True Learn Test Flashcards

1
Q

Mutation & presentation of a patient with Wilson’s disease?

A

(hepatolenticular degeneration)

autosomal recessive in hepatocyte copper-transporting ATPase (ATP7B on chromosome13) - decreased copper incorporation into apoceruloplasmin & excretion into bile

presentation varies - liver dysfunction, hemolysis, neuropsychiatric disease (particulary d/t basal ganglia dysfunction)

Kayser-Fleischer rings (appears dark brown in Descement’s membrane)

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2
Q

What disease (and mutation) is indicative of the following symptoms:

precocious puberty

cafe-au-lait macule

fibrous dysplasia of the bone

A

McCune-Albright Syndrome

mutation GNAS - increased production of pituitary hormomes

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3
Q

What are the organisms that have a low ID50? This is generally b/c what characteristic?

A

campylobacter jejuni

shigella

entamoeba histolytica

giardia lamblia

generally means they are able to tolerate acidic environments

ID50 = # organisms required to cause disease in 50% of exposed individuals

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4
Q

Presumable dianosis for a patient who lives in Wisconsin with constitutional symptoms, verrucous skin lesions, and lytic bone lesions?

A

blastomycosis

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5
Q

What consequences can occur in a patient with Turner Syndrome due to congenital bicuspid aortic valce? What would you expect upon examination in each of these instances?

A

early systolic, high frequency click may be heard over the right second interspace

  • aortic stenosis:
    • crescendo-decrescendo, systolic ejection murmur
    • best heart at upper right sternal border & radiates to carotids
  • aortic regurg:
    • diastolic, decrescendo murmur best heard at the left sternal border
    • wide pulse pressure

also, incrased risk of infectious endocarditis

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6
Q

Night blindness & xerophthalmia are both symptoms of what vitamin deficiency?

Deficiency in this enzyme is most commonly caused by what?

A

vitamin A

malabsorption syndrome (ie. celiac disease), chronic pancreatitis, pancreatic insuficiency, biliary disease

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7
Q

What is the underlying pathophysiology of an aortic dissection resulting from aging/hypertension?

A

cystic medial degeneration (replacement of collage, elastin & smooth muscle by basophilic mucoid extracellular matrix with irregular fiber cross-linkages and cystic collections of mucopolysaccharides)

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8
Q

What vitamin deficiency is characterized by stomatits, angular chelitis, glossitis, erythematous rash, normochromic anemia?

A

riboflavin (vit B2)

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9
Q

What are the “3 d’s” associated with pellegra?

This is due to a deficiency in what enzyme?

A

diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia

niacin (vit. B3)

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10
Q

Symptoms of vitamin c deficiency?

A

easy bruising, petichiase, bleeding gums, anemia

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11
Q

How can you differentiate between gout & pseudogout crystals under polarized light?

A
  • gout (monosodium urate crystals)
    • yellow when parallel
    • blue when perpendicular
  • pseudogous (calcium pyrophosphate)
    • blue when parallel
    • yellow when perpendicular
    • rhomboid shaped crystals
      *
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12
Q

If a patient develops QT prolongatio & bradycardia in response to a rhythym treatmet for afib, what drugs could they have been given?

A

sotalol

dofetilide

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13
Q

MC us of adenosine as a heart medication?

A

SVT

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14
Q

What heart condition causes a decrescendo diastolic murmur at the lest sternal border?

A

aortic regurgitation

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15
Q

What are the difference in the caues of eccentric LV hypertrophy vs. concentric LV hypertophy?

A

eccentric - d/t volume overload (aortic regurg)

concentric - d/t pressure overload (aortic stenosis, systemic hypertension)

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16
Q

Indirect inguinal hernias are associated with what congenital issue?

A

patency of the processus vaginalis

17
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metformin?

A

decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis via inhibition of mitochondrial glycerophosphate dehydrogenase

18
Q

What is the difference in histology of chronic pulmonary edema vs. chronic pulmonary edema?

A
  • acute
    • engorged capillaries
    • intra-alveolar pink material
  • chronic
    • hemosiderin-laden macrophages (“heart failure cells”)
19
Q

Fill out this table

A
20
Q

What is the only trisomy to have increased Bhcg in the first trimester screening?

A

trisomy 21

21
Q

What is the only congenital defect to cause increase alpha-fetoprotein in the second trimester screening?

A

neural tube defect

22
Q

Which trisomies have decreased estriol in the second trimester screening?

A

trisomy 21 & 18

23
Q

What is the only trisomy to have normal B-hcg in the second trimester screening?

A

trisomy 13

24
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis of a patient with anterior mediastinal mass, generalized pruritis, alcohol-associated pain, peripheral eosinophilia, and elevated LDH?

A

hodgkin lymphoma

25
Q

Difference between dystrophic calcifications & metastatic calcifications?

A

dystrophic - d/t aging and is associated with normal calcium levels

metastatic - elevated calcium levels

26
Q

What diagnosis is consistent with acute kidney injury, peripheral eosinophilia, sterile pyuria, white blood cell casts?

A

acute interstitial nephritis

27
Q

Tumor marker for ovarian cancer?

“ib” treatment?

A

CA-125

olaparib

28
Q

What cancers are associated with the following tumor markers?

CA-15-3?

CA-19-9?

Chromogranin A?

PSA?

A
  • CA-15-3
    • breast cancer
  • CA-19-9
    • pancreatic adenocarcinoma
  • Chromogranin A
    • medullary thyroid cancers
    • parathyroid tumors
    • ganglioneuroblastoma
    • medulloblastoma
    • neuroblastoma
  • PSA
    • produced by normal prostate cells
29
Q

What are carcinoid tumors & where do they most commonly arise?

A

produce high concentration of serotonin

small intestine