Tuesday, August 23-Drugs For Movement Disorders-DSA-Kruse Flashcards

1
Q

Coadministration of levodopa with this DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor that does not cross the BBB results in increased levodopa available for entry into the brain

A

Carbidopa

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2
Q

Levodopa given in the absence of a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor may have these adverse effects in the GI tract:

A

Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting in roughly 80% of pts

The combo of levodopa/carbidopa causes less frequent and less trouble some GI side effects in only 20% of pts

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3
Q

What are some potential cardiovascular adverse effects with tx of levodopa?

A

Postural hypotension can occur but often diminishes with continuing tx

HTN can occur with large doses of levodopa or in combo with nonselective MAOI or sympathomimetics

Increases in cardiac arrhythmias are rare and can be attributed to presence of increase peripheral catecholamine synthesis

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4
Q

In the on-off phenomenon, off-periods of marked akinesia alternate over the course of a few hours with on-periods of improved mobility but often marked dyskinesia. Subcutaneous injections of ___ may provide temporary benefit to those pts with severe off-periods

A

Apomorphine

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5
Q

Pts taking __ may experience hypertensive crisis when combined with levodopa

A

Monoamine oxidase A inhibitors

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6
Q

Levodopa is contraindicated in these types of pts:

A
  • psychotic pts
  • pts with angle-closure glaucoma
  • pts with history of melanoma
  • caution in pts with active peptic ulcer d/t possible GI bleeding
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7
Q

___ is an ergot alkaloid derivative that is a D2 agonist that is also approved for tx of endocrine disorders. It has extensive 1st-pass metabolism, a t1/2 of 15 hrs, and 28% bioavailability with peak plasma concentration usually attained within 1-3 hrs

A

Bromocriptine

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8
Q

___ has a preferential affinity for D3 receptors, is approved for tx of moderate-to-severe primary Restless Leg syndrome (RLS), and has a peak plasma concentration reached in 2 hrs with a half-life of 8 hrs. 90% of this drug is excreted unchanged in the urine (individuals with renal insufficiency may require dose adjustment)

A

Pramipexole

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9
Q

___ has a preferential affinity for D2 receptors and is also approved for tx of Restless Leg syndrome (RLS). It is metabolized primarily by CYP1A2 and coadministration with agents that are also metabolized by CYP1A2 may reduce the clearance of this drug. Its peak plasma concen reached in 1-2 hrs with t1/2 of 6 hrs

A

Ropinirole

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10
Q

What are some adverse effects of dopamine receptor agonists in the GI tract?

A
  • anorexia, nausea, and vomiting can occur; symptoms reduced if taken with meals
  • constipation, dyspepsia, and symptoms of reflux esophagitis
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11
Q

This adverse CV effect may occur with the use of dopamine receptor agonists, especially at the initiation of therapy

A

Postural hypotension

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12
Q

This dopamine receptor agonist may cause digital vasospasm during long-term tx.

A

Bromocriptine

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13
Q

In terms of adverse CV effects with the use of dopamine receptor agonists, the presence of ___ may indicate the need to discontinue therapy

A

Peripheral edema and cardiac arrhythmias

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14
Q

Headache, nasal congestion, increased arousal, pulmonary infiltrates, and pleural and retroperitoneal fibrosis have been reported with the use of this dopamine receptor agonist

A

Bromocriptine

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15
Q

What are some contraindications to using dopamine receptor agonists?

A

Pts with history of psychotic illness, recent MI, or with active peptic ulceration

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16
Q

This dopamine receptor agonist drug is contraindicated in pts with peripheral vascular disease (vasoconstricting effects)

A

Bromocriptine

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17
Q

There are 2 forms of monoamine oxidase:
___ preferentially metabolizes phenylethylamine and benzylamine

___ preferentially metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin

A

MAO-B

MAO-A

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18
Q

These compounds are metabolized equally by MAO-A and MAO-B

A

Dopamine and tryptamine

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19
Q

__ is a selective irreversible MAO-B inhibitor (inhibits MAO-A at high doses) and slows the breakdown of dopamine and prolongs the antiparkinsonian effects of levodopa. It may reduce the on-off or wearing-off phenomenon. It is used as adjunctive therapy in pts with declining or fluctuating response to levodopa

A

Selegiline

10% bioavailability with peak [plasma] within an hr

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20
Q

You should use caution when prescribing Selegiline to pts who are taking ___

A

Caution recommended or contraindicated in pts taking Mepiridine, tricyclic antidepressants, or 5-HT reuptake inhibitors

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21
Q

___ is an irreversible inhibitor of MAO-B and is more potent than Selegiline. It is used as a neuroprotective agent and for early symptomatic tx of PD

A

Rasagiline

22
Q

The coadministration of levodopa and a ___ must be avoided because it may lead to a hypertensive crisis (due to peripheral accumulation of norepinephrine)

A

Non-selective MAO inhibitor

23
Q

___ metabolizes levodopa to 3-O-methyldopa, which competes with levodopa for transport across the intestinal mucosa and BBB

A

COMT

24
Q

___ prolong the activity of levodopa by inhibiting its peripheral metabolism, which decreases clearance and increases bioavailability

A

COMT inhibitors –> Tolcapone and Entacapone

25
Q

___ may be helpful in pts receiving levodopa who have developed response fluctuations

A

COMT inhibitors such as Tolcapone and Entacapone

26
Q

Regarding COMT inhibitors:

__ may has both central and peripheral effects, whereas ___ has peripheral effects only

A

Tolcapone=central and peripheral

Entacapone=peripheral only

27
Q

This COMT inhibitor may cause an increase in liver enezyme levels and has been associated, rarely, with death from acute hepatic failure (use in the USA requires signed pt consent)

A

Tolcapone

28
Q

Side effects associated with COMT are often due to levodopa but include:

A

Orange discoloration of urine, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and sleep disturbances

29
Q

This dopamine agonist appears to act by stimulating postsynaptic D2 receptors in the caudate-putamen. It is injected subQ for quick, temporary relief of off-periods of akinesia in pts on dopaminergic therapy (clinical benefits within 10 mins)

A

Apomorphine

30
Q

Adverse effects of apomorphine include nausea, which can be pretreated with this antiemetic ____

A

Trimethobenzamide

Other adverse effects of apomorphine include dyskinesias, drowsiness, sweating, hypotension, and injection site bruising

31
Q

__ is an antiviral agent whose MOA in parkinsonism is unknown (may potentiate dopaminergic function by influencing synthesis, release, or reuptake of dopamine). It has a t1/2 of 2-4 hrs; peak [plasma] reached in 1-4 hrs; excreted mostly unchanged in the urine. The benefits may be short-lived

A

Amantadine

32
Q

This antiviral agent may cause livedo reticularis, a vascular condition characterized by a purplish mottled discoloration of the skin, usually on the legs. You want to use this drug with caution in pts with a history of seizures or heart failure.

A

Amantadine

33
Q

Benztropine, biperidin, orphenadrine, procycladine, and trihexyphenidyl are examples of these drugs that are available to treat pts with PD.

A

Centrally acting mAChR antagonists

34
Q

mAChR antagonists may improve tremor and rigidity associated with PD but have little effect on ___

A

Bradykinesia

35
Q

B1-receptors have been implicated in some tremors and these tremors respond well to ___

A

Metoprolol and propanolol

36
Q

Symtpomatic tremor can be controlled by the antiepileptic drug __ in smaller doses than those used to treat seizures

A

Primidone

37
Q

This 5-HT receptor agonist has shown to be effective in the tx of tremors

A

Topirimate

38
Q

Alprazolam (benzodiazepine) and IM injections of __ have been effective in treating some pts with tremor

A

Botulinum toxin A

39
Q

___ is the immediate metabolic precursor to dopamine and an agonist at D receptors

A

Levodopa (L-dopa)

40
Q

These drugs that impair dopaminergic neurotransmission often alleviate chorea associated with Huntington disease

A

Reserpine, tetrabenzine

41
Q

___ are markedly reduced in the basal ganglia of pts with Huntington disease

A

GABA, glutamic acid decarboxylase, and choline acetyltransferase

42
Q

Reserpine (irreversible) and tetrabenzine (reversible) are agents that block ___ and deplete cerebral dopamine stores

A

Vesicular monoamine transporter

The effects of tetrabenzine resemble reserpine but with less peripheral activity and a shorter DOA

43
Q

The most predictive and effective pharmacological approach to the tx of tics are neuroleptic antipsychotics such as ___

A

Pimozide

Because of their tendency to cause extrapyramidal syndromes, weight gain, sedation, irritability, and various phobias, they are not awlays the first choice

44
Q

Alpha-adrenergic agonists such as __ are effective at treating tics and cause fewer long-term adverse effects

A

Clonidine and guanfacine

45
Q

The non-ergot dopamine agonists ___ are the only drugs approved by the FDA for restless leg syndrome and are considered first-line tx in pts with daily symptoms

A

Pramipexole and ropinirole

46
Q

__ is the only drug to have any impact on survival in ALS, which has been shown to prolong survival by a few months

A

Riluzole

47
Q

What is the MOA of Riluzole for the tx of ALS?

A

Inhibits glutamate release and blocks postsynaptic NMDA- and kainite-type glutamate receptors and inhibits voltage-dependent Na channels, though the precise mechanism in tx of ALS is unclear

48
Q

What are major adverse effects associated with Riluzole in tx of ALS?

A

Nausea and weakness

49
Q

This chelating agent is used in tx of wilson disease that forms a stable complex with copper and is readily excreted by the kidney

A

Penicillamine

Adverse effects: nausea, vomiting, nephritic syndrome, myasthenia, optic neuropathy, and various blood disorders

50
Q

___ reduces intenstinal absorption of copper and can be prescribed in addition to penicillamine in tx of wilson disease

A

Potassium disulfide

51
Q

Aside from penicillamine and potassium disulfide, what other agents are useful in tx of wilson disease?

A

Trientine (chelating agent), zinc acetate and zinc sulfate (increase fecal excretion of Cu by decreasing GI absorption)