
Q

What is the origin of Osteoclasts?

A

hematopoietic stem cell

440
Q

If you decrease voxel size what must be adjusted for the photon?

A

increase exposure time due to needing more photons

441
Q

What is the most readily noticeable symptom of pharyngeal insufficiency?

A

Hypernasality

442
Q

If you have a a unilateral crossbite and no functional shift what needs to be done?

A

flat plane to evaluate if there is a shift in CO to CR

443
Q

Which is more destructive a unilocular or multilocular ameloblastoma?

A

Multilocular

444
Q

Congenitally missing tooh. Cyst arising from the dental lamina. What is the most likey lesion?

A

Primordial Cyst

445
Q

Where is basion?

A

Most anterior postion of the foramen magnum

446
Q

Historically what is the best way to study mandibular changes?

A

Implant studies

447
Q

A female patient undergoes a setback surgery, would it be fixated?

A

Yes

448
Q

What kind of patients would you not want to level the COS?

A
  • Brachy surgery patient
  • short lower face height
  • deep bite
  • 3 piece maxilla
449
Q

How do you reduce the curve of Wilson?

A
  • lingual root torque on the lower

- Buccal root torque on upper

450
Q

What is the difference between sterilization and disinfection?

A

Sterilization kills everything including spores

451
Q

What is hooke’s law?

A

stress and strain havea a linear relationship

452
Q

Clinically useful springback occurs if the wire is deflected beyond?

A

yield point

453
Q

The ..dose is how much the body absorbs and … is the total radiation.

A

Effective; equivalent

454
Q

There is (deposition/resorption) on the lingual border of the mandibular symphysis and (deposition/resorption) at the b point.

A

Deposition; resoprtion

455
Q

Tylenol acts more (peripherally/centrally?

A

Centrally

456
Q

When placing a Maryland bridge, where you want the incisors in relation to the occlusal plane?

A

10-15 degrees

457
Q

T/F: TPA has no vertical or AP effect on maxillary first molars during extraction treatment.

A

T it controls

  • molar roation and uprighting
  • transverse posterior dimension
  • maintains leeway spaces
458
Q

Of Class II correctors the … shows 2mm more correction

A

Twin block have 2mm more correction than a herbst

  • also increased mandibular ramus height
  • most effective in controlling mandibular plane angle
  • most flaring of mandibular incisors
459
Q

Both the Herbst and Mara singificantly restrict… and cause…

A

Maxillary growth, and cause a steeper occlusal plane

460
Q

What happens to the hyoid bone follwoing a setback?

A

Moves downward

461
Q

T/F VTO are accurate in adult extraction cases.

A

T

462
Q

WHen restoring a black triangle, what do you consider with a good bone level?

A

tooth Width

463
Q

What is Hystereiss of an archwire?

A

Phase transformation

464
Q

How long should orthodontic treatment be delayed following ceasing bisphosphante use?

A

3 months

465
Q

The crowding limits for Invisalign is…mm

A

1-5mm

466
Q

What results in Gingival recession with orthopedic effects in adults?

A

RPE

467
Q

According to profitt, vertical … in males and … in females as they have

A

decrease in males and slightly increases in females

468
Q

T/F symphyisal distraction causes TMJ problems.

A

False, but it can result in devitalization of lower incisors, incisors eruption into the distraction site, and it is a risky procedure

469
Q

T/F Early fusion of the maxillary sutures is seen in Crouzon syndrome

A

False

470
Q

What is the primary cause of impacted canines?

A

Genetics

471
Q

The … muscles retrude the tongue.

A

Styloglossus and hyoglossus

472
Q

The … sinuses drain into the middle meatus.

A

Ethmoid, maxillary, temporal

473
Q

What are the paired bones of the facial skeleton?

A 
Maxilla
Nasal 
Lacrimal
Palatine 
Zygomatic 
Inferior nasal concha
474
Q

What bones form the cranial vault?

A 
PEST OF 6
Parietal
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
Temporal
Occipital
Frontal
475
Q

What bones form the face?

A 
Virgil Can Not Make My Prt Zebra Laugh
Vomer
Conchae(inferior)
Nasal
Maxilla
Palatine 
Zygomatic
Lacrimal
476
Q

Which Arachodonic acids metabolite plays a role in tooth movement?

A

Leukotriene

477
Q

What teeth only contact one other tooth in the opposing arch?

A

Maxillary 8s and Mandibular 1s

478
Q

Wits used the … occlusal plane while downs uses…

A

Functional - line thru occlusal surface of 1st molars and premolars

Bisected - bisects incisor overbite and passes overal distal cusps of most posterior teeth

479
Q

What are the primate spaces?

A

Mesial of U3 and distal of L3

480
Q

What applicable adidas Edward Angle invent?

A 
Only his PEERs
Pin and tube
E-arch
Edgewise
Ribbon arch
481
Q

3-3 Bolton

A

77

482
Q

Spontaneous correction of a childhood diastema is most likely when its width is not more than..

A

2mm

483
Q

On an articulator, the change in A-P is controlled by… and what additional information is needed at records to establish that setting?

A

Condylar Inclination, protrusive bite

484
Q

A TMA arch wire contains…

A 
80% Titanium 
11.5% Molybdenum 
6% Zirconium
4.5% Tin
-these are safe to use nickel sensitive patient
485
Q

SS archwires have the … stiffness, … springiness and therefore … resistant to permanent deformation.

A

Highest stiffness, lowest springiness and least resistance to permanent deformation

486
Q

The point at which any permanent deformation is first observed in an elastic material upon receiving a load is?

A

Proportional limit

487
Q

2x the wire diameter = … strength, … springiness, and … range

A

2x diameter = 8x strength, 1/16 springiness and 1/2 range

488
Q

2x wire length = … strength, … springiness, … range

A

2x wire length = 1/2 strength, 8x springiness, and 4x range

489
Q

In order to produce a counter clockwise rotation of the maxilla with HPGH the force must be… to the center of resistance?

A

Counter clockwise rotation = force mesial to Crot

Clockwise rotation = force distal to Crot

490
Q

When using asymmetric HG to correct a unilateral Class II molar relationship, a … cross bite is a side effect on the Class II side and a … cross bite is a side effect on the Class I side.

A

Lingual crossbite of the Class II side with the long outer bow
Buccal crossbite of the Class I side with the short outer bow

491
Q

Tipping force

A

35-60 gm

492
Q

Bodily movement (translation)

A

70-120

493
Q

Root uprighting force

A

50-100 gm

494
Q

Rotation force

A

35-60

495
Q

Extrusion force

A

35-60

496
Q

Intrusion force

A

10-30 gm

497
Q

What is the best surgery for a class 3 prognathic Md. patient with TMD?

A

IVRO (vertical ramus osteotomy)

498
Q

What are undesirable effects of Lefort 1 maxillary impaction?

A
  • rotation of the nasal tip upwards

- widening of alar base

499
Q

What surgical procedure is likely to require a graft for stabilization?

A

Lefort 1 down fracture

500
Q

The sagittal split osteotomy is the procedure of choice for the advancement of the mandible. What complications are often associated with this procedure?

A

Condylar sagging and post surgical trismus

501
Q

Dental Decompensation prior to Orthognathic Surgery

Class II
Class III

A

Class II - upper 5s / lower 4s

Class III - upper 4s / lower 5s

502
Q

Which is an advantage to mandibular set back using transoral vertical oblique ramus osteotomy (TOVRO)?

A
  • relatively less time than a BSSO

- lower incidence of neurosensory changes

503
Q

Which sutures are spilt with an RME?

A

Palatal
Circummaxillary
Circumzygomatic

504
Q

Following maxillary down fracture/Lefort I what growth potential remains?

A

Maxilla continues to grow vertically as normal

505
Q

What does HIPPA stand for?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

506
Q

Specificity is…

A

The probability of a negative new test result when there is truly no disease present

507
Q

The growth centers are…(3)

A

Epiphyseal plates
Synchondrosis
Nasal septum

508
Q

Which part of the face has both intramembranous and endochondral growth?

A

Upper and middle

509
Q

Sutural growth, endochondral, and intramembranous growth are seen in…

A

Neurocrainium and midface

510
Q

The cranial base growths by what mechanism?

A

Endochondral

511
Q

The source of growth at the cranial base is where?

A

Synchondroses

512
Q

The cranial base develops by…

A

Proliferation at the synchondroses

513
Q

The lateral wall of the orbit is made up of which bones?

A

Frontal process of zygomatic bone

Greater wing of sphenoid

514
Q

What should not be used in the treatment of a TMD patient?

A

Class III elastics (can worsen an anterior displaced disc)

515
Q

The lingual cusps of the maxillary second molars can cause

A
  • balancing side contacts

- TMD

516
Q

A flat plane occlusal splint should be use for…. patients while a Anterior positioning splint would be used for…

A

Flat Plane for symptomatic bruxism/TMD patients

Anterior positioning splint only used to recapture an anteriorly displaced disc

517
Q

Gorlick found the highest incidence of WSL on the …(what teeth)

A

Maxillary Laterals

518
Q

Gorelick stated that fluoride administered throughout treatment would result in continuous remineralization up to the depth of …. however if the lesions have progressed beyond that depth immediate fluoride treatment following debond will result in …

A

~0.5 mm and arrest the lesion and prevent further repair

Flouride remineralization penetrates ~0.5 mm so immediate treatment will essentially seal the deeper demineralization by surface remineralization

519
Q

When an anterior open bite is associated with a speech difficultly in a child, the speech sound most likely to be affected is ..

A

Lisp with “s”, “z” sibilants (th, sh, ch)

520
Q

When an Class III bite is associated with a speech difficultly in a child, the speech sound most likely to be affected is ..

A

Distortion of labiodental fricatives (f and v)

521
Q

When an Class II Div II bite is associated with a speech difficultly in a child, the speech sound most likely to be affected is ..

A

(Lingual position of mx. Incisors) difficulty in producing linguoalveolar stops “t” “d”

522
Q

Skeletal open bite will usually have …(4)

A
  • excessive eruption of posterior teeth
  • downward rotation of Md. and Mx.
  • normal (or even excessive) eruption of anterior teeth
  • upper incisors below stomion superioris
523
Q

In .022 slot system, what is the maximum slot measurement? And in .18?

A

22 slot = 22 x 28

18 slot = 18 x 25

524
Q

What is not an indication for extraction prior to surgery?

A

Transverse issue

The following indicate pre surgical ext. crowding, dental decompensation, overjet, excessive protrusion

525
Q

If upper 7’s are removed what happens to the 8’s?

A

Careful use of headgear to distalize first molars after second molar extraction there is a 75-80% chance the 3rd molars erupt into an acceptable position to replace the second molars

526
Q

What imaging is useful in diagnosis of condylar hyperplasia?

A

Tech 99 (bone scan)

527
Q

What type of AW is less effective in anterior tooth root torque/ torque control?

A

Martensitic NiTi

528
Q

When treating a class II patient, the goal is to … the OP-SN angle in because … that angle increases the tendency for relapse.

A

Smaller

Increasing

529
Q

The greatest indicator of root resorption is…

A

Previous history of root resorption

530
Q

Fusion of what synchondrosis indicates completion of the cranial base?

A

Sphenoid-occipital synchondrosis

531
Q

In a patient with acromegaly, which sinus gets larger?

A

Frontal (Total volume)

Sphenoid (AP change)

532
Q

Hypertelorism is associated with ? (2)

A

Midline cleft
Aperts
(Trisomy 21 HYPOtelorism)

533
Q

What genes are associated with maxillary lateral incisor agenesis?

A

PAX9, EDA, SPRY2, SPRY4 and WNT10A

Written Examination (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions