Tumors of the Small and Large Intestines Flashcards

1
Q

The small intestine is an uncommon site for benign or malignant tumors despite its great length and its vast pool of dividing mucosal cells. True or false?

A

True.

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2
Q

What is a polyp?

A

A polyp is a mass that protrudes into the lumen of the gut; traction on the mass may create a stalked, or pedunculated, polyp. Alternatively, the polyp may be sessile, without a definable stalk.

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3
Q

What are juvenile polyps?

A

They are essentially hamartomatous proliferations, mainly of the lamina propria, enclosing widely spaced, dilated cystic glands. They occur most frequently in children younger than 5 years old but also are found in adults of any age; in the latter group they may be called retention polyps.

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4
Q

The colon, including the rectum, is host to more primary neoplasms than any other organ in the body. True or false?

A

True.

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5
Q

What are the four subtypes of adenomatous polyps?

A
  1. Tubular adenomas – mostly tubular glands, recapitulating mucosal topology
  2. Villous adenomas – villous projections
  3. Tubulovillous adenomas – a mixture of the above
  4. Sessile serrated adenomas – serrated epithelium lining the crypts
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5
Q

Maximum diameter is the chief determinant of the risk of an adenoma’s harboring carcinoma; architecture does not provide substantive independent information.

A

True.

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6
Q

How do the different types of adenoma present clinically?

A

The smaller adenomas are usually asymptomatic, until such time that occult bleeding leads to clinically significant anemia. Villous adenomas are much more frequently symptomatic because of overt or occult rectal bleeding. The most distal villous adenomas may secrete sufficient amounts of mucoid material rich in protein and potassium to produce hypoproteinemia or hypokalemia. All adenomas, regardless of their location in the alimentary tract, are to be considered potentially malignant.

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7
Q

How many colonic adenomas do individuals with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) typically develop?

A

500-2500 colonic adenomas; a minimum number of 100 is required for the diagnosis. Also, individuals with FAP exhibit an almost 100% lifetime incidence of duodenal adenomas. The risk of colonic cancer is virtually 100% by midlife, unless a prophylactic colectomy is performed.

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8
Q

Which genetic defect underlies FAP?

A

The genetic defect underlying FAP has been localized to the APC gene on chromosome 5q21.

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9
Q

Which other cancer syndromes seem to share the same genetic defect as FAP?

A

Gardner syndrome and the much rarer Turcot syndrome. These syndromes differ from FAP with respect to the occurrence of extra-intestinal tumors in the latter two: osteomas, gliomas, and soft tissue tumors, to name a few.

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10
Q

What are Peutz-Jeghers polyps?

A

Peutz-Jeghers polyps are uncommon hamartomatous polyps that occur as part of the rare autosomal dominant Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, characterized in addition by melanotic mucosal and cutaneous pigmentation.

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11
Q

What is the genetic lesion responsible for Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

A

The syndrome is caused by germ-line mutations in the LKB1 gene, which encodes a serine threonine kinase.

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12
Q

What is Cowden syndrome and mutations in which gene cause it?

A

Cowden syndrome is characterized by hamartomatous polyps in the GI tract and by an increased risk of neoplasms of the thyroid, breast, uterus, and skin. This syndrome is caused by germ-line mutations in the PTEN (phosphatase and tensin homologue) tumor suppressor gene.

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13
Q

What is the function of the PTEN gene product?

A

PTEN, mutated in a large number of human cancers, encodes a phosphatase that has the ability to regulate many intracellular signaling pathways. It acts as a growth inhibitor by interrupting signals from several tyrosine kinase receptors (e.g., epidermal growth factor receptor) and by favoring apoptosis through the BAD/BCL2 pathways.

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14
Q

What is hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer syndrome (HNPCC, also known as Lynch syndrome)?

A

HNPCC is caused by germ-line mutations of DNA mismatch repair genes. Individuals affected by this syndrome are at a high risk of developing colorectal cancers and other tumors such as cholangiocarcinomas.

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15
Q

Why is a diet low in fiber thought to contribute to increased colon cancer risk?

A

It is theorized that reduced fiber content leads to decreased stool bulk, increased fecal retention in the bowel, and an altered bacterial flora of the intestine. Potentially toxic oxidative byproducts of carbohydrate degradation by bacteria are therefore present in higher concentrations in the stool and are held in contact with the colonic mucosa for longer periods of time. Moreover, high fat intake enhances the synthesis of cholesterol and bile acids by the liver, which in turn may be converted into potential carcinogens by intestinal bacteria. Refined diets also contain less of vitamins A, C, and E, which may act as oxygen radical scavengers.

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16
Q

How are aspirin and other NSAIDs thought to exert a protective effect against colon cancer?

A

It is suspected that this effect is via inhibition of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2). This enzyme is overexpressed in 90% of colorectal carcinoma and 40% to 90% of adenomas. How COX-2 promotes carcinogenesis is not clear. Some of its effects may be mediated by production of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2), which seems to favor epithelial cell proliferation, inhibit apoptosis, and enhance angiogenesis. PGE2 may promote angiogenesis by enhancing production of vascular endothelial growth factor.

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17
Q

Which two pathogenically distinct pathways are believed to be responsible for the development of colon cancer?

A
  1. APC/β-catenin pathway ( or the adenoma-carcinoma sequence)
  2. Mismatch repair (or microsatellite instability) pathway
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18
Q

Describe the adenoma-carcinoma sequence.

A

Initially, there is localized epithelial proliferation. This is followed by the formation of small adenomas that progressively enlarge, become more dysplastic, and ultimately develop into invasive cancers. Such an adenoma-carcinoma sequence accounts for about 80% of sporadic colon tumors.

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19
Q

List the genetic correlates of the adenoma-carcinoma sequence.

A
  1. Loss of the APC tumor suppressor gene. This is believed to be the earliest event in the formation of adenomas.
  2. Mutation of K-RAS. Mutated RAS is trapped in an activated state that delivers mitotic signals and prevents apoptosis.
  3. 18q21 deletion. Loss of a putative cancer suppressor gene on 18q21 has been found in 60% to 70% of colon cancers. Three genes have been mapped to this chromosome location: DCC (deleted in colon carcinoma), SMAD2, and SMAD4.
  4. Loss of p53. Loss of this tumor suppressor gene is noted in 70% to 80% of colon cancers.
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20
Q

What is the link between the functions of the APC protein and those of β-catenin?

A

Normal APC promotes the degradation of β-catenin; with loss of APC function, the accumulated β-catenin translocates to the nucleus and activates the transcription of several genes, such as MYC and cyclin D1, which promote cell proliferation.

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21
Q

What do the SMAD genes encode?

A

They encode components of the transforming growth factor β (TGF-β) signaling pathway. Because TGF-β signaling normally inhibits the cell cycle, the loss of these genes may allow unrestrained cell growth.

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22
Q

Inherited mutations in which genes give rise to HNPCC?

A

Inherited mutations in one of five DNA mismatch repair genes (MSH2, MSH6, MLH1, PMS1, and PMS2) give rise to HNPCC. Of these, MLH1 and MSH2 are the ones most commonly involved in HNPCC-derived and sporadic colon carcinomas with DNA mismatch repair gene defects.

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23
Q

What is the consequence of loss of DNA mismatch repair genes?

A

Such loss leads to a hypermutable state in which simple repetitive DNA sequences, called microsatellites, are unstable during DNA replication, giving rise to widespread alterations in these repeats. The resulting microsatellite instability (MSI) is the molecular signature of defective DNA mismatch repair.

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24
Q

Most microsatellite sequences are in noncoding regions of genes. True or false?

A

True. However, some microsatellite sequences are located in the coding or promoter region of genes involved in regulation of cell growth. Such genes include type II TGF-β receptor and BAX. TGF-β signaling inhibits the growth of colonic epithelial cells, and the BAX gene product causes apoptosis. Loss of mismatch repair leads to the accumulation of mutations in these and other growth-regulating genes, culminating in the emergence of colorectal carcinomas.

25
Q

What does it mean for carcinomas to be described as exophytic?

A

It means that such carcinomas tend to grow outward beyond the surface epithelium from which they originate.

26
Q

Describe the morphologic features of carcinomas present at different sites in the colon.

A

Tumors in the proximal colon tend to grow as polypoid, exophytic masses that extend along one wall of the capacious cecum and ascending colon. Obstruction is uncommon. When carcinomas in the distal colon are discovered, they tend to be annular, encircling lesions that produce so-called napkin-ring constrictions of the bowel and narrowing of the lumen; the margins of the napkin ring are classically heaped up. Cancers of the anal zone are predominantly squamous cell in origin.

27
Q

List the criteria used for TNM staging of colon cancers.

A

Tumor (T)
T0 = none evident
Tis = in situ (limited to mucosa)
T1 = invasion of lamina propria or submucosa
T2 = invasion of muscularis propria
T3 = invasion through muscularis propria into subserosa or nonperitonealized perimuscular tissue
T4 = invasion of other organs or structures

Lymph nodes (N)
N0 = none evident
N1 = 1 to 3 positive pericolic nodes
N2 = 4 or more positive pericolic nodes
N3 = any positive node along a named blood vessel
Distant metastases (M)
M0 = none evident
M1 = any distant metastasis
28
Q

How are cecal and right colonic cancers most often called to clinical attention?

A

By the appearance of fatigue, weakness, and iron deficiency anemia. Left-sided lesions, on the other hand, may produce occult bleeding, changes in bowel habit, or crampy left lower quadrant discomfort.

29
Q

How are colorectal neoplasms detected and diagnosed?

A

The detection and diagnosis of colorectal neoplasms rely on a variety of methods, beginning with digital rectal examination and fecal testing for occult blood loss. Barium enema, sigmoidoscopy, and colonoscopy require confirmatory biopsy for diagnosis. Computed tomography and other radiographic studies are usually used to assess metastatic spread. Serum markers for disease, such as elevated blood levels of carcinoembryonic antigen, are of little diagnostic value, because they reach significant levels only after the tumor has achieved considerable size and has very probably spread. Because APC mutations occur early in most colon cancers, molecular detection of APC mutations in epithelial cells, isolated from stools, is being evaluated as a diagnostic test.

30
Q

Which conditions may produce “positive” carcinoembryonic antigen levels?

A

Carcinomas of the lung, breast, ovary, urinary bladder, and prostate, as well as such non-neoplastic disorders as alcoholic cirrhosis, pancreatitis, and ulcerative colitis.

31
Q

What is the single most important prognostic indicator of colorectal carcinoma?

A

The extent (stage) of the tumor at the time of diagnosis.

32
Q

Whereas the small bowel represents 75% of the length of the alimentary tract, its tumors account for only 3% to 6% of GI tumors. True or false?

A

True.

33
Q

In which portion of the small bowel do most carcinomas arise and how do these lesions typically present?

A

Most small bowel carcinomas arise in the duodenum (including the ampulla of Vater). Cramping pain, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss are the common presenting signs and symptoms.

34
Q

How do adenomas of the small intestine typically present?

A

With anemia or rarely intussusception or obstruction. Adenomas in the immediate vicinity of the ampulla of Vater may produce biliary obstruction causing jaundice.

35
Q

With the use of immunohistochemical markers, gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs) are now subdivided into…

A
  1. Tumors that show smooth muscle cell differentiation (the most common type)
  2. Tumors with neural differentiation (often called gastrointestinal autonomic nerve tumors)
  3. Tumors with smooth muscle/neural dual differentiation
  4. Tumors lacking differentiation toward these lineages
36
Q

In which gene do most GISTs have a somatic mutation?

A

Most GISTs have a somatic mutation in the c-KIT (CD117) gene, which encodes a tyrosine kinase receptor. Mutations in this receptor (generally in exon 11) lead to constitutive signaling from the receptor, without the need for a ligand.

37
Q

Which drug is used in the medical management of GISTs?

A

The tyrosine kinase inhibitor imatinib mesylate, shown to be highly effective in the treatment of individuals with chronic myeloid leukemia, has been used very successfully in the treatment of GISTs that have a c-KIT mutation.

38
Q

Any segment of the GI tract may be involved secondarily by systemic dissemination of…

A

non-Hodgkin lymphomas.

39
Q

The gut is the most common extra-nodal location from which lymphomas arise. True or false?

A

True.

40
Q

What is the most common form of intestinal tract lymphoma in Western countries?

A

MALT lymphoma. This is a sporadic lymphoma that originates in B cells of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) of the GI tract.

41
Q

Which bacterial infection is associated with gastric MALT lymphomas?

A

Gastric MALT lymphomas arise in the setting of mucosal lymphoid activation, as a result of Helicobacter-associated chronic gastritis. With H. pylori infection, there is an intense activation of T and B cells in the mucosa. This leads to polyclonal B-cell hyperplasia and eventually to the emergence of a monoclonal B-cell neoplasm.

42
Q

Which cell surface markers and chromosomal abnormalities are observed among MALT lymphoma cells?

A

MALT lymphoma cells are CD5 and CD10 negative, and a t(11;18) translocation is common (the translocation creates a fusion between the apoptosis inhibitor BCL-2 gene in chromosome 11 and the MLT gene in chromosome 18).

43
Q

How are gastric MALT lymphomas treated medically?

A

About 50% of such lymphomas can regress with antibiotic treatment for H. pylori. Those that do not regress usually contain the t(11;18) translocation or other genetic abnormalities.

44
Q

Celiac disease is associated with a higher than normal risk of…

A

intestinal T-cell lymphomas.

45
Q

What are carcinoid tumors and from which organs do these tumors typically arise?

A

Tumors arising from neuroendocrine cells are called carcinoid tumors; they may develop in the pancreas or peripancreatic tissue, lungs, biliary tree, small and large intestines, and even liver.

46
Q

Appendiceal and rectal carcinoids infrequently metastasize. True or false?

A

True.

47
Q

What is the most common site of gut carcinoid tumors?

A

The appendix is the most common site of gut carcinoid tumors, followed by the small intestine (primarily ileum), rectum, stomach, and colon.

48
Q

Describe the gross anatomic features commonly observed in carcinoid tumors.

A

A characteristic feature is a solid, yellow-tan appearance on transection. The tumors are exceedingly firm because of desmoplasia; and when these fibrosing lesions penetrate the mesentery of the small bowel they may cause sufficienct angulation or kinking to cause obstruction.

49
Q

Most carcinoids can be shown to contain which molecules?

A

Chromogranin A, synaptophysin, and neuron-specific enolase. Also, specific hormonal peptides may occasionally be identified by immunocytochemical techniques.

50
Q

Gastric, peripancreatic, and pancreatic carcinoids release their products directly into the systemic circulation and can therefore produce which syndromes/endocrinopathies?

A
  1. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome caused by excess elaboration of gastrin
  2. Cushing syndrome caused by adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion
  3. Hyperinsulinism
51
Q

Most manifestations of carcinoid syndrome are thought to arise from…

A

elaboration of serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine [5-HT]). Elevated levels of 5-HT and its metabolite, 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) are present is the blood and urine of most individuals with the classic syndrome.

52
Q

Which organ is responsible for degrading 5-HT to functionally inactive 5-HIAA?

A

The liver. Thus, with gastrointestinal carcinoids, hepatic dysfunction resulting from metastases must be present for the development of carcinoid syndrome.

53
Q

What are some of the clinical features of carcinoid syndrome?

A
  1. Vasomotor disturbances – cutaneous flushes and apparent cyanosis (most patients)
  2. Intestinal hypermotility – diarrhea, cramps, nausea, vomiting (most patients)
  3. Asthmatic bronchoconstrictive attacks – cough, wheezing, dyspnea (about one-third of patients)
  4. Hepatomegaly – nodular, related to hepatic metastases (some cases)
  5. Niacin deficiency – due to shunting of niacin to serotonin synthesis
  6. Systemic fibrosis
  7. Cardiac involvement – pulmonic and tricuspid valve thickening and stenosis; endocardial fibrosis, principally in right ventricle (bronchial carcinoids affect the left side)
  8. Retroperitoneal and pelvic fibrosis
  9. Collagenous pleural and intimal aortic plaques
54
Q

What is the most common cause of appendiceal inflammation?

A

Appendiceal inflammation is associated with obstruction in 50-80% of cases, usually in the form of a fecalith and, less commonly, a gallstone, tumor, or ball of worms (Oxyuriasis vermicularis).

55
Q

The classic case of appendicitis is marked by…

A
  1. Mild periumbilical discomfort, followed by
  2. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, soon associated with
  3. Right lower quadrant tenderness, which in the course of hours is transformed into
  4. A deep constant ache or pain in the right lower quadrant

Fever and leukocytosis appear early in the course.

56
Q

Which disorders may present with many of the clinical features of acute appendicitis?

A
  1. Mesenteric lymphadenitis after a viral systemic infection
  2. Gastroenteritis with mesenteric adentitis
  3. Pelvic inflammatory disease with tubo-ovarian involvement
  4. Rupture of an ovarian follicle at the time of ovulation
  5. Ectopic pregnancy
  6. Meckel diverticulitis
57
Q

It is generally conceded that it is better to occasionally resect a normal appendix than to risk the morbidity and mortality (approximately 2%) of appendiceal perforation. True or false?

A

True.

58
Q

What is the most common type of tumor to arise from the appendix?

A

Carcinoids are the most common tumors in the appendix.

59
Q

What is a mucocele?

A

Mucocele refers to dilation of the lumen of the appendix by mucinous secretion. It is caused by non-neoplastic obstruction of the lumen and is usually associated with a fecalith in the lumen, permitting the slow accumulation of sterile mucinous secretions. Eventually, the distention induces atrophy of the mucin-secreting mucosal cells and the secretions stop. This condition is usually asymptomatic; rarely, a mucocele ruptures, spilling otherwise innocuous mucin into the peritoneum.

60
Q

Describe the spectrum of mucinous neoplasms arising from the appendix.

A

Mucinous neoplasms range from the benign mucinous cystadenoma, to mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, which invades the wall, to a form of disseminated intraperitoneal cancer called pseudomyxoma peritonei.

61
Q

What is the histologic criterion for the diagnosis of acute appendicitis?

A

Neutrophilic infiltration of the muscularis propria. Usually, neutrophils and ulcerations are also present within the mucosa.