tues Flashcards

1
Q

Hypoglycaemia treatment

A

tablet

buccal mucosa

IV 20% dextrose 100ml immedietely

glucagon IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T1DM

A

destruction of insulin-producing pancreatic cells

weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

diagnosis of T1DM

A

Random blood glucose ≥ 11.1mmol/l or Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 7mmol/l

2-hour glucose tolerance ≥ 11.1mmol/l

HbA1C ≥ 48mmol/mol (6.5%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

DKA

A

T1

Hyperglycemia (blood sugars >11 mmol/L)

Ketonemia (blood ketones >3 mmol/L)

Acidosis (pH <7.3 or bicarbonate <15 mmol/L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Kussmaul’s respiration

A

DKA

deep, sighing pattern of respiration, compensating for a metabolic acidosis by blowing off CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

treatment of DKA

A

0.9% NaCl, with the first litre ‘stat’

then K replacement

insulin IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hypoglycaemia defination

A

blood glucose level below 3.5 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

miscarriage

A

<24 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

symptoms of misscariage

A

pain
bleeding
loss of feotal tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ectopic pregnancy

A

more pain than misscariage and less bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Threatened miscarriage

A

mild bleeding as foetus retained within the uterus as the cervical os is closed

can have no pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Inevitable miscarriage

A

heavy bleeding and pain, where the foetus is currently intrauterine but the cervical os is open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

management of miscarriage

A

misoprostol

Surgical management e.g. dilatation and curettage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

mechanism of NAC in treating paracetamol overdose?

A

NAC replenishes the store of glutathione which binds with toxin, which is then excreted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

breast engorgement

A

breasts being too full
pain but no infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Plugged breast Duct

A

Unilateral, localized hard lump

not usually systemic symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Breast Abscess

A

severe pain, fluctuant mass, localized heat, redness, and fever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

antifungal post Puerperal mastitis treatment

A

miconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

epilepsy drug during pregnancy

A

lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Focal seizures

A

simple

complex

secondary generalised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Generalized seizures

A

absence

tonic colonic

myoclonic

atonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

complex seizure

A

lose consciousness

temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

simple seizure

A

focal symptoms- related to one area of brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

secondary generalised’ seizure

A

focal seizure that evolves into a generalized seizure, typically tonic-clonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Absence seizures and treatment

A

pauses for less than 10 seconds

ethosuximide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Tonic-clonic seizures and treatment

A

loss of consciousness, stiffening (tonic), and jerking (clonic) of limbs

sodium valporate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Myoclonic seizures

A

sudden jerks of a limb, trunk, or face

sodium valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Atonic seizures

A

sudden loss of muscle tone, causing the patient to fall

sodium valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Syncope

A

sudden, transient loss of consciousness and postural tone followed by spontaneous recovery. Triggered by low blood flow to the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

management for focal seizures

A

Lamotrigine or Levetiracetam for focal

Carbamazepine- but not for myoclonic
oxcarbazepine
zonisamide

lacosamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

vascular dementia - what is it

A

second most common

risk factors for vascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Lewy body dementia symptoms

A

Fluctuating cognition

visual hallucinations

Parkinsonism

REM sleep behavior disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Frontotemporal dementia symptoms

A

changes in personality and behavior

/language difficulties with relative sparing of memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Normal pressure hydrocephalus symptoms

A

Gait disturbance

urinary incontinence

cognitive impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

treatment of vascular dementia

A

cognitive enhancers

cholinesterase inhibitor/ memantine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

parkinsons epidemiology

A

second most common neurodegenerative disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

cause of parkinsons

A

accumulation of lewy bodies

misfolded alpha synuclein which lead to death of dopamine cells in substantia nigra in basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

basal ganglia

A

coordiantion of mov

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

management of parkinsons

A

levodopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

side effects of medication for parkinsons and how to manage that

A

Postural hypotension- carbidopa
Nausea & vomiting- domperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

side effects of domperidone

A

Hallucinations
Confusion
Dyskinesia
Psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Dopamine agonists

A

Ropinirole

rotigotine

Apomorphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MAO-B Inhibitors

A

Selegiline

Rasagiline

can cause serotonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

treatment of dyskinesia with parkinsons

A

amantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Multiple System Atrophy

A

autonomic dysfunction, early postural instability

symptomatic control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

lewy body dementia vs parkinnsons

A

Parkinson’s disease starts in the basal ganglia/brainstem and then progresses upwards towards cerebral cortex (hence dementia is late), whereas in LBD process is the other way around

parkinsons starts with motor symptoms before cognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Alzheimer’s disease pathophysiology

A

Amyloid Plaques- accumulation leads to inflammation

Tau Tangles

neuronal loss and brain atrophy

Reduced acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

genetic disposition to alzheimers

A

(APOE) gene

Down’s syndrome/ trisomy 21 (APP gene)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

management for alzheimers

A

cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. donepezil) and N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonists (e.g. memantine),

risperidone for psycohological/behavioral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Postpartum psychosis

A

within first 2 weeks of delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Postpartum psychosis management

A

olanzapine and quetiapine while breast feeding

52
Q

prophylaxis for migraine when asthmatic

A

amytriptilline

53
Q

Serotonin syndrome
causes

A

SSRIs

(SNRIs)
monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

tricyclic antidepressants

MDMA and cocaine.

54
Q

Serotonin syndrome symptoms

A

anxiety, agitation, restlessness

hyperthermia, tachycardia, hypertension

tremor, clonus, myoclonus, seizures

55
Q

management of serotonin syndrome

A

cyproheptadine only if serious

56
Q

acute management of epilepsy

A

10m
Diazepam 10−20 mg rectally

repeated 15 minutes later/midazolam 10 mg buccally
IV- Lorazepam repeated once after 10−20 minutes

Levitiracetam
Phenytoin
Sodium Valproate

57
Q

Tension pneumothorax

A

air

RTA, lung biopsies

58
Q

signs of tension pneumothorax

A

Tracheal deviation away from affected

Decreased chest expansion on affected side
Hyperresonance over the affected

59
Q

treatment of tension pneumothorax

A

large-bore needle, which is typically inserted into the 5th intercostal space in the mid-axillary line

chest drain for massive and if patient stable

60
Q

where does spinal cord end

A

L1-2

61
Q

upper motor neurone

A

start in cerebral cortex then travel to spinal cord/ brainstem

62
Q

lower motor neurone

A

from brainstem/spinal cord to muscle

63
Q

upper motor neurone symptoms

A

if lower motor neurone intact then connection from spinal cord to muscle is working but brain to spinal cord is not

hypereflexia
hypertonia- spasticity- high tension

64
Q

lower motor neurone symptoms

A

brain to spinal cord is fine
spinal cord to muscle isn’t working

no reflexes
hypotonia- no tension

65
Q

Chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

Philadelphia chromosome

translocation of chromosome 9 and 22

BCR-ABL1 fusion gene

too many myeloid cells- inflammation and phagocytosis

66
Q

epidermiology of chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

middle age

men

67
Q

chronic myeloid leukamia symptoms and signs

A

Weight loss
Tiredness
Fever
Sweating

splenomegaly

Bleeding (due to thrombocytopenia- no platelets)

Gout

68
Q

dysdiadochokinesia

A

can’t do alternating rapid mov

69
Q

cerebellar symptoms on the same side of body results in lesion where

A

same side as symptoms

70
Q

acute myeloid leukemia- what is it

A

stops making myeloid cells so build up of blast cells and crowds out normal cells like RBC (anemia), platelets (thrombocytopenia), neutrophils (ill)

71
Q

signs of acute myeloid leukemia

A

+ve for myeloperoxidase via cytoplasmic staining

auer rods

72
Q

sign of acute lymphoblastic leukemia

A

TdT +ve via nuclear staining

72
Q

types of lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma

A

B and T

73
Q

B lymphoblastic leukemia signs

A

C10,19,20 surface marker cells

74
Q

treatment of B lymphoblastic leukemia

A

chemo

75
Q

genetic B lymphoblastic leukemia

A

t 12,21 - children
good prognosis

t 9,22 - adults
poor prognosis

76
Q

T lymphoblastic leukemia sign

A

CD2-CD8 surface markers

77
Q

acute lymphoblastic lymphoma symptoms

A

T cells
thymus mass
Teenagers

78
Q

AML epidermiology

A

50-60 yo

79
Q

types of AML

A

acute promyelocytic leukemia

monoblast AML
megakaryoblast AML
erythroblast AML

80
Q

what conditions can lead to AML

A

myelodysplastic syndrome

myelodysplasia

81
Q

acute promyelocytic leukemia

A

t 15,17
build up of promyelocytes leading to lots of auer rods

increasing coagulation risk and DIC so emergency

82
Q

treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia

A

ATRA- derivative of vit A which helps the neutrophils to mature and reduces leukemic burden

83
Q

monoblast AML

A

build up of monoblasts
no myeloperoxidase

gums!

84
Q

megakaryoblast AML

A

build up of megakaryoblasts
no myeloperoxidase

downs before 5yo

85
Q

myelodysplastic syndrome

A

build up of blasts in bone marrow

86
Q

bells palsy

A

unilateral, lower motor neuron facial weakness

damage to facial nerve - can affect forehead

87
Q

treatment of bells palsy

A

50mg of oral prednisolone or prednisone once daily for 10 days, followed by a taper

88
Q

how much folic acid in pregnancy

A

400 micrograms

5mg for if higher risk of neural tube defects

89
Q

position of uterus

A

anteverted

anteflexed

90
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrome

A

compression of brachial plexus, subclavian artery or vein at the site of the thoracic outlet

91
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrome areas of pain

A

neck

shoulder

arm

parasthesia too

92
Q

ankle reflex nerve roots

A

S1,2

93
Q

lacunar stroke symptoms

A

just hemiparesis- one sided muscle weakness

hemisensory loss/ hemiparesis with limb ataxia

94
Q

which stroke most common

A

ischaemic

95
Q

Ischaemic stroke types

A

50% large vessel atherosclerosis e.g.

25% intracranial small vessel atherosclerosis

20%-cardio embolic-

96
Q

large vessel atherosclerosis example

A

carotid artery stenosis

97
Q

what is ischaemic stroke

A

blocked artery reducing blood floor to brain

98
Q

what is haemorragic stroke

A

artery breaks creating bleeding in brain

99
Q

TIA

A

self resolves within 24h

100
Q

frontal lobe

A

mov and making decisions

101
Q

parietal lobe

A

sensory

spatial awareness

102
Q

temporal

A

hearing

smell

memory

languages

103
Q

occipital

A

vision

104
Q

brainstem parts

A

midbrain

pons

medulla

105
Q

brainstem function

A

HR

BP

Breathing

consciousness

106
Q

which arteries supply brainstem and cerebellum

A

basilar -

vertebral

107
Q

what does post cerebral artery supply

A

occipital mainly

some of temporal and thalamus

108
Q

pathophysiology of atherosclerosis

A

irritant like tabaco damages endothelium

plaque forms

fibrous cap comes off
cheesy filling is thrombogenic (forms clots)

clot formation blocks artery and blood flow

109
Q

what is a plaque

A

soft cheesy middle

hard fibrous cap

fats, proteins, cholesterol, calcium, inflammatory markers

110
Q

embolic stroke pathophysiology

A

blood clot breaks off and lodges in another artery and blocks blood flow

typically from atherosclerosis OR heart from AF - stasis in blood flow

111
Q

lacunar stroke

A

middle cerebral artery

means lake- damaged brain forms cysts like lakes

due to hyaline arteriosclerosis - arterial wall filled with protein

due to hypertension and diabetes

112
Q

pathophysiology of cells in ischaemic stroke

A

build up of Na and Ca in cells

Na- brings water in cell causing swelling
cytotoxic edema

Ca- reactive O2 radicals which damages mitochondria causing apoptosis to go out of cell

inflammation

113
Q

pathophysiology of herniation from stroke

A

inflammation causes swelling

114
Q

types of herniation

A

cingulate

uncal

cerebellar tonsil

115
Q

anterior/middle cerebral artery stroke symptoms

A

numbness

sudden muscle weakness

116
Q

brocas area where and function

A

left frontal lobe

speech production

117
Q

wenickes area

A

right temporal lobe

speech comprehension

118
Q

posterior cerebral artery stroke symptoms

A

visual

119
Q

genetalia nerve roots

A

S2,3

120
Q

what part of brain is affected in huntingtons

A

basal ganglia

121
Q

How does Bevacizumab work

A

monoclonal antibody directed against vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

122
Q

test for bells palsy

A

corneal reflex

123
Q

4th nerve palsy symptoms

A

trochlear

down and out

124
Q
A