True Learn Main points 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a design feature to prevent rebreathing of carbon dioxide in a traditional semi-closed circle system?

A

Placement of the adjustable pressure limiting (APL) valve, commonly called the pop-off valve, between the patient and the inspiratory valve can lead to rebreathing. Avoiding this valve location is one of the three design features to prevent rebreathing
n order to prevent rebreathing in a semi-closed circle system unidirectional valves must be placed between the patient and the inspiratory and expiratory limbs, the fresh gas inlet cannot be placed between the patient and the expiratory valve, and the APL valve cannot be placed between the patient and the inspiratory valve.

TrueLearn Insight : The circle system can be used three different ways depending on the fresh gas flow.

  1. Semi-open system: high fresh gas flows with no rebreathing
  2. Semi-closed system: lower fresh gas flows with some rebreathing
  3. Closed system: fresh gas flow matches patient consumption with complete rebreathing
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2
Q

General endotracheal anesthesia is being delivered to a patient with a combination of oxygen, nitrous oxide, and isoflurane. As the gas flow through a bobbin rotameter is increased, which of the following will increase?

A

A bobbin flowmeter is structured with a weighted bobbin within a tapered cylindrical tube. As the flow and pressure beneath the bobbin increases, it will rise until reaching equilibrium. Due to the shape of the cylinder, as the bobbin rises the cross-sectional area around it will increase as well.

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3
Q

A 64-year-old woman is undergoing general anesthesia for a total left knee arthroplasty. The sevoflurane is currently at 4%. If the anesthesiologist lowers it to 1%, how will the concentration in the blood change when it has reached equilibrium with the alveoli?

A

Henry’s law states that, at a constant temperature, the concentration (C) of a gas dissolved in a solution is directly proportional to the partial pressure (P) of that gas: C = kP (where k is a solubility constant) or C ∝ P.

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4
Q

Why are desflurane vaporizers heated?

A

Desflurane has an extremely high vapor pressure and is significantly vaporized at room temperature; therefore desflurane requires a heated vaporizer to maintain constant vaporizer output concentration as the vapor pressure would decrease significantly from evaporative cooling.

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5
Q

Which of the following is a requirement of pressure support ventilation (PSV)?

A

PSV is used during spontaneous ventilation to offload the work of respiratory muscle.

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6
Q

Fresh gas flow must be equal to at least which of the following parameters to prevent rebreathing during spontaneous ventilation while using a Mapleson A circuit?

A

Fresh gas flow must be equal to minute ventilation in the Mapleson A circuit in order to prevent rebreathing of exhaled gas during spontaneous ventilation.

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7
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be the cause of an adverse outcome related to anesthesia equipment?

A

Adverse outcomes secondary to equipment-related malfunction or misuse occur, with misuse being the primary issue. Proper training and upkeep of the equipment can help decrease the risk. This is most likely secondary to human error, however, which cannot be completely eliminated

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8
Q

Which of the following will decrease the accuracy of pulse oximetry?

A

Hypothermia decreases the accuracy of a pulse oximeter.

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9
Q

Aside from nitrous oxide, weight is more reliable than pressure for determining the amount of gas remaining in an E cylinder of which of the following medical gases?

A

It is more reliable to determine the amount of nitrous oxide remaining in an E cylinder based on cylinder weight rather than pressure, as the pressure gauge will read “full” until nearly 75% of the gas has been used. Carbon dioxide also requires cylinder weight to determine remaining volume.

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10
Q

Which of the following should be the initial step in providing patient care if a power failure occurs in the modern operating room?

A

If a power failure occurs in the operating room the provider should switch to the red plate electrical supply system, which is the emergency power system in the United States. Nearly all life-support devices, including the anesthesia machine, have battery backup capability and will continue to function.

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11
Q

A variable bypass vaporizer is being used to administer sevoflurane (saturated vapor pressure = 160 mm Hg) to a patient at sea level. A fresh gas flow of 2.5 L/min of 100% oxygen is being used, of which, 100 mL passes through the vaporizer chamber. What is the approximate sevoflurane concentration being delivered to the patient?

A
The following chart can be used to get an estimated vaporizer output. PP is partial pressure or saturated vapor pressure, ATM is atmospheric pressure.
 Agent	 SVP or PP	 PP %	 PP / (ATM - PP)
 Sevoflurane	 160 mm Hg	 21%	 ~ 1/4
 Enflurane	 175 mm Hg	 23%	 ~ 1/3
 Isoflurane	 238 mm Hg	 32%	 ~ 1/2
 Halothane	 241 mm Hg	 32%	 ~ 1/2
 Desflurane	 669 mm Hg	 88%	 N/A

For example, if 100 mL/min of inflow oxygen goes through a sevoflurane vaporizer you can say ~1/4 of that flow will be sevoflurane (about 25 mL). For the above question, this would be 25 mL sevoflurane in 2500 mL (2500 mL + 25 mL total output), which is about 1%.

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12
Q

A 62-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) due to longstanding tobacco abuse presents in a COPD exacerbation. Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation is initiated and initial blood gasses demonstrate a PaO2 ranging between 90 and 100 mmHg on room air while on 5 cmH2O expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP) and 10 cmH2O inspiratory positive airway pressure (IPAP). Which of the following errors in the handling of a subsequent arterial blood gas sample would be MOST likely to result in an artificially increased PaO2?

A

Delays in analysis and exposure of a sample to room air are the two most common sources of error in blood gas analysis. A delay will result in decreased PaO2, pH, and base excess values and an increase in PaCO2. Entrainment of room air will tend to cause the PaO2 value of the sample to approach the PO2 of room air (159 mmHg at sea level) and result in a decreased measured PaCO2.

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13
Q

Which of the following could help to decrease the risk of intraoperative awareness?

A

One of the most reliable ways to prevent awareness is use of at least 0.5 MAC volatile agent, avoidance of muscle relaxation, and a balanced anesthetic with the use of opioids. Clinical signs of awareness include autonomic signs such as hypertension and tachycardia, pupillary dilation, lacrimation, sweating, and patient movement. Patient use of certain medications may block these signs and the clinician should be aware of this. Some examples are beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers which might dampen the tachycardia or hypertension.

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14
Q

A 60-year-old male with a history of sick sinus syndrome and placement of pacemaker is undergoing right thoracotomy and lobectomy for lung cancer. If the electrosurgical unit (cautery) were faulty and had a current leak, which of the following is MOST likely to prevent microshock to the patient?

A

The equipment ground wire is the most reliable means to prevent microshock. The ground fault interrupter can prevent macroshocks, but does not reliably prevent microshocks

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15
Q

An otherwise healthy, 5’9”, 70 kg, 30-year-old male is in the intensive care unit after emergent external fixation of bilateral open tibial fractures following a motor vehicle accident with multiple orthopedic injuries. He is intubated and has an arterial line. Which of the following ventilator settings will BEST facilitate the use of pulse pressure variation on the arterial line to aid ongoing fluid resuscitation?

A

In order for PPV to most accurately predict volume response, several conditions need to be met.
1) The patient is on controlled, positive pressure ventilation.
2) Tidal volume is >7-8 mL/kg (ideal body weight).
3) PEEP is not used.
4) The patient does not have cardiac arrhythmias.
5) Significant changes in chest wall or lung compliance must be avoided. For example, PPV may not be accurate in the setting of laparoscopic surgery due to abdominal insufflation or in the setting of an open chest.
A patient will likely be volume responsive when the PPV is >13%. A patient is typically not volume responsive when PPV < 9%. Volume responsiveness is not reliably predicted with PPV between 9-13%.

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16
Q

By using echocardiographic continuous wave Doppler examination, a patient has an aortic jet velocity measured at 3.5 m/s and a calculated transaortic valve mean pressure gradient of 30 mmHg, implying moderate aortic stenosis. Thirty minutes later these parameters are remeasured at 4 m/s and 40 mmHg, respectively, implying severe aortic stenosis. Which of the following, if occurring between the first and second measurements, could explain the differences observed?

A

Velocity measurement as assessed by Doppler ultrasound is governed by the Doppler equation. The accuracy of the measured value is significantly affected by the cosine of the angle between the blood flow and ultrasound probe. Values less than 20 degrees have limited effect on actual measured values.

17
Q

Which of the following circuits is the most efficient user of fresh gas flow during controlled ventilation?

A

Among the Mapleson breathing systems, Mapleson D with the Bain modification is the most efficient user of FGF during controlled ventilation, followed closely by Mapleson E and F.

TrueLearn Insight : Here is a mnemonic to help remember the most useful circuits for spontaneous or controlled ventilation:
All Dogs Can Bite (spontaneously): A > D > C > B
Dead Bodies Can’t Argue (controlled): D > B > C > A

18
Q

Which of the following phases on the capnograph would BEST display an acute or chronic obstructive pattern?

A

The phase indicated by B-C on the above figure normally displays a sharp upstroke caused by a rapid increase in CO2 detected during expiration. However, in the setting of a chronic obstructive pulmonary pattern or an acute airway obstruction (e.g., bronchoconstriction from asthma or bronchospasm), there is a slower, blunted upstroke. This is a result of the obstructive process causing a shunt (adequate perfusion but poor ventilation) and uneven expiration and alveolar emptying.

19
Q

A 29-year-old man presents for hyperbaric treatment for decompression sickness after ascending too quickly from a scuba dive. If the temperature remains constant and the pressure is doubled in the chamber, what is MOST likely to occur to the volume of nitrogen bubbles trapped in the tissues and circulation?

A

Boyle’s law describes the relationship between pressure (P) and volume (V) of a given gas when the temperature is held constant. At a constant temperature, P1V1 = P2V2.

20
Q

Which of the following ranks the vapor pressures of volatile anesthetics in order from greatest to least?

A

The vapor pressures of the volatile anesthetics at 20o C are: desflurane (681 mm Hg), isoflurane (240 mm Hg), and sevoflurane (160 mm Hg).
The volume of an anesthetic gas (Vol) that passes through a variable bypass vaporizer may be calculated by the following: Vol = FGF * Pvap / (Pbar - Pvap), where FGF = fresh gas flow, Pvap = vapor pressure of the anesthetic gas, and Pbar = barometric pressure (typically = 760 mm Hg at sea level).

21
Q

Which of the following is NOT a relative contraindication for use of a closed circuit anesthetic technique?

A

Relative contraindications to the use of closed circuit or low flow anesthetic techniques include sevoflurane use and patients with alcoholism, malnutrition, cirrhosis, or ketoacidosis.

TrueLearn Insight : The dimethyl ethers desflurane (classically) and isoflurane can be degraded to carbon monoxide when exposed to a desiccated CO2 absorbent. This typically occurs when the absorbent has been exposed to high fresh gas flows for >24 hours. The absorbent becomes dry and hot. CO exposure is more likely with increasing agent concentration and when potassium hydroxide is used. Sevoflurane does not get broken down to CO in the absorbent to the same degree and extreme circumstances are needed for sevoflurane to result in CO poisoning or spontaneous ignition of flammable gases.

22
Q

When using an agent-specific modern variable-bypass anesthetic vaporizer, which of the following INCREASES vaporizer output (mL) the most?

A

Modern vaporizers are temperature-compensated variable-bypass agent-specific vaporizers. The splitting ratio is calibrated for each agent based on vapor pressure. These agents can compensate for significant changes in room temperature, without having significant changes in vaporizer output. Increasing fresh gas flow and decreasing barometric pressure will increase the output of the vaporizer.

23
Q

A 2-year-old girl presents to the pediatrician with a low-grade fever of two days duration. The mother explains that last evening the child began to have a seal-like barking cough. On physical exam, the pediatrician notes inspiratory stridor. A radiograph of the neck demonstrates subglottic narrowing. If the inflammation decreased the radius of the upper airway by 50%, by what factor will the airflow resistance through the upper airway change?

A

Airway resistance is determined by three major variables: gas viscosity, length of the airway, and the radius of the airway. Of these, the radius of the airway is the most impactful as it contributes to the fourth power in an inverse relationship and will increase airway resistance as the radius of the airway decreases.

24
Q

When using a forced warming air device, which of the following is a TRUE statement?

A

Hosing, the practice of using just the hose to blow air on the patient, is the largest contributor to burns with forced air warming devices.

25
Q

If ventilation and cardiac output remain constant during induction of anesthesia, which of the following anesthetic agents will have the greatest uptake into the blood?

A

The blood-gas coefficient is a representation of solubility of volatile anesthetics. More soluble agents are taken up by the blood to a greater degree and therefore the FA/FI ratio is lowered. Solubility, from most to least, is halothane > isoflurane > sevoflurane > nitrous oxide > desflurane.

26
Q

Which of the following is a goal of automated anesthesia drug delivery devices?

A

Anesthesia drug delivery devices, or target-controlled infusions (TCIs), are specialized pumps that utilize computerized models using pharmacokinetic principles to guide intravenous drug delivery to achieve a constant targeted drug concentration in a body compartment (i.e., the central nervous system). This technology has gained popularity worldwide but is not approved for use in the United States.

27
Q

Which of the following BEST explains the capnography tracing shown below?

A

Expiratory valve incompetence results in marked elevation of the inspiratory segment of the EtCO2 capnography waveform. The capnograph tracing does not return to zero during inspiration. This is due to rebreathing of exhaled gases from the expiratory limb in reverse direction and also results in a mildly elevated expiratory segment. A similar tracing may also occur in the setting of exhausted carbon dioxide absorbent.

28
Q

Which of the following slows the rate of rise of the fractional concentration of inspired anesthetic during an inhalational induction?

A

The rate of rise of FI initially follows first order kinetics. It is directly related to the concentration of anesthetic agent being administered and the fresh gas flow; it is inversely related to the volume of the circuit.

29
Q

An inhalational anesthetic agent has a low blood:gas partition coefficient. Which of the following is TRUE of this agent?

A

The blood:gas partition coefficient is one way to describe the pharmacokinetics of inhaled anesthetic agents. Agents with higher coefficients are more soluble in blood and result in slower induction and emergence.