Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neuro MSK > Tumors and Infections > Flashcards

Tumors and Infections Flashcards

1
Q

primary vs secondary tumors

A

primary - from the CNS
secondary - metastatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the most common cancer types in children?

A

brain and CNS tumors
(2nd most frequent cause of death)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

are most CNS tumors primary or secondary?

A

secondary - metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what CNS tumors are seen in adults?

A

megingioma
gliobastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

70% of tumors in children are located where?

A

posterior fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

70% of tumors in adults are located where?

A

cerebral hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

sx of tumor in posterior fossa

A

ataxia, HA, increased ICP, CN sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

generalized CNS tumor sx are related to

A

increased ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

sx of frontal lobe tumors (31%)

A

clinically silent
personality changes
non-fluent aphasia (dominant)
urinary frequency & urgency
seizures
hemiparesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

sx of temporal lobe tumors (32%)

A

seizures
memory disturbance
superior quadrantanopia
fluent aphasia (dominant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sx of temporoparietal lobe tumors (7%)

A

fluent aphasia (dominant)
or conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sx of occipital parietal lobe tumors (5%)

A

homonymous hemianopsia
visual seizures
visual agnosias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

sx of frontoparietal lobe tumors (11%)

A

hemiparesis
hemisensory loss
non-fluent aphasia (dominant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

sx of parietal lobe tumors (10%)

A

hemisensory loss
non-fluent aphasia (dominant)
hemineglect (nondominant)
anosognosia (nondominant)
hemiparesis
homonymous hemianopsia or visual neglect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

sx of increased ICP

A

HA
nausea
papilledema (MD look at fundus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how do increased ICP HAs present?

A

dull
worse in AM
worse with bending over
seen in 50% of pts with brain tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the Monro-Kellie doctrine?

A

sum of volume of CSF, blood, and brain is constant in enclosed hard skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what structure plays a key role in herniation syndromes?

A

dural septa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which artery is compressed with cingulate herniations?

A

ACA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what structures are affect in uncal herniation?

A

hippocampus and uncus
pushed down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

sx of uncal herniation

A

ipsilateral fixed and dilated pupil (CN III)
impaired consciousness
hemiparesis
PCA infarcts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

sx of uncal herniations are due to pressure on

A

tentorial notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is compressed with tonsilar herniations?

A

4th ventricle
medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

sx of tonsilar herniation

A

stiff neck
progresses to decerebrate posture and coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the optimal diagnostic tool to use for CNS tumors?

A

MRI w/wo contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which spinal tumors arise from primitive cells?

A

medulloblastomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

list glioma classification in order form best to worst prognosis

A

1) pilocytic astrocytoma
2) low grade astrocytoma
3) anaplastic astrocytoma
4) glioblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

astrocytomas usually present with (sx)

A

HA and seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

favorable prognosis factors for astrocytoma

A

younger age
seizure as only sx
smaller tumor size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

sx of glioblastoma

A

focal signs
cognitive changes
increased ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what meds can be given to reduced ICP?

A

steroids
(dexamethasone, mannitol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F: glioblastomas usually always return

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what can indicate the tumor is back for glioblastomas?

A

new seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how can medulloblastoma cause hydrocephalus?

A

block the 4th ventricle

35
Q

what population is medulloblastoma seen in?

A

children

36
Q

____ metastases have a worse prognosis for medulloblastoma

A

extracranial

37
Q

what is the most common primary brain tumor?

A

meningiomas

38
Q

meningiomas arise from ____ cells

A

arachnoid

39
Q

are meningiomas benign or malignant?

A

benign

40
Q

what are primary sites that metastasize to the CNS?

A

lung (50%)
breast (15%)
melanoma (10%)
GI, prostate, ovary (10%)

41
Q

what radiologic marker is a sign of metastatic disease?

A

multiple masses at gray/white junction

42
Q

sx of spinal mets

A

back pain
tenderness
B paraparesis
incontinence

43
Q

list the spinal levels in order of most likely to have mets to least

A

thoracic
lumbar
cervical

44
Q

what factor plays a significant role in prognosis for spinal metastatic disease?

A

ambulation
(not = bad)

45
Q

what structures are involved with leptomeningeal mets (SC)?

A

basal cisterns
cauda equina

46
Q

what type of disorder is polymyositis and dermatomyositis?

A

paraneoplastic disordes

47
Q

meningitis sx

A

fever, chills
HA
neck pain
generalized convulsions
drowsiness/confusion
infants: fontanels buldging, vomiting, irritability

48
Q

what test look for signs of meningeal issues?

A

Kernig’s sign (flex hip to 90 then extend knee)
Brudzinski’s sign (flex neck –> hip and knee flexion)

49
Q

are arteries or veins more effected by bacterial meningitis?

A

veins

50
Q

how does CSF change in bacterial meningitis?

A

increased pressure
increased WBC
increased protein
decreased glucose
bacteria on gram stain

51
Q

ideally a treatment should be started within _____ of suspecting meningitis

A

6 hours

52
Q

T/F: acute meningitis is a medical emergency

A

T!!!

53
Q

meds for bacterial meningitis

A

antibiotics
steroids

54
Q

which neuro disease’s meds puts pts at risk for meningococcal meningitis?

A

myasthenia gravis

55
Q

what is a telling sx of meningococcal meningitis?

A

rash

56
Q

what is a common cause of viral meningitis?

A

enterovirus (most common)
Herpes Simplex virus

57
Q

sx of acute encephalitis

A

fever
impaired consciousness
seizures
hemiparesis
ataxia
CN palsies

58
Q

what viruses cause acute encephalitis?

A

enterovirus
arbovirus

59
Q

what is the most serious encephalitis?

A

herpes simplex virus encephalitis

60
Q

which type of herpes is usually the cause of herpes simplex virus encephalitis?

A

type 1

61
Q

what lobes are mainly effected by herpes simplex virus encephalitis?

A

temporal and frontal

62
Q

med to treat herpes simplex virus encephalitis

A

IV Acyclovir

63
Q

sx of TB meningitis

A

gradual onset
CN palsies
hydrocephalus
stroke

64
Q

subdural empyema usually arises from

A

diseases of the sinuses or middle ear

65
Q

which veins are affected in subdural emphysema?

A

meningeal

66
Q

sx of subdural empyema

A

generalized HA
fever
focal seizures
hemiparesis
hemisensory loss

67
Q

brain abscess occurs when there is ____ of brain tissue along with _____ infection

A

necrosis
bacterial

68
Q

tx for brain abscess

A

aspiration
broad-spectrum antibiotics

69
Q

early meningitis occurs _____ after infection

A

6-12 months

70
Q

meningovascular syphilis occurs _____ after primary infection

A

5-12 years

71
Q

initial sx of Lyme disease

A

fever
HA
fatigue
rash (erythema migrans)

72
Q

later (weeks to months) sx of Lyme disease

A

meningitis
CN palsies (Bell’s - CN 7)
radiculopathy
neuropathy
cardiac disease

73
Q

which type of infection in more common bacterial or fungal?

A

bacterial

74
Q

what is the most common fungal infection in the US?

A

cryptococcosis

75
Q

which fungal infection is common with DM?

A

mucormycosis
(can cause stroke)

76
Q

shingles sx

A

radicular pain
vesicular eruption in DERMATOMAL PATTERN

77
Q

a PNS sx of COVID is

A

Guillon Barre

78
Q

sx of prion disease

A

rapid progression
fatal w/i 1 year

79
Q

what is Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease

A

prion disease
rapidly progressive dementia, behavioral changes, ataxia, myoclonic jerks, blindness

80
Q

T/F: HIV/AIDs can affect the NS at ANY level

A

T

81
Q

opportunistic infection predominant as ____ count drops in HIV/AIDs

A

CD4

82
Q

most mass lesions of the brain in AIDs are _____ or ______

A

toxoplasmosis
primary CNS lymphoma
(99% get feet numbness)

83
Q

what is the #1 cause of seizures globally?

A

neurocysticercosis

84
Q

what is neurocysticercosis?

A

parasite from undercooked pork

Neuro MSK (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions