Pharmacology 5 Flashcards

1
Q

You would expect which of the following with furosemide administration?

A

Furosemide administration can cause a hypokalemic-hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis secondary to potassium excretion and a contraction alkalosis.

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2
Q

Which of the following drugs has the shortest duration of action at the benzodiazepine receptor?

A

Flumazenil has the shortest elimination half-life of all currently used benzodiazepines, which makes recrudescence of sedation after a single administration of flumazenil likely.

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3
Q

Which of the following is the mechanism for the suppression of cortisol synthesis after etomidate administration?

A

Etomidate causes adrenocortical suppression primarily through inhibition of adrenal mitochondrial 11β-hydroxylase, resulting in reduced cortisol (and aldosterone) production.

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4
Q

A patient receives local anesthetic subcutaneous infiltration and develops urticaria. Upon review of the vial, it is a multi-dose vial of lidocaine without epinephrine. Assuming this is, in fact, an allergic reaction to the injected medication, which of the following is the MOST LIKELY causal agent?

A

True allergic reactions to local anesthetics are rare. Aminoester local anesthetics are more likely to elicit allergic reactions compared to aminoamides because they are derivatives of para-aminobenzoic acid, a known allergen. Also potential allergens are the preservatives included in some formulations, methylparaben (structurally related to PABA) and sulfites.

TrueLearn Insight : Injectable 1% diphenhydramine, in addition to its antihistamine effect, is a safe, inexpensive, and effective local anesthetic for simple dermal procedures (e.g. sutures) in patients who report “-caine” allergies.

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5
Q

Which of the following is a known potential side effect of ingestion of large quantities of natural licorice?

A

Natural licorice contains glycyrrhizic acid which inhibits 11-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (11-BHD). This inhibition allows cortisol to activate Na-K-ATPase channels in the renal proximal tubules leading to hypokalemia.
Large quantities of natural licorice will induce hyperaldosterone-like effects including: hypokalemia, hypertension, hypernatremia, fluid overload, and metabolic alkalosis.

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6
Q

A 65-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is given 70 mcg/kg of neostigmine after a four-hour bowel resection where profound neuromuscular blockade was required by the surgeon. Ten minutes after extubation, the PACU nurse calls and states the patient’s oxygen saturation has fallen to 84% and the heart rate has gone from 75 to 115 bpm. The patient reports the inability to take deep breaths. What is the next BEST step?

A

The patient is most likely experiencing residual neuromuscular blockade and ventilation should be assisted. Additional doses of anticholinesterases provide no benefit once the acetylcholinesterases are completely blocked. Use of doses larger than maximum for anticholinesterase drugs can result in a depolarizing blockade.

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7
Q

Right subclavian central venous access is attempted on a patient undergoing exploratory laparotomy under general anesthesia with 75% nitrous oxide and 0.3% isoflurane. Access is unsuccessful and during the last attempt, the syringe fills with air. Which of the following events is MOST likely to occur?

A

A pneumothorax, which can rapidly grow in size with nitrous oxide use, can cause difficulty with ventilation and increased peak airway pressures in intubated patients.
. Gas mixture of 75% N2O can expand a pneumothorax to double its size in 10 minutes and to 3 times its size in 30 minutes.

TrueLearn Insight : The volume of an air embolus causing cardiovascular collapse during the concomitant administration of N2O is less than the volume of an air embolus causing cardiovascular collapse in the absence of N2O.

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8
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely to potentiate the neuromuscular blocking effects of vecuronium?

A

Prolong Non-Depolarizing Blockade:

  • Antibiotics (e.g. streptomycin, clindamycin, tetracyclines, aminoglycosides)
  • Antiarrhythmics (e.g. calcium channel blockers)
  • Dantrolene
  • Ketamine
  • Local anesthetics (high doses only)
  • Lithium
  • Magnesium
  • Volatile anesthetic agents

Shorten Non-Depolarizing Blockade:

  • Anticonvulsants (e.g. phenytoin, carbamazepine)
  • Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. neostigmine)
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9
Q

Which of the following diuretics is NOT known to cause hypokalemia?

A

Potassium-sparing mnemonic: The K+ STAys with spironolactone, triamterene, amiloride.

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10
Q

During cardiopulmonary bypass, which of the following is MOST likely to result in activated clotting time variability?

A

Factors that can result in variable ACT include: hemodilution, hypothermia, platelet counts below 30-50 k/mL, concomitant administration of other medications which affect platelets (e.g. prostacyclin, aspirin, glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors), general anesthesia, and surgery which alters coagulation in general but also affects the ACT.

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11
Q

You are called to see a patient in the PACU after endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography. Medications they received for their anesthetic, in order, were temazepam, lidocaine, fentanyl, propofol, rocuronium, morphine, glycopyrrolate, and neostigmine. The patient is complaining of worsening right upper quadrant pain in the PACU. Which of the following is MOST appropriate?

A

Opioids can induce biliary colic, particularly in susceptible patients. This can be alleviated by blocking opioid receptor activation or by blocking parasympathetic activation. - Atropine papaverine

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12
Q

Which of the following statements about the use of a transdermal scopolamine patch for the prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting is MOST likely TRUE?

A

Scopolamine is an antimuscarinic drug that, when applied as a transdermal patch, can help prevent or treat PONV for up to 72 hours. The patch should be applied at least four hours prior to the need for its antiemetic action. The patch should never be cut or otherwise damaged as this can alter drug delivery. Common side effects include blurred vision, dry mouth, and agitation. Scopolamine is relatively contraindicated in patients with glaucoma since the drug’s mydriatic and cycloplegic effects can raise IOP.

TrueLearn Insight : Scopolamine can cause paradoxical bradycardia when given in low doses (0.1-0.2 mg).

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13
Q

Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is the BEST to combine with atropine to reverse a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker?

A

A cholinesterase inhibitor should be paired with an anticholinergic agent with similar onset and duration of action in order to reverse nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockade and minimize cardiac muscarinic side effects. Neostigmine is typically combined with glycopyrrolate while edrophonium is paired with atropine.

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14
Q

Which of the following inhalational anesthetics decreases blood pressure primarily by decreasing cardiac output?

A

Sevoflurane, desflurane, and isoflurane decrease arterial blood pressure, SVR, and myocardial function comparably and in a dose-dependent manner. Halothane decreases blood pressure primarily by decreasing cardiac output and causes minimal changes to SVR.

TrueLearn Insight : Halothane is unlikely to be tested on the current American Board of Anesthesiologists exams. However, understanding the other volatile anesthetics allows for this question to be answered. Additionally, some physicians being trained in the U.S. travel for medical mission work to areas of the world where halothane is more commonly used.

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15
Q

Why does the alveolar concentration (FA)/ inspired concentration (FI) curve rise faster for nitrous oxide compared to desflurane?

A

The absorption of nitrous oxide is augmented by the concentration effect, making the rate of absorption faster than that of desflurane despite their similar blood-gas partition coefficients.

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16
Q

Which of the following statements regarding opioid antagonists is TRUE?

A

Naloxone, an opioid antagonist, has an onset of action of 1-2 minutes and duration of 30-60 minutes. Recurrence of respiratory depression can occur after naloxone administration if used to reverse a long-acting opioid overdose. Naloxone can also reverse opioid-induced nausea, vomiting, pruritus, and urinary retention. Side effects include an increase in sympathetic stimulation which can cause pulmonary edema and/or myocardial ischemia, particularly if a large bolus dose is given.

TrueLearn Insight : Opioid agonist-antagonists (e.g. nalbuphine, pentazocine, butorphanol, and buprenorphine) have limited effects on smooth muscles of the bladder, biliary tree, and intestines, therefore causing less urinary retention, biliary colic, and constipation compared with pure opioid agonists.

17
Q

How can anaphylactic reactions be differentiated from anaphylactoid reactions in the clinical setting?

A

Anaphylactic and anaphylactoid reactions are clinically indistinguishable histaminergic reactions with different triggering mechanisms.

18
Q

Compared with other opioids, which of the following is TRUE of alfentanil?

A

Alfentanil is an opioid with rapid onset and offset due to its lower pKa of 6.5 resulting in higher un-ionized fraction at physiologic pH.

TrueLearn Insight : The clinical pharmacokinetics of alfentanil can be estimated by “4”. Compared to fentanyl: alfentanil has 4x faster onset, is 1/4th as potent, and lasts about 1/4th the duration.

19
Q

A 26-year-old female is about to undergo an elective repeat cesarean section. She has significant esophageal reflux and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura with a platelet count of 57,000. The plan is to give her an oral H2 blocker prior to induction of general anesthesia. What is the onset of action for oral ranitidine?

A

Histamine receptor antagonists are used to increase the pH of gastric acid in patients at risk of aspiration. Following oral administration, effects can be seen in 1 hour. Following intravenous administration, effects are seen in under 30 minutes for cimetidine and famotidine but take up to 1 hour for ranitidine.

TrueLearn Insight : Mendelson syndrome is a chemical pneumonitis described by Curtis Mendelson in 1946. Mendelson observed a collection of symptoms that occurred after aspiration in pregnant patients. Following aspiration, patients developed tachycardia, tachypnea, hypoxia, and pulmonary congestion several hours after the aspiration. In animal studies, Mendelson described risk factors for development of these symptoms, which were aspiration volume greater than 25 mL or aspiration with an acidic fluid with pH < 2.5.

20
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding metoclopramide?

A

Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist that causes increased gastric motility and increased lower esophageal sphincter tone.

21
Q

Which of the following statements regarding ventilation and the solubility of inhaled anesthetic agents during an inhalational induction is TRUE?

A

During an inhalational induction, the FA/FI ratio of insoluble agents (e.g. desflurane, nitrous oxide) rises more quickly than that of soluble agents because insoluble agents are not readily taken up and dissolved into alveolar venous blood. Moderate changes in cardiac output and minute ventilation do not significantly alter the rate of rise of FA/FI of insoluble agents. The rate of induction for soluble agents with higher blood:gas partition coefficients (e.g. isoflurane, halothane) can be increased significantly with higher minute ventilation and a reduction in cardiac output.

TrueLearn Insight : Inhaled anesthetics depress spontaneous ventilation. Minute ventilation will decrease (increased respiratory rate but decreased tidal volume) with increased inspired concentration and so will the rate of rise of FA/FI. This adds a margin of safety in preventing an overdose during spontaneous breathing induction. Controlled ventilation does not offer this margin of safety.

22
Q

Which of the following MOST significantly prolongs neuromuscular blocking agents?

A

The order of non-depolarizing muscle relaxant potentiation is desflurane > sevoflurane > isoflurane > halothane > TIVA (e.g. propofol).

23
Q

Which of the following topical ocular drugs can potentiate the effects of succinylcholine?

A

The use of topical echothiophate eye drops for greater than 1 month can be associated with up to a 95% decrease in the function of plasma butyrylcholinesterase. Normal activity returns within 4-6 weeks after discontinuation. Succinylcholine administration during this time may result in prolonged neuromuscular blockade.

24
Q

A 48-year-old man is undergoing a laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication for a sliding hiatal hernia. He has a history of epilepsy but has not had a seizure in years and is not currently taking any medications. The pulse oximeter beat is increasing, and the monitor indicates that the patient is in monomorphic ventricular tachycardia and still has adequate saturation and arterial waveform. He is given a dose of phenytoin, which converts the patient back to normal sinus rhythm. Which of the following is MOST likely true regarding phenytoin?

A

Phenytoin is a class Ib antiarrhythmic drug whose mechanism, like lidocaine, is to shorten phase 0 of the cardiac action potential by binding to voltage-gated sodium channels to terminate ventricular arrhythmias.

25
Q

Which of the following does NOT have activity at the N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor?

A

Multiple medications commonly used perioperatively function as NMDA receptor antagonists. Examples include, but are not limited to: ketamine, magnesium sulfate, nitrous oxide, and certain opioids including methadone and tramadol, DEXTROMETHROPHAN, Phencyclidine

26
Q

Which of the following herbal supplements may increase the risk of bleeding?

A

Ginger, garlic, ginkgo, and vitamin E are all associated with an increased risk of bleeding. Kava has been used as an anxiolytic. It can cause sedation through its presumed activation of the γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor. Case reports have linked the herb to hepatotoxicity. herbal supplement of this plant is called Ma-huang. Oral ephedra taken for weight loss has published adverse CNS and cardiac events such as hypertension, palpitations, tachycardia, cerebral vascular accidents, and seizures.

27
Q

The N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor mediates its effects via which of the following mechanisms?

A

The NMDA receptor is an ionotropic glutamate receptor that functions as a nonspecific ion channel when activated. Activation only occurs when glutamate is bound to the receptor AND the cell is depolarized. The receptor’s effects are primarily mediated via increased intracellular calcium.
Activation of the NMDA receptor increases intracellular calcium which in turn acts as a sort of second messenger for a variety of signaling pathways.

28
Q

A 56-year-old female is undergoing an awake craniotomy for tumor resection. The surgery is just beginning when the patient begins to move her legs in discomfort. She complains about anal itching and intense vaginal pain. The surgeon looks to you for an explanation. Which of the following medications is associated with these symptoms?

A

Bolus administration of intravenous steroids, particularly dexamethasone, to an awake patient can cause intense perineal itching. Risk factors include female gender and young age.

TrueLearn Insight : Fospropofol is also associated with genital burning and itching. Fospropofol is a prodrug of propofol in phosphate ester form, which is where the “fos” in the name comes from.

29
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be associated with extrapyramidal side effects?

A

The area postrema of the brainstem, also known as the chemoreceptor trigger zone, contains dopamine, serotonin, acetylcholine, histamine, and neurokinin type 1 receptors. Antagonism of these receptors can help treat and prevent nausea. However, any medication leading to central antagonism of dopamine receptors can potentially cause EPS.

30
Q

Which of the following analgesics is safest to use in a patient with end-stage renal disease?

A

Many analgesics used perioperatively have toxic metabolites that can accumulate in patients with ESRD. Remifentanil is metabolized by esterases and is therefore safe in patients with renal disease. Additionally, fentanyl and methadone would be options in ESRD.