Tutankhamen -1 Flashcards
(538 cards)
1
Q
How many bones are in the skull?
A
22 Total
8 cranium
14 facial
2
Q
Purely endochondral bone
A
SHE II Stapes Hyoid Ethmoid Incus Inferior concha
3
Q
which bones are mixed?
A
MOST are Mixed Maleus Occipital Sphenoid Temporal Mandible
4
Q
Unpaired bones of skull
A
Vomer
Mandible
5
Q
Semilunar ganglion is also known as..
A
Trigeminal, Gasserian, Gasser’s ganglion
6
Q
Trigeminal n. originates from the…
A
Pon
7
Q
Smallest bone in the human body
A
Stapes
8
Q
Stapes is derived from which brachial arch?
A
2nd (aka Reicherts cartilage; also gives rise to CN VII, muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid ligament, styloid process, and posterior belly of diagastric muscles
9
Q
What passes through the foramen ovale?
A
VALE
V3, Accessory meningeal artery, emissary vein)
10
Q
Syndesmosis vs synchodrosis
A
Syndesmosis= suture united by ligaments
Synchondrosis=hyaline cartilage
11
Q
Bones of Orbit
Floor =
Medial =
A
Z Pretty MELFS Zygomatic Palatine Maxilla Ethmoid Lacrimal Frontal Sphenoid
Floor = ZPM Medial = MEL
12
Q
What is the difference btwn frontal resorption vs undermining resorption? Which one is desired?
A
Frontal- lighter force, desired
Undermining- heavy, causes hyalinization of PDL
13
Q
What is transitional bone?
A
resulting bone after tooth has been moved to another place
14
Q
What is the process of bone formation?
A
Why Charkas Love Boys
woven-composite-lamellar-bundle
15
Q
What is another name for cancellous bone?
A
trabecular
16
Q
What is the difference btwen primary and secondary osteon?
A
Secondary- (aka lamellar bone) contains more vessels; formed by remodeling of existing bone
primary (aka composite) less vessels
17
Q
Cartilage grows by what process?
A
Interstitial or appositional
18
Q
Growth site vs Growth center
A
Growth Center- independent genetic control growth
Growth sites- where growth occurs
19
Q
When does intersphenoid synchondrosis fuse?
A
at birth
20
Q
When does anterior and posterior occipital synchondrosis fuse?
A
3-5 years
21
Q
When does Spheno-ethmoidal synchondrosis fuse?
A
start 7-8 years
22
Q
When does spheno-occipital synchodrosis fuse?
A
starts at 15 and finishes at 20
23
Q
Lesser cornu of hyoid bone is derived from which brachial arch?
A
2nd (Greater cornu is from 3rd)
24
Q
Mandibular symphysis fuses at what age?
A
6-9 months of age
25
What genes are related to Marfans syndrome?
FBN1 & TGFB-2
26
Genes of Non-syndromic tooth agenesis?
MSX-1 and PAX9 (3rd olars)
27
Genes of Treacher-Collins syndrome?
TCOF1
28
Genes of Turners syndrome?
SHOX
29
Genes of Dentinogenesis Imprefecta?
DSPP
30
What is the last bone to complete growth
Clavicle
31
Tongue reaches adult size at what age?
8 yrs
32
Maximum width of skull (cranial vault) at what age?
7 yrs
33
Nasal bone completes growth at what age?
10 yrs
34
What is Enlow's V principle?
Complex bones maintain characteristic shape by bone deposition inside the "V" and resorption outside the "V"
35
What is the first system to form in embryo?
Neural
36
...Tissue regresses as ... tissue develops
Lymphoid; Genital
37
Skeletal tissue is inversely proportional to the ... curve
Lymph
38
50% of female growth is completed at age?
6
39
Arch length and perimeter increases or decreases from primary to permanent dentition?
Decreases
40
What are Bjork's 7 signs of mandibular rotation
1. inclination of condylar head
2. curvature of mandibular canal (vertical grower -? more curved lower border)
3. Shape of mandibular border (antigonial notching)
4. Symphysis inclination (vertical grower -> more prominent chin)
5. Interincisal angle
6. Interpremolar and intermolar angles
7. Lower anterior facial heights
41
Growth finishes in what order?
Transverse- AP - Vertical
42
What is the most common salivary gland tumor?
Pleomorphic Adenoma
43
What is the range of wavelength for curing light?
430-480 nm
44
What photoinitiator is used in adhesive?
Camphorquinone
45
What is the most common odontogenic tumor?
It seems Ameloblastoma is correct
| Odontoma
46
What is the most common cephalometic error?
Difficulty in locating landmarks
47
What force can be placed immediately on TADs?
100-200 g (300 or more will result in failure)
48
Best achorage device?
| Best vertical control device?
```
Anchorage = TAD
Vertical = HG
```
49
Agenesis of tooth occurence order?
3rd molars> md. 2nd premolars> mx. lateral incisors
50
What is the limit of a SARPE expansion?
Zygomatric buttress
51
Concentration of NaF in mouthwash recommended?
0.05%
52
Geographic tongue is associated with what conditions?
Psoriasis
Fissured Tongue
Females x3 > males
Munro abscess histologically
53
Most common finding in HIV patients?
Candidiasis
54
Most detrimental effect of root resorption?
intrusion and torque
55
Undermining resorption shows what histologically?
Cell free zone
56
Growth curve of mandible is btwn which two curves?
General and Neural
57
Physicians use height/weight chart if there is how much deviation form the norm?
90%
58
According to functional matrix theory, what causes bone growth?
Periosteal matrix
59
What part of the face has both endochondral and intramembranous growth?
Upper and Middle
60
Anterior Pituitary hormones?
```
FLAT PEG
FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
Prolactin
Endorphin
GH
```
61
Posterior Pituitary Hormones?
ADH (vasopressin)
| Oxytocin
62
What does high level of alkaline phosphate indicate?
high level of osteoblastic activity
Paget's disease
during growth
63
What are the dental consequences of hypothyroidism(Cretinism)?
root resorption, delayed erruption, incompletely formed roots of permanent teeth, macroglossia, mental retardation
64
What diseases have Wormian bones?
```
PORK CHOP
Pycnodysotosis
Osteogensis imprefecta
Ricketts
"Kinky hair" Menke's syndrome
Cleidocranail dysostosis
hypoparathyroidism
hypophosphatasia
otopalatodigital syndrome
primary acro-osteolysis
Downs
```
65
How does the cranial base growth?
endochondral ossification
| synchodrosis
66
Source of growth of the cranial base?
Spheno-ethmoidal, inter-sphenoidal, spheno-occipital
67
majority of growth in the mandible is?
Appositional
68
Normal downward and forward facial growth results from?
Upward and backward growth of maxillary suture and mandibular condyles
Vertical and mesial drift of dentition
69
Resorption of the anterior border of the ramus allows what kind of growth?
Increase in mandibular corpus length
70
What suture fuses early in dolicocephalic patients?
Saggital (Coronal in brachy patients)
71
Which bone ossifies upon termination of growth in the distal phalanges?
Sesamoid
72
Ossification of Sesamoid bone and growth spurt timing?
occurs 1 year before growth spurt, 70% of growth remains) SMI4
Growth Spurt SMI6-7
73
What part of maxilla increases arch length and allows for molar eruption?
Mx. Tuberosity
74
In 11 YO male, lower facial height is expected to increase at what rate?
1mm/year
75
In a 11 YO male, in a 2 year period, how much are the mandibular molars expected to erupt?
1.5-2mm
76
Soft tissue vs. skeletal profile changes from teens to adults
Changes in Soft Tissue are greater
77
According to reviews of UNC database, deviation of the chin in pts w/ deficient or excessive md growth is to what side and what precentage?
left, 90%
78
Best genetic phenotype for predicting facial growth of child
Same sex sibling
79
What is the Peak Height Velocity (PHV)
- highest growth rate at any age
- 12 years in girls, 14 in boys
- from puberty for up to 24 months after
80
In late maturing girl, when does PVH occur?
18-24 months
81
Best way to determine growth potential?
Hand-wrist film (Serial Ceph shows cessation of growth)
82
Peak height velocity curve indicates what?
Growth in cm per year
83
At menarche what is true about growth
most growth is completed
84
When do primary teeth start calcification in utero?
14 weeks
85
Calcification of upper and lower 3rd molars...
varies greatly
86
What is the rate-limiting factor in pre-emergence tooth erruption?
Resorption of primary teeth (formation of permanent teeth stimulate primary tooth resorption)
87
What time of day does tooth erruption occur?
8PM to midnight of 1am (similar to hormone release)
88
How long does it take for root to complete following eruption?
2 to 3 years
89
Mechanism of tooth eruption is best explained by?
Proliferation of cells at the base of the crypt
90
What are the 3 things that could happen in tight anterior occlusion/late mandibular growth?
1. distal displacement of md.
2. maxillary incisor flare
3. lower anterior crowding
91
Greatest loss of arch length occur at?
loss of second primary molars @ 6.5 years
92
What happens to permanent mandibular intercanine width during transition from primary to permanent?
- increases slightly
| - 2 mm increase
93
Narrow arch width vs wider arch weidth, the arch perimeter increases?
greater for the narrow arch
94
What radiographs should be submitted to the ABO for pt over 18?
FMX
95
What imaging is the best technique to see TMJ disc perforation?
Arthography
96
What imaging gives off the most radiation?
Bone Scan
97
Digital radiograph can produce ___ shades of gray and human eyes can detect ___ shades of gray
256 (8 bit)
| 16 (4 bit)
98
You can use a 8 bit monitor to display pictures taken from a camera that has 8 bits and 256 shades of gray (T/F)
True
99
Most common radiographic error leading to magnification?
increased distance from object to film
100
What is the ideal distance btwn film to midsagittal plane for lateral ceph?
15 cm (greater will cause magnification)
101
What is the ideal distance btwn source to midsagittal plane for lateral ceph?
60 in (5 ft)
102
What is the major source of error in ceph tracing/
Identification of landmarks
103
In standard ceph, which side of the mandible is lower and more magnified?
Right side
104
What is the usual cause of double border of mandible in lateral ceph?
Magnification
105
Why would mandible be smaller on ceph taken 3 years later?
- Pt. too close to the source
| - Change in object to film distance
106
Radiographic film emulsion contains...
Gelatin and silver halide (bromide)
107
Not including CBCT what is the downfall of digital x-ray?
Resolution
108
What is the x-ray filter composed of? and why is it used?
- Aluminum
| - Reduction of low energy x-rays
109
What metal is used to produce x-rays? (target)
Tungsten
110
What is the minimum total filtration that is required by x-ray that can operate in range greater than 70 Kvp
2.5 mm aluminum or equivalent
111
What is a radiographic filter and intensifying screen used for?
- reduce exposure to patient
- reduce exposure time
- thicker phosphor layer results in faster screens
112
How long should exposed x-ray film remain in fixing solution?
10 mins (5 for development)
113
When do primary teeth form in utero?
6 weeks
114
When do primary teeth begin calcification in utero?
14 weeks
115
What is the number of teeth related to gemination and its anatomy?
same # of teeth; 2 crowns, 1 root
116
When does tooth emergence begin related to root completion?
3/4 root completed
117
When does tooth eruption begin related to root completion?
2/3 root completed
118
When does apex close after eruption?
2-3 years
119
What features are associated with tooth eruption?
- occlusal change; root elongation; growth of alveolar bone; resorption of deciduous roots
- NOT RELATED TO MESIAL TOOTH MOVEMENT
120
What teeth are most common in ectopic eruption?
-mx 1st molars, md laterals, mx canines
121
What are the most reliable signs of aberrant eruption sequence?
- L7 before L5
| - U3 before U4/U5
122
What is estrogen has what effect on tooth movement?
decreases
123
What is the most common primary tooth agenesis?
Primary mx lateral incisors
124
When asymptomatic non-ectopic impacted 3rd molars followed from a mean age of 20-24, what percentage are expected to erupt into a normal position?
33%
125
What is the most important factor for intra-oral digital photography?
light
126
Which photography file type loses the most resolution?
JPEG (if GIF is not a choice)
| JPEG loses the most information upon compression
127
What photography tile type loses the least amount of info?
TIF
128
What do you do when you use a double film packet?
Do nothing
129
What do you need to do to ensure the film quality when taking extraoral PA?
increase mA or exposure time
130
What affects penetration the most when taking an X-ray?
kVP
131
What has no effect on penetrating power of X-ray?
mA and exposure time
132
How do you decrease an x-ray contrast?
Increase kVP
133
How do you decrease density of a radiograph?
decrease mA
134
How do you position a patient's head when taking a pano?
Frankfort horizontal parallel to the floor
135
This term is used to describe the area of dental anatomy that is reproduced distinctly on a pano
Focal trough
136
When evaluating radiograph, which teeth show greatest variation relative to the onset of mineralization of the crowns of permanent teeth?
premolars
137
Transcranial x-ray good for viewing what structure?
Lateral pole of condyle
138
What does ABO recommend for scale of photography?
1/4 photo size
139
Factors that contribute to optimal detail sharpness of a radiograph
- small focal spot area
| - short object film distance
140
Oral tissues that are most sensitive to radiation?
Developing tooth buds and salivary glands
141
What is mandatory in radiation for protection of patients?
Collimation
142
Radiation protection guide advocates that x-ray dose to operators of dental machines should not exceed?
100 milliroentgens per week
143
What type of radiograph is used to view maxillary sinuses?
Waters view
144
The first clinically observable reaction to radiation is?
Erythema of the skin
145
Cephalometrics are used to determine...
Dental pattern related to skeletal pattern
146
ABO, Mandibular Plan is
-constructed gonion to menton
147
ABO SN-MP range
27-37 degrees
148
What ceph measures are used in ABO discrepancy index?
SN-MP, ANB but not FMA, IMPA
149
What two bones meet articulare?
Mandible and temporal (it is a constructed point)
150
Which point is associated with occipital condyle?
Bolton point (higherst point at posterior condylar notch of occipital bone)
151
What is the posterior border of foramen magnum called?
Opisthion
152
Distance between SN and Natural head position?
7 degrees (SN and Frankfort difference -7 degrees)
153
What are common and stable reference lines when tracing?
FH line
154
What is level with FH line? and what is Parallel?
```
level = Zygomatic arch
Parallel = Palate
```
155
What's the best structure for superimposition of the cranial base?
Anterior clinoid, cribiform plate, greater wing of sphenoid
156
At what age can you start to superimpose on SN?
7 yrs
157
Where is Jugal Point?
Anterior end of upper border of zygomatic arch where it meets the process of zygomatic bone
158
What is the major limitation of the Witts analysis?
Failure of distinguishing btwn skeletal and dentoalveolar discrepancies
159
On a ceph, if you change from anatomic porion to machine porion, what will change?
Machine porion is anterior and inferior
FMA and Y-axis increase
FMIA decreases
160
Where do you superimpose the mandible?
3rd molar crypt, inner cortical part of symphysis, lower border of mandibular canal
(NOT of angle of mandible or mental foramen)
161
Where do you superimpose to know changes in maxillary dentition?
palate
162
What's the percentage of lower anterior facial height?
55%
163
In 16 YO female, normal ratio of upper facial height to lower facial height?
Upper (nasion to Subnasale): Lower (Subnasale to menton)
| 43:57
164
Which ceph line is not an esthetic line?
I line
165
A good measurement of severity of a malocclusion in the AB line to?
Facial plane (N-Pog)
166
What 2 lines make up the facial angle?
Facial Plane (N-Pog) and FH Line
167
What happens to facial angle and mandibular plane angle as a person ages?
Facial Angle Increases
| Mandibular Plane decreases
168
MPA decreases _ degrees per every _ years
1 degree per every 3 years
169
Angle of Convexity
angle btwn N-A and A-Pog
170
What is least likely to change from 8-18 yrs? or remains relatively constant with age?
Y-axis; Facial Axis
171
If the angle of convexity is -5, what type of malocclusion do you expect?
Class III
172
What can be used as a substitute for porion?
Ear rod
173
Temporal bone on PA Ceph appears as a line on? Where does petrous bone lie on PA ceph?
Inferior 1/3 of the orbit
174
Radiopaque line that passes obliquely through the orbits on a PA is which bone?
Sphenoid
175
Downs analysis used what as a reference plane?
Frankfort Horizontal
176
Downs used what for superimposition?
Broadbent registration point
177
Where is Broadbent registration point located?
Intersection btwn the Bolton-Nasion line and perpendicular from sella
178
Steiner uses what to evaluate lower incisors to chin?
Holdaway Ratio (L1-NB/Pog-NB) 1:1
179
What is one of the major strengths of McNamara Analysis?
Normative data are based on well defined sample
180
What is the E line?
Ricketts; Soft tissue Pog to tip of the nose
181
What is the best point to measure the protrusion of the upper incisors?
SNA
182
What is the normal range of Nasolabial angle?
94-110
183
What is the name of the midpoint at the most inferior point of maxillary alveolus?
Supradentale (aka prosthion)
Mandibular one is known as infradentale
184
Which occlusion is commonly found with interincisal angle of 185 degree?
Class II div II
185
What anatomic structure is frequently superimposed on periapical or occlusal radiographs of the anterior maxilla?
ANS
186
The radiopacity that frequently obliterates the apices of maxillary molars when using bisecting principle of intra-oral radiography is?
Zygoma and zygomatic process of maxilla
187
What structure does the tuberculum impar give rise to?
Tongue
188
Meckel's cartilage gives rise?
Malleus, Incus, Sphenomandibular ligament
189
What brachial arches is hyoid derived from?
2nd and 3rd
| lesser-2nd, greater cornu
190
What bones form lamboidal suture?
2 parietal and 1 occipital
191
Where does the frontal sinus drain?
Middle meatus
192
Where does the posterior ethmoidal cells drain?
Superior meatus
193
What is the lacrimal sac between?
Maxilary and lacrimal bones
194
What structure is the key ridge?
Zygomatic process of the maxilla
195
What bone is not a part of the orbit?
Vomer
196
What bones make up the floor of the orbit?
• Seven bones of the Orbit “Z Pretty MELFS”
o Zygomatic, Palatine, Maxilla, Ethmoid, Lacrimal, Frontal, Sphenoid, ,
o Floor = ZPM Medial = MEL
197
What bones make up the floor lateral wall of the orbit?
• Seven bones of the Orbit “Z Pretty MELFS”
o Zygomatic, Palatine, Maxilla, Ethmoid, Lacrimal, Frontal, Sphenoid, ,
o Floor = ZPM Medial = MEL
198
How many cartilages in the inferior 3rd of the nose?
3 cartilages
199
The nasal septum is usually deviated where?
Inferior 1/3
200
Which is the largest salivary gland?
- Parotid
| - enters though buccinators M2 by Stensen's duct
201
Where is the articular tubicle located relative to sigmoid notch?
Posterior
202
What doesn't occur when a person swallows?
Supra hyoid relax
203
Position of the mandibular foramen?
- Above the occlusal plane
| - Above and posterior of the mandibular molars
204
Muscle primarily responsible for smiling?
Zygomaticus major (not Risorius)
205
Which muscle pulls the lip up when smiling?
Labialis Superioris
206
Which muscle draws the corner of the mouth laterally when smiling?
Risorius
207
Temporalis muscles act as?
Periosteal Matrix
208
Anterior digastic muscle is innervated by what? and posterior by what?
Anterior by trigeminal
| Posterior by facial
209
Origin and insertion of anterior and posterior digastrics
o Anterior origin – close to lingual symphysis; posterior origin – medial surface of mastoid process; a deep groove btwn mastoid process and styloid process called digastric groove o Insertion – both of them into intermediate tendon of hyoid bone(at junction of greater and lesser cornu)
210
Which muscle inserts into the mandible?
anterior digastric; not hyoglossus, posterior belly of digastric, thyroglossus, superior belly of omohyoid
211
What muscle protrudes the tongue?
Genioglossus
212
The hammock ligament is related to...
eruption
213
What bone bridges the cranial base to facial skeleton
Sphenoid
214
What is not a part of the sphenoid?
Cribiform (that is ethmoid)
Sphenoid- dosum sellae, anterior clinoid process, hypophyseal fossa
215
Which paranasal sinus lies beneath the sella turcica?
Sphenoid sinsus
216
Origin and insertion of Medial pterygoid muscle
Origin: deep head > medial side of lateral pterygoid plate; superficial head > pyramidal process of palatine bone and maxillary tuberosity
Insertion: medial angle of mandible
217
Origin and insertion of Lateral pterygoid muscle
o Origin: upper head – infratemporal fossa and infratemporal crest of greater wings of sphenoid o Lower head – lateral surface of lateral pterygoid plate o Insertion: inferior head – neck of the condyle; superior – articular disc and condylar capsule
218
C1 known as the ... pivots around the ... process of C2
Atlas pivots around the Odontoid process aka dens of Axis (C2)
219
What is the widest cervical vertebrae (C1-C5)
C1 Atlas
220
Where is the hyoid bone located relative to the cervical vertebrae?
C3-C4
221
What is the midpoint at the most inferior point of the maxillary alveolus?
Supradentale (Prosthion)
222
Foramen that borders the petrous portion of the temporal bone?
- Foramen Lacerum (borders with temporal, sphenoid, occipital)
- most foramina are in sphenoid; jugular foramen border occipital and temporal
- hypoglossal canal in occipital
223
What nerve is a special sensory to anterior 2/3rd of the tongue?
Facial nerve via chorda tympani
224
What artery goes into the pterygomaxillary fissure?
Pterygopalatine artery
225
What are the borders of the Pterygomaxillary fissure?
Anterior border: maxillary tuberosity
Posterior border: lateral pterygoid plate
226
Where are the Adenoid's located?
Posterior pharyngeal wall
| Nasopharyangeal wall
227
What is the incubation period for Hep B?
1-6 months (Hep B Antigen is potentially infectious)
228
What the the most common symptoms of Hep B?
No symptoms
229
Patient presents with Coloboma and ear tissue?
Treacher Collins
- Downward slanting palpebral fissure
- hyplastic supraorbital rims
- malar hypoplasia
- mandibular hypoplasia
- auricular and middle ear malformations
- lower eyelid coloboma
- may have cleft plate
- normal intelligence
230
Treacher Collins is not assocaited with...
Mandible prognathism /Md hyperplasia
| Hypoplastic maxilla
231
What are the 5 stages of Craniofacial development?
1. germ layer formation
2. neural tube formation
3. origins, migration and interaction of cell population
4. formation of organ systems
5. final differentiation of tissues
232
What stage of craniofacial development does Fetal Alcohol syndrome occur?
1st and 2nd
233
At what stage of craniofacial development does Mandibular dysostosis occur and what week is that stage completed?
3rd stage (Treacher Collins) and completed at the 4th week
234
At what stage of craniofacial development does cleft lip and palate occur?
4th stage
235
At what stage of craniofacial development does Synostosis occur?
5th stage; Synostosis (early closure of sutures btwen cranial and facial bones)
-Crouson, Aperts, Achondroplasia
236
What syndrome affects both maxilla and mandible and occurs due to a disturbance in the 1st trimester?
Mandibulofacial dystosis (Treacher Collins)
237
What syndrome has a problem with neural crest cell migration and underformation of the Mx. and Md.?
Treacher Collins
238
What are the symptoms of Gardner's syndrome?
- Colon (intestinal) polyps
- Supernumerary teeth
- Multiple Osteomas
- DOES NOT CAUSE CLEFTS
239
What are the symptoms of Down's syndrome?
```
o Trisomy 21
o Brachycephaly
o Flat nasal bridge and occiput
o Small, low set ears o Macroglossia, glossoptosis
o Epicanthal fold
o Brushfield spot
o Simian crease
o Sandal gap deformity of feet
o Excessive nuchal feet
o Mental retardation o Hypoplastic maxilla o Delayed eruption of teeth
o Prevalance 1 in 800
```
240
Which syndrome displays syndactyly?
Apert's
| both Crouzon and Apert have premature fusion of coronal and lamboid sutures
241
What suture fuses prematurely in Apert's and Crouzon syndrome?
Coronal Suture
242
What two symptoms are not associated with Cleidocranial dysplasia?
Missing teeth and protrusive maxilla
243
Cyanosis is common at birth in what syndrome?
(bluish color of skin) Pierre-Robin
| -Glossoptosis, micrognathia, U-shaped cleft
244
Bilateral cleft lip is caused by failure of fusion of what?
Medial nasal process and maxillary
245
What is the incidence of cleft palate?
1 in 750 worldwide
246
What facial height is reduced in cleft patient's?
Upper facial height
247
What is found in a cleft patient?
Rotated incisors, missing laterals, posterior crossbite
| *NOT impacted central incisors
248
What is the most effective time to surgically close a cleft palate?
1 year after birth
249
What causes problems in cleft pt's speech?
- inability to buildup intraoral pressure
- hypernasality
- velopharyangeal insufficiency
250
When should an alveolar bone graft in a cleft patient be performed?
when the canine root is 2/3rds formed
251
Infants with repaired cleft palate and lip have what deficiency?
Deficiency in the soft palate
252
The recent consensus is that grafting of alveolar process in cleft patients should be preformed during which period?
infancy
253
Effective sources for bone graft for clefts?
Iliac > calvarium > ribs
254
Best retention for a cleft patient?
retainer with a pontic
255
Hypertelorism is seen in what type of cleft?
Midline cleft (internasal dysplasia)
256
What are the symptoms of Eagle Syndrome?
Styloid process elongated; stylohyoid ligament calcification
257
Kaposi sarcoma in HIV patients is?
Multifocal in origin
258
What is the most oral manifestation of HIV patients?
Candidiasis
259
What is seen in osteopetrosis?
Increased radiopacity
260
The most common location for a Siaolith is?
Submandibular Gland
261
What is the most common type of salivary gland tumor?
Pleomorphic adenoma
262
What are the most to least common location for a Pleomorphic adenoma?
Parotid > Posterior lateral hard palate > submandibular > upper lip > buccal mucosa
263
What is the most common oral malignant tumor?
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
264
What is the second most common salivary gland tumor?
Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma
265
What is the second most common oral malignant tumor?
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
266
Osteomyelitis is commonly caused by which bacteria?
Staphylococcus aureus
267
Fibrous dysplasia presents with what radiographic apperance?
ground glass or orange peel
268
Geographic tongue is associated with...
- Psoriasis
- Fissured Tongue
- more common in female then male
- show abscess histologically
269
What is the most common odontogenic tumor?
Odontoma or Ameloblastoma ( Dr. Kahn’s suggests Amelo while Neville says Odontoma) so that’s fun
270
T/F Ameloblastoma metastasize frequently
False
| -
271
Common area for Ameloblastoma
3rd molar/posterior mandible
| high recurrence after removal, multiocular, more common in males
272
A female patient has multiple radiolucencies apical to the lower anteriors. All teeth test vital. What is the probable diagnosis?
Periapical Cementodysplasia (MABF)
273
How does a mucocele differ from a true cyst?
it lacks an epithelial lining
274
What is the etiologic agent of the majority of subacute bacterial endocarditis?
Strep viridans
275
What are the symptoms of hypocalcemia?
-Decreased cardiac output (increase chronotropic, decrease ionotrophic)
-CATs go numb (Convulsion, Arrhythmias, Tetany, numbness/parasthesia around hands, feet, mouth, lips)
Positive Chvostek's sign (tap angle of the jaw > Massters spasms)
276
What the the signs/symptoms of Pagets disease?
o Pontential for undergoing “spontaneous” malignant transformation
o Cotton wool appearance
o Alkaline phosphatase is elevated
277
A patient with achondroplasia in which midfacial structures are most affected is likely to have what malocclusion?
Class III
278
What is the clinical oral symptom of Peutz-Jegher syndrome?
Melanin pigmentation of lips
279
What are the signs and symptoms of Ectodermal Dysplasia?
- Missing sweat glands
- Missing teeth/peg shaped
- NOT blue sclera (that is caused by OI)
280
What are the S+S of Adenoid Facies
- high palate and constricted maxilla
- open bite
- short upper lip
281
Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by what bacteria?
Staphloccus Aureus
282
What can manifest itself as myositis?
Osteomyelitis
283
Children with what condition have the greatest tendency towards delayed erruption of teeth?
Hypothyroidism
284
Exam reveals mixed dentition, malocclusion, abnormal resorption pattern of primary teeth, delayed eruption of permanent teeth, incompletely formed roots of permanent and large tongue?
Hypothyroidism
285
Arthritis changes whatt?
Synovial Fluid
286
If both parent's don't have cleftt but one sibling does, what is the chance the next child will have cleft?
5%
287
S+S of Taurodontism
- pulp chamber vertically enlarged
- "Bull like" teeth
- associated with amelogenesis imperfecta, ectodermal dysplasia, tricho-dento-osseous syndrome
288
Banthine's dental side effect is ... and it used to treat ...via its MOA, ....
reduced salivary flow
used to treat anticholinesterase poisoning, bradycardia, antispamodic
MOA Muscarinic receptor antagonist
289
What are the 3 types of drugs that can cause gingival hyperplasia?
- Anticonvulsant (phenytoin)
- Immunosuppressant (cyclosporine)
- Calcium channel blocker (procardia, nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem)
290
What effect does prostaglanding have on osteoblasts and osteoblasts?
Arachadonic acid, prostagladin stimulates osteoclastic production
291
What affect does low doses of analgesics w/ prostaglandin inhibitors for pain control after orthodontic appointments have?
Little of no inhibiting effect on tooth movement
292
The Arachodontic acid pathway is activated by...
IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha
293
Which cell mediators increase prostaglandin production?
IL-1 and BMP
294
AHA guideline for banding molars in pt with mitral valve prolapse?
No prophylaxis is needed
295
How is intramembranous bone formed?
via condensation of mesenchyme
296
Fetus's are composed of ... bone.
Woven bone
297
Increasing loading on bone results in ...
increased turnover
298
Histochemically there is no difference btwn basal bone and .....
alveolar bone
299
If a person has a steep premolar cusps, ortho should finish in what overbite relationship?
Deeper overbite
300
T/F with tall cusps, a case should finish in a deeper bite to prvent interferences?
True
301
Nocturnal bruxism is associated with ... but it is not associated with ...
stress, occlusal interference
302
With a 3mm OB and an exaggerated Curve of Wilson what is expected?
Non-working interferences
303
With a edge-edge bite and a severe curve of Wilson what is expected?
Lack of posterior disclusion
304
How do you finish a 2 mm CO-CR discrepancy?
if = 2 mm equilibrate (MUDL rule: Mesial upper, distal lower) so grind distal inclines on lower
305
What often prevents attaining Class I posterior occlusion?
Axial inclination of canines
306
What premanent posterior tooth has a mesial marginal ridge located more cervical than distal margin?
Mandibular first premolar
307
With what tooth does upper second premolar occlude with in Class III malocclusion?
Mandibular 1st molar only
308
The non-centric cups in posterior crossbite are?
upper lingual and lower buccal
309
In response to heavy pressure against a tooth, pain is usually felt after how many seconds?
3-5 seconds
310
Flush terminal plane in the primary dentition normally results in..
End to end or class I (most of the time)
311
Distal step in the primary dentition normally results in...
Class II or end to end
312
What cusp is most likely the cause of balancing interference?
Lingual cusps of maxillary second molars
313
What changes as a patient shifts from CO to CR?
Vertical dimension increases, OJ increases, OB decreases
314
T/F a 1mm CO/CR shift is acceptable?
True
315
The TMJ joint is compose of ...
Fibrous CT
316
The articular surface of the TMJ is lined by ...
thin synovial membrane
317
in the TMJ Translation occurs in the ... compartment and Rotation in the ... compartment
Upper
| Lower
318
The tooth and cups most likely to cause TMJ are?
Maxillary 2nd molar lingual cusps
319
The most important single indicator of TMD is...
Reduced amount of maximum opening
320
What is the cause of TMJ pain that starts from the rights side and radiates to the left?
Psychogenic
- true neuralgia doesn't radiate across the midline
- psychogenic pain can occur bilaterally
321
A patient has a bruxing habit with pain and crepitation what should be avoided?
Anterior positioning splint (should use a flat plane orthotic)
322
If a child is hit in the jaw where would the fracture occur?
Body fractures on the same side
| Subcondylar fracture on the contralateral side
323
How does condylar resorption present?
Facial asymmetry, anterior open bite, decreases ramus height, and progressive mandibular retrusion
324
What is the most common sign of anterior open bite?
Rheumatoid arthritis
325
A sudden change in occlusion, pain (parafunction), open bite, internal derangement is associated with...
Rheumatoid arthritis
326
What age group is condylar hypoplasia most common?
Early adult-late adolescent
327
Sardowsky and BeGole compared ortho treated group as adolescents 20 years ago and non-ortho malocclusion group and had the following conclusion concerning TMD?
Orthodontic treatment during adolescences did not generally increase or decrease the risk of developing TMD later in life
328
Pancherz's study of 22 growing patients with Cl II Div I treated with Herbst had the following findings..
- number of subjects with tenderness to palpation doubled during the initial 3 months of treatment
- after removing the appliances, most muscle symptoms disappeared and 12 months post-tx the number of subjects with symptoms was the same as pre-tx
329
Smith and Freer's study of orthodontic tx and TMD concluded...
there was no significant association btwn ortho tx and TMJ disfunction
-but higher rate of clicking in post-orho groups (64% compared to 36%)
330
Dibbets and Van der Weel's study of extraction and TMD concluded ...
Original growth pattern rather than extraction tx was most likely factor responsible for frequency of TMD reported many years post-tx
331
When studying Orthodontic tx. and TMD Larsson and Ronnerman concluded?
Extensive orthodontic treatment can be preformed without the fear of creating complications of TMD (suggest tx may possibly prevent TMD)
332
According to some studies, TMJ sounds are common in __% of the population including patients before orthodontic treatment.
25% (20-30%)
333
T/F Extraction therapy appears to be an iatrogenic cause of distally positioned condyles
False
334
A open bite patient with an anterior displaced disc on the left side deviates ...
deviated to the same side (left)
335
If a patient has disc displacement without reduction, what side the deviation will...
be towards the affected side
336
What sign is not seen in acute closed lock?
Joint sound (ADD without reduction)
337
The perception of TMJ pain is by which nerves?
Auriculotemporal and masseteric n.
338
Patient who develops an open bite and low shifting of the mandible to the right has...
right condylar resorption
339
Dislocation of the mandible can only occur in which direction?
Anterior
340
A Pt has a prolonged history of internal derangement and develops pain in the TMJ area. What is the assessment?
Posterior capsulitis
341
A Pt has an open lock. When moving the jaw to the left, she hears a click and is able to close her jaw. What is happening?
Posterior disc displacement on the left
342
A patient presents with an open lock that occurred when yawning. What is the cause?
Posterior disc displacement
343
Gorlick states the __% of orthodontic paitents have decalcification and should wait ___ before flouride treatment
50%, wait 2-3 months
344
Gorlick stated that ...% of patients developed WSL when using flouride rinse.
21%
345
What affect does flouride have on bond strength when applied to teeth prior to bonding?
Decreases bond strength
346
Research shows that the mean shear bond strength of bracket adhesive using Fluroide releasing etching gel is significantly ... than when using non-fluroidated gel
higher
347
Tarter contorl tooth paste reduces ...% of supragingival calculus due to the active ingredient ...
50%; pyrophosphate
348
Cooperation is more likely to be a problem in a patient with...
external motivation for seeking treatment
349
Adult patient who seeks orthodontic treatment tend to have..
a more positive self image than average
350
A patient swallows a band and is conscious and coughing, doctor should...
stay with the patient and encourage coughing
351
What types of occlusion cause speech impairment?
- Anterior open bite (distortion in lingual alveolar sounds - s,z, th)
- Class III (distortion in fricative - f,v)
352
What sounds can a patient with an anterior openbite not produce?
S, z, th (lingaul alveolar sounds)
353
Where and when was the first meeting in the ABO?
1929 Estes Park, Colorado
354
What appliances did Edward Angle invent?
```
PEER
Pin and tube
E arch
Edgewise
Ribbon arch
(not univeral)
```
355
What are the 4 major causes of malocclusion?
Drugs, habits, hereditary, endocrine imbalances
356
What is not usually a goal of adjunctive orthodontic treatment?
treating TMD
357
What is adjunctive orthodontic treatment?
Tooth movement carried out to facilitate other dental procedures
358
T/F Primary failure of eruption is more frequently seen in the anterior. When orthodontic force is applied, ankylosis often occurs with such teeth when extrusive force is placed on them.
F/T
359
T/F Hyperdivergence should be treated early. The phenotype is diagnosed early.
T/T
360
Openbite in primary dentition is predicated on what?
the phenotype doesn't self correct
361
What are skeletal characteristics of openbite?
high mandibular plan angle and antegonial notching
362
What percentage of openbites self correct?
80%
363
What percentage of young kids with anterior openbite are treated?
20%
364
The incidence of openbite malocclusion in post-pubertal age group...
decreases
365
T/F Contemporary research shows that tongue thrust swallow in early permanent dentition is more of an adaptation to openbite then the cause of it. Elimination of tongue thrust leads to spontaneous corrrection of openbite in the age group.
TF
366
A patient in mixed dentition with no speech problem ...
you do nothing
367
T/F VTO predictors are accurate and can be used in ortho tx planning. VTO soft tissue are accurate.
T/T
368
Little's study of relapse in extraction cases found...
- 2/3rd relapse of mandibular teeth within 10 years
- of those cases 30% had acceptable alignment after long term retention; 20% cases had poor crowding after retention stopped
- 1/3rd were clinically acceptable
369
What is the least likely to relapse?
COS (most stable)
370
Patient with rotated Mx incisors, deep bite, and large OJ. What is most likely to relapse after tx.
Rotation (order: rotation > deepbite > COS)
371
What is the normal intermolar width for adolescents and adults/
Adolescents 33-35 mm
| Adults 36-39 mm
372
What is the most important factor in creating a smile arc?
Bracket placement according to case evaluation
373
What are the soft tissue points for the vertical thirds
Trichion-glabella, glabella-subnasale, subnasale-menton
374
What is the ratio fo upper lip to soft tissue chin?
1:2
375
In a compelte nasal obstruction, there is an immediate change of head posture measured by an increase in craniofacial angle of about?
5 degrees
376
What is most associated with mandibular asymmetry in children?
Trauma
377
When finishing in class II by extraction of mx. Bi's, how do you rotate the first molar?
Mesially rotated molars when finishing in class II
378
A space discrepancy greater then ...mm ... requires extraction.
10 mm
| almost always
379
A space discrepancy of up to ...mm can usually be resolved without extraction of some teeth other then 3rd molars.
4 mm
380
What are the criteria for serial extractions
- no skeletal disproportion
- class I
- Normal overbite (but NOT mild arch perimeter deficiency)
381
The goal of serial extraction is...
to transfer incisor crowding posterior to PM extraction site
382
The key to success of serial extraction is to?
Extract premolars before canines erupt
383
Consider these criteria for untipping 2nd molars due to loss of first molar with presence of 3rd molars to see if you should extract 3rd molars.
- Presence of 3rd molars
- Pontic space needed
- distance of mandibular 3rd to ramus
384
Impaction of 3rd molars after orthodontic tx is associated with..
- vertical component of growth
- higher than usual mandibular plane angle
- Excessive ascending rami
- short mandibular body
385
What is the tooth in the md at age 8?
2nd premolar
386
What is a viable option when there's less tooth mass on the upper?
Md incisor extraction
387
Which arch form would more closely approximate normal position of 2nd and 3rd molars?
Brader arch form
388
What tooth provides the best anchorage based on bone density?
Mandibular 1st molars
389
What are possible reasons for a pt to have Class I on one side and Class II on the other side?
Skeletal asymmetry, arch asymmetry, midline discrepancy
390
Why is the Major cause of class I crowding not the early loss of dental material in the primary dentition?
Because the decrease in primary tooth loss due to fluorination in the US had little to no impact on the prevalence of malocclusion
391
A diastema less then ... mm will probably close spontaneously
2 mm
392
What is active stabilization?
the ability of the PDL to generate forcee contributing to the equilibrium situation
393
On an articulator, the chagne in AP is controlled by what?
Change in condylar angulation
394
What additional piece of information do you gather at a records appointment?
protrusive wax bite
395
Why would you not articulator mount an ortho cast of preadolescence?
The contour of the TMJ is not fully developed and non adult canine function
396
When treating a high angle female with cross bite with a bonded RPE when do you extract the supernumerary teeth in the mandible near the canines?
Before treatment
397
What is the most likely cause of tooth loss in ortho tx?
external root resorption
398
How long should an extruded tooth be retained?
6 months (due to oblique peridontal fibers)
399
What is the definition of ankylosis?
two mineralized surfaces fused together
400
What causes a midline diastema?
tooth size arch length discrepancy
401
What are the 3 types of arch forms
Bonwill-Hawley: Based on mathetical model
Catenary: based on pendulum swing
Brader trifocal: Based on trifocal eclipse
402
How does zinc phosphate used for ortho differ than restorative
Zinc phosphate for ortho is mixed thicker
403
Etching with 37% phosphoric acid for 30 seconds removes how much enamel?
3-10 microns
| 8-10 for 15 seconds
404
What is the safest and preferred site of failure when debonding brackets
Interface btwn the brackets and bonding materials
405
T/F Thermal debond is an alternative method to the usual technique. Ceramic brackets debonded by thermal means both more time and higher temperature required.
T/T
406
When debonding the force generate should be ...
shearing (not torque)
407
What should be used to sterilize heat sensitive instruments?
Vaporized H2O2 ( best answer if present, if not Ethyl alcohol)
408
What is the effect on achorage in patient with cermaic brackets 3-3 and metal posterior?
Anchorage loss (higher friction on ceramic vs. metal)
409
If a patient has a Nickel allergy what AW can be safely used?
TMA (SS and Elgiloy contain 8% nickel)
410
What are the most common causes of allergic reactions in orthodontic patients?
Nickel or latex
411
What type of AW shows the least resistance to deformation?
SS (most likely to have permanent deformation)
412
When comparing TMA to SS, TMA has ... the deflection.
double
413
What is the application of springback?
- ability to deform a wire and return to its original shape
| - wires resistance to permanent deformation
414
Wire Strength =
Strength = stiffness x range
415
What is wire strength relationship to springiness?
Springiness = 1/stiffness
416
What are asperities of an AW?
an area that actaully contacts along a wire, resulting in roughness on a wire where it binds
-NiTi > TMA > SS
417
At what point is permanent deformation first observed in elastic materials?
Proportional or elastic limit
418
What are the properties of an ideal orthodontic AW?
- high strength
- low stiffness-
- high range
- high formability
419
A typical SS AW is composed of ...% chromium and ...% nickel which impart the following properties..
18% chromium-prevents corrosion
| 8% nickel- flexibility
420
If you double the diameter of the wire, the strength increases/decreases by...
Increases by 8 times
| 2 times diameter = 8x strength, 1/16x springness, and 1/2x range
421
If you double the length of a finger spring, the force it delivers
decreases 1/2
| 2x length = 1/2 strength, 8x springiness, 4x range
422
Compared to SS, Ni has a ...load/deflection ratio, ... springback and ...formability
low; greater; low
423
When wire length is increased, what happens to the load deflection rate?
decrease deflection rate
424
What gives NiTi its properties?
Phase Transformation
425
Which AW gives NiTi a soft and gradual force?
Austenitic NiTi
426
The activation phase of superelastic NiTi involves what state?
SIM (stress induced Martensitic)
427
Heat treated Elgiloy has the same stiffness as..
SS (Prior to heat treating Elgiloy has greater formability than SS and after heat treating aka precipitation hardening, the strength is increased)
428
If chromium-cobalt is not heat treated, stiffness is?
same as SS; heat increases strength
429
What is Young's modulus of elasticity?
expressed in stress and strain curve, deflection and stiffness
430
T/F both functional and surgical patients show stable results over time.
True
431
Twin block therapy results in ...% skeletal and ...% dental changes.
55-61% skeletal
| 39-45% dental
432
What head gear results in the worst/poorest vertical control anchorage?
Cervical pull
433
How do you counter the effects of molar tip back bend with HPHG?
Use short outer bow, force must be mesial to CR
434
HPHG is not good for what type of bite?
Deepbite
435
Cervical HG results in...
- Palatal plane tip
| - Mandible rotates backwards
436
In order to translate the molar how should a cervical HG be adjusted?
Bend outerbow up
437
Using cervical HG, where is the outerbow placed to prevent distal tipping of the crown?
Above CR (gingival)
438
How do you prevent molar crown tipping with Kloehn type cervical headgear?
Lifting outbow gingivally
439
When using Kloehn type cervical headgear what is the affect on the molar with the bow bent lower then the occlusal plane?
produce distal movement with extrusion of the crown by moving the roots to a larger arch
440
When using asymmetric head-gear what side do you want in order to distalize the molar? (the class II side)
-longer bow and positioned away from the cheek
441
In order to distalize the Mx. right moalr with asymmetric headgear you must do what?
Cut the left bow short
442
When using unilateral HG to correct Class II molar on the right side, a possible side effect would be developing crossbite on which side?
Lateral forces are directed towards the short outerbow; right side would have lingual crossbite and left side buccal crossbite)
443
What is a side effect of asymmetric headgear use?
- Lingual crossbite on the long bow side
| - buccal crossbite on the short bow side
444
What ist the ideal time for facemask therapy?
Early = more orthopedic effect, prior to loss of deciduous molars
445
What are the effects of facemask therapy?
-Max skeletal protration
-foward movement of max dentition
-set back of bony menton
-lingual tipping of lower incisors
increase in facial height (extruction of upper molars limits the use of face-mask on Class III vertical facial excess pt)
446
Facemask therapy is contraindicated in patients with ...upper incisors
proclined
447
What occurs as a result of Short class II elastics?
Steeper occlusal plane (more vertical force)
448
What are the effects of Class II elastics?
- move maxilla back
- erupt lower molars and upper incisors
- position lower jaw forward
- tip occlusal plane
- DO NOT deepen/close bite
449
What are the effects of Classs III elastics?
- Max incisors procline
- lower incisors retroclined
- counterclockwise
450
When using a lip bumper ...% of expansion is achieved in the frist 100 days, ...% in the next 100 and finally ...% by day 300.
50%, 40%, and 10%
451
What are the effects of lip bumper therapy?
- 45-55% incisor proclination
- 35-50% molar distalization and distal tipping
- 5-10% transverse increase in intercanine and decidous molar/premoarl distance
452
Gingival cleft is seen as a side effect in ...
Orthopedic maxillary expansion
453
A greater incidence of dehiscence in adult patient is seen with ...
RPE
454
What are the effects of maxillary expansion in a patient without crossbite?
- transverse expansion of maxilla and mandible
| - significant increase in mandibular arch to correct 3-4 mm of crowding
455
A 1mm maxillary intermolar width increase results in a ...mm intermolar, ...mm premolar and ..mm canine increase of he mandible
0.25mm intermolar
0.5 mm premolars
1mm canine
456
A 1mm maxillary intermolar width increase results in a ...mm increase of maxillary premolars and and molars.
0.7 mm
457
The greatest increase in arch perimeter is achieved by what applicance?
RPE
458
Where is palatal expansion more pronounced?
anterior and inferior
459
Following expansion how long does it take to re-establish the midpalatal suture?
4-6 months
460
What limits the expansion provided by RPE therpy?
-Zygomatic arch
-Coronoid process
-Area of resistance by Suri
+Anterior - periform apeture
+lateral - zygomatic buttress
+posterior - pterygoid juntcion
+Medial - medial palatal synotosed suture
461
Maximum expansion is limited by?
the Pterygoid plate
462
Opening an RPE 0.5mm/day, you notice the teeth are moving mesially, what happening?
Normal
463
When using an RPE whats is its affect on A point?
Move slightly downward and forward
464
In mixed dentition patients treated with arch length expansion results in
the loss of arch length in the majority of cases until arch length is less then pretreatment arch length
465
A patient started w/ signification lower crowding, when you remove retention what occurs?
arch length and arch perimeter decrease
466
What happens following expansion across the canines?
It is prone to relapse
467
What are the sequela of inadequate mandibular lingal crown torque?
- create crossbite
| - elongation of lingual cusps
468
When the distance between to magnets decreases by 50%, force increases by...
400% (1/d)^2
469
Pure rotation is a ... order bend
```
1st order (pure rotation, in/out )
2nd order (vertical)
3rd (torque)
```
470
When using a traditional edgewise appliance why are 1st order bends are needed?
compensation for BL thickness of teeth
471
The duration threshold of a light force capable of producing tooth moment is ...
4-6 hrs/day
472
The physiologic response to sustained pressure against a tooth requires ... of force application for tooth movement to begin.
48 hours
473
IN SWA, what happens to canine roots when the wire is engaged in the brackets?
Move distally
474
The normal eruptive force of a tooth is estimated at...
2-10 grams
475
What movements of a canine can be achieved with a force of 35-60 grams?
Tipping, rotation, extrusion
476
The optimum force to retract a caine is?
100-150 grams (70-120 gr profitt)
477
The average force to intrude maxillary incisors is...
20 g (10-20 profitt)
478
In order to have a bodily movement you need...
A force and counter moment
479
When retracting the canines how do you minimize tipping?
Maximize intrabracket moments
480
What is a parallel force in the opposite direction?
a couple
481
What happens to friction in sliding mechanics when forces are parallel to the archwire?
Decrease
482
Where should a Helices be located in an AW to decrease the force?
area of largest bending moement
483
What is stationary achorage?
Bodily movement of dental units on one side of the TE site and tipping of dental units on the other sid
484
What defines the Anchorage value of a tooth?
- root surface area
- PDL area
- tooth inclincation relative to the force
485
In a 0.022 slot size system, the maximum slot size dimension is?
0.022 x 0.028
486
What type of resorption is associated with autotransplantation?
External resorption
487
What Orthognathic surgery most likely to cause post-op TMJ sounds suchas popping and crepitation?
mandibular advancement
488
How do you minimize the md growth in a 16 yo pt when doing orthognathic surgery?
serial ceph until no growth for 1 year
489
What surgery is best for mandibular advancement?
BSSO
490
What must be accomplished presurgically if the pt is to have a mandibular advancement only?
- maximum retraction of lower incisors
| - extraction of lower 4's
491
According to the Bailey study, what postsurgical change is most likely to be observed in class II pt with mandibular advancement and open bite correction?
Long term increase in OB
492
What is the most unstable sugical procedure?
Mx. Transverse expansion
| Mx. downgragy (according to profitt)
493
What is the most stable sugical procedure?
Maxillary impaction/superior positioning of the maxilla
494
According to Bailey, a Highly stable surgical result is less then ...% chance of signficant post-treatment change
10%
495
According to Bailey, a stable surgical result is less then ...% chance of signficant post-treatment change
20%
496
Downward movement of the maxilla is considered ... according to Bailey.
Problematic (considerable probaility of major post-treatment change)
497
According to Bailey Asymmetry surgeries are considered ...
Stable if modified in a specific way
498
According to Bailey superior repostionting of the maxilla is...
highly stable
499
According to Bailey advancement of the maxilla up to 8mm is considered...
Stable
500
According to Bailey forward maxilla foward and mandible back is...
stable if modified in a specific way
501
According to Bailey surgical repositioning of the chin via lower border osteotomy is...
highly stable
502
According to Bailey a mandibular setback is...
problematic
503
Most stable surgeries according to Bailey
Mx. impaction > Ms. forward > Mx. Forward
504
Least stable surgeries according to Bailey
Mx. transverse expansion > Mx. Down > Md. retraction
505
In surgical tx of class II open bite via bilateral maxillary posterior intrusion, relapse is minimized by...
Passive repositiong of the segments during surgery
506
What is the surgical treatment for a Class III open bite patient?
Mx. advancement with Mx. Posterior intrusion and Md. set back
507
Following distraction osteogenesis, how long do you wait prior to activation?
allow 5-7 days (latency period)
508
how does symphysis distraction affect the condyles?
- buccal tipping of the condlyles (3 degress of distolateral rotation)
- Distraction doesn't cause bucall tipping of posterior segments
509
The maxilla can be overimpacted by...
- poor planning
- lack of boney contact
- increase in masticatory function
510
What are the 2 deletorious effects of maxillary impaction?
- nasal tip goes up
| - ala base widens
511
If planning a Mx. impaction on a hyperdivergent pt. with Class I what else should be considered?
Mx. advancement or Md. reduction
512
Lefort I osteotomy with Ortho tx. is used to treat?
mx. intrusion, widening of the palate, correction of asymmetry, closing anterior open bite
513
What procedure is rarely necessary when performing Le Forte I down fracture?
Partial resection of Inf turbinates
514
What is the ratio of the amount of bony vs soft tissue advancement in an advancement genioplasty?
1:1
515
When do you not level COS pre-surgically?
- Brachyfacial, short lower facial height, deep bite
| - Brachy pt. level COS after surgery
516
In what type of surgery, is leveling the Mx. and Md. not needed?
3 pieces maxilla
517
A gingival graft is often required before the genioplasty procedure because?
incision line for genioplasty can stress gingival attachemtn as healing process lead to recession
518
Which genioplasty is considered the current best approach for chin augmentation?
lower border osteotomy
519
what is the complication associated with split sagittal osteotomy?
condylar sagging and post surgical trismus
520
What are the advantages of mandibular setback using BSSO
- excellent control of condylar segments
- osteosynthesis screws can be employed for fixation
- early mobilization of the jaw
521
What is the extraction pattern in a Class II pt which has mild-moderate crowding in both arches and retruded mandible to prepare them for surgery?
Lower 4's, upper 5's and 8's
522
What is the advantage of Transoral vertical oblique ramus osteotomy (TVORO)?
required less time than BSSO w/ lower incidence of neurosensory changes
523
What are the common post-op occlusal problems in patients who have combined surgical and ortho tx. for mandibular excess
-Posterior open bite bilaterally, imediately after removing the fixation
524
What is one reason not to extract teeth prior to surgery?
a transverse issue
525
What type of bone cannot be used in ridge augmentation?
Hydroxyapetite?
526
A Mx. down fracture has what affect on growth?
AP growth is inhibited and vertical continues as normal
527
What surgical procedure does not require mounted models?
SARPE
528
What type of radiograph is used to evaulte the perio condition of the posterior teeth?
Vertical bitewing
529
What ist he function of the fluid of the PDL space?
acts as a shock absorber
530
What does not cause Periodontal disease?
Occlusion
531
Amoung the population of adult ortho pts w/ perio disease what percentage of pts show rapid progression of the disease? Show moderate progression? and Show no progression?
10% show rapid progression
89% show moderate progression
10% show no progression
532
What bacteria cuases bone loss during ortho tx?
Bacteriocides gingivalis
533
What bacteria causes juvenile periodontitis?
AA (actinobacilus actinomycetemcomitans)
534
What is released when the PDL is broken down?
IL-1, 2, 6, 8, PGE 2, IFN gamma, TNF alpha = proinflammatory
535
Why do pts with active periodontitis have more bone loos with ortho treatment?
- osteoblasts cannot function in inflammatory environment
| - more osteoclastic activity
536
T/F Excessive tooth movement doesn't occur in most ortho tx.
T
537
Which teeth show the most root resoprtion?
Max Laterals (U2>U1>U3>L1>L2>L3)
538
Which gingival dibers are most responsible for relapse?
Supracrestal fibers
