Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm Test 3 > Tuberculosis > Flashcards

Tuberculosis Flashcards

1
Q

The following agents are used in the treatment of XDR-TB (Extreme drug resistance)
a. ethambutol

A

A. True, resistance to isoniazid, rifampicin and fluoroquinolone (floxacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The following agents are used in the treatment of XDR-TB (Extreme drug resistance)
b. isoniazid

A

B. False, resistance to isoniazid, rifampicin and fluoroquinolone (floxacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The following agents are used in the treatment of XDR-TB (Extreme drug resistance)
c. rifampicin

A

C. False, resistance to isoniazid, rifampicin and fluoroquinolone (floxacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The following agents are used in the treatment of XDR-TB (Extreme drug resistance)
d. pyrazinamide

A

D. True, resistance to isoniazid, rifampicin and fluoroquinolone (floxacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The following agents are used in the treatment of XDR-TB (Extreme drug resistance)
e. streptomycin

A

E. True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Agents used in the management of Mycobacteria tuberculosis

a. isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy as an adverse effect

A

A. True, hepatitis and peripheral neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Agents used in the management of Mycobacteria tuberculosis

b. rifampicin inhibits cell wall synthesis

A

B. False, rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Agents used in the management of Mycobacteria tuberculosis

c. ethambutol causes gout

A

C. True, ethambutol and pyrazinamide cause hyperuriceamia which can lead to gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Agents used in the management of Mycobacteria tuberculosis

d. streptomycin is safe to use during pregnancy

A

D. False. Teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Agents used in the management of Mycobacteria tuberculosis

e. pyrazinamide is hepatotoxic

A

E. True, pyrazinamide, isoniazid and rifampicin are hepatotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In the treatment of tuberculosis, Isoniazid

a. is activated by catalase peroxidase (KatG)

A

A. True, isoniazid is a pro drug, activated by mycobacterial KatG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In the treatment of tuberculosis, Isoniazid

b. stimulates mycobacterial mycolic acid synthesis

A

B. False. Inhibits mycobacterial mycolic acid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In the treatment of tuberculosis, Isoniazid

c. is activated against intracellular mycobacteria

A

C. True, intra and extracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In the treatment of tuberculosis, Isoniazid

d. -induced peripheral neuropathy is treated with pyridoxine

A

D. True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In the treatment of tuberculosis, Isoniazid

e. induces cytochrome P450 enzymes

A

E. False. Inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In the treatment of tuberculosis, rifampicin

a. inhibits mycobacterial RNA synthesis

A

A. True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In the treatment of tuberculosis, rifampicin

b. causes contraceptive failure in women taking the combined oral contraceptive pill

A

B. True, rifampicin induces CYP450 enzymes. This will result in decreased concentrations of the combined oral contraceptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In the treatment of tuberculosis, rifampicin

c. inhibits the metabolism of warfarin

A

C. False, induces CYP450 enzymes increased metabolism of warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In the treatment of tuberculosis, rifampicin

d. is bacteriostatic

A

D. False, only ethambutol is bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In the treatment of tuberculosis, rifampicin

e. causes an orange discolouration to body fluids

A

E. True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Rifampicin

a. inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes

A

A. False, induces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rifampicin

b. is used as an alternative to ciprofloxacin for prophylaxis against meningococcal infections

A

B. True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Rifampicin

c. causes hepatotoxicity

A

C. True, pyrazinamide, isoniazid and rifampicin are hepatotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Rifampicin

d. is used in the treatment of tuberculosis during pregnancy

A

D. True. During pregnancy give standard 6 month regiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Rifampicin

e. enhances mycobacterial RNA synthesis

A

E. False. Inhibit RNA synthesis

26
Q

Antimycobacterial agents

a. isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy

A

A. True, causes peripheral neuropathy and hepatitis

27
Q

Antimycobacterial agents

b. pyrazinamide decreases serum uric acid levels

A

B. False. Pyrazinamide and ethambutol cause hyperuricaemia

28
Q

Antimycobacterial agents

c. ethambutol-induced optic neuritis is reversible with discontinuation of the drug

A

C. True, stop immediately

29
Q

Antimycobacterial agents

d. pyrazinamide is safe to use in patients with advanced acute liver failure

A

D. False, hepatotoxic, use ethambutol

30
Q

Antimycobacterial agents

e. ethambutol increases the risk of acute gout

A

E. True. Causes hyperuricaemia

31
Q

a. multidrug resistant tuberculosis is characterized by resistance to rifampicin, isoniazid and pyrazinamide

A

A. False, rifampicin and isoniazid

32
Q

b. ethambutol is used for prophylaxis against tuberculosis in individuals with a positive TB contact

A

B. False, isoniazid

33
Q

c. ethambutol is hepatotoxic

A

C. False, ocular toxicity and hyperuricaemia

34
Q

d. there are no effective drugs against XDR tuberculosis

A

D. False, XDR is resistance to isoniazid, rifampicin and fluoroquinolone (floxacin). Thus, can treat with other agents

35
Q

e. isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy

A

E. True, and hepatitis

36
Q

Rifampicin

a. induces cytochrome P450 enzymes

A

A. True

37
Q

Rifampicin

b. is effective against resistant staphylococcal infections

A

B. True, clinical uses include: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis, Leprosy, brucellosis, resistant staphylococcal infections

38
Q

Rifampicin

c. enhances the antihypertensive effect of verapamil

A

C. False, induced P450 will increase clearance thus decreasing the effects of verapamil

39
Q

Rifampicin

d. is used in the treatment of MDR tuberculosis

A

D. False. MDR TB is classified as resistance to isoniazid and rifampicin

40
Q

Rifampicin

e. enhances mycobacterial RNA synthesis

A

E. False, Inhibits RNA synthesis

41
Q

Antimycobacterial agents

a. pyrazinamide is preferred to isoniazid as prophylaxis in patients at high risk of contracting tuberculosis

A

A. False, isoniazid is given as TB prophylaxis

42
Q

Antimycobacterial agents

b. pyrazinamide increases serum uric acid levels

A

B. True

43
Q

Antimycobacterial agents

c. ethambutol causes red/green colour blindness

A

True

44
Q

Antimycobacterial agents

d. pyrazinamide is hepatotoxic

A

D. True, pyrazinamide, isoniazid and rifampicin are hepatotoxic

45
Q

Antimycobacterial agents

e. ethambutol decreases serum uric acid levels

A

E. False, ethambutol and pyrazinamide causes hyperuricaemia

46
Q

rifampicin inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes

A

False, induces

47
Q

ethambutol is hepatotoxic

A

False. Ocular toxic

48
Q

isoniazid inhibits protein synthesis

A

False. Cell wall synthesis

49
Q

rifampicin decreases the clinical effectiveness of warfarin

A

True , P450s

50
Q

pyridoxine is used to treat isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy

A

True

51
Q

ethambutol causes an orange discolouration of urine

A

False. Rifampicin

52
Q

ethambutol is given as prophylaxis to TB close contacts

A

False. Isoniazid

53
Q

a. isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy as an adverse effect

A

True,

54
Q

b. ethambutol inhibits mycobacterial RNA polymerase

A

True. It diffuses into the mycobacteria and appears to suppress multiplication by interfering with RNA synthesis.

55
Q

c. pyrazinamide decreases serum uric acid levels

A

False, increases

56
Q

d. pyrazinamide is hepatotoxic

A

True

57
Q

e.rifampicin discolours body secretions to a red-orange colour

A

True

58
Q 
Match the TB drugs with its side-effect
Rifampicin
Peripheral neuropathy
Urine discolouration (red-orange)
Blurred vision
Joint pain
A

Urine discolouration (red-orange)

59
Q 
Match the TB drugs with its side-effect
Isoniazid
Peripheral neuropathy
Urine discolouration (red-orange)
Blurred vision
Joint pain
A

Peripheral neuropathy

60
Q 
Match the TB drugs with its side-effect
Pyrazinamide
Peripheral neuropathy
Urine discolouration (red-orange)
Blurred vision
Joint pain
A

Joint pain

61
Q 
Match the TB drugs with its side-effect
ethmbutol
Peripheral neuropathy
Urine discolouration (red-orange)
Blurred vision
Joint pain
A

Blurred vision

62
Q

A 38 year old patient presents to the TB clinic complaining of blurred vision. Which agent from his first line drug regimen is responsible for the ocular effects he is experiencing?

A

ethambutol

Pharm Test 3 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions