Renal Flashcards

1
Q

During a TURP procedure under spinal anesthesia, a patient develops sudden pain in his left shoulder. He begins sweating then complains of nausea. Of the following options, which is the most likely?

A

When TURP procedures are done under spinal anesthesia up to T10 level and not deeply sedated, bladder perforation can be recognized by abdominal pain (and TURP syndrome can be recognized by CNS symptoms).

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2
Q

Which of the following crystalloid solutions MOST closely matches the composition below?

A

The described crystalloid is dextrose 5% in 1/2 normal saline (D5 1/2NS) solution; has an osmolarity of 406 mEq/L; and contains 77 mEq/L sodium, 77 mEq/L chloride, and 50 g/L glucose

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3
Q

Which of the following statements about succinylcholine administration and chronic renal insufficiency is TRUE?

A

Succinylcholine can be safely administered to normokalemic patients with renal failure as the rise in serum potassium is similar to that of normal healthy patients. The typical rise in serum potassium after administration of succinylcholine is 0.5 mEq/L. This generally normalizes within 10-15 minutes.

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4
Q

A 78-year-old man with chronic renal insufficiency and no other medical history presents to the hospital with chest pain. A diverse differential diagnosis is considered, including pulmonary embolism. Vital signs are within normal limits. An assistant asks you about a computed tomography scan to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. If the primary goal is to reduce the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy in this patient, which is likely the MOST important?

A

Prevention of contrast-induced nephropathy starts with proper patient selection and avoidance of contrast agents in high-risk patients. In those who still require the study and contrast administration, intravenous fluids hydration with normal saline and/or sodium bicarbonate is the most appropriate method. Additionally, the use of the smallest amount of contrast will be beneficial.

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5
Q

Which of the following MOST likely places a patient at risk for bradycardia following succinylcholine administration?

A

Repeat administration (e.g. an additional dose given within five minutes of an initial dose) and young age are the greatest risk factors for bradycardia with succinylcholine use. Bradycardia with repeat administration is a result of myocardium being sensitized by metabolic products of succinylcholine.

TrueLearn Insight : Patients with renal failure are not susceptible to exaggerated release of potassium, and succinylcholine can be safely administered to these patients, assuming that they do not have uremic neuropathy or critically elevated serum potassium levels.

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6
Q

Ketorolac is potentially nephrotoxic due to which of the following mechanisms?

A

Prostaglandins typically vasodilate afferent glomerular arterioles leading to increased glomerular capillary perfusion pressure. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are potentially nephrotoxic because they inhibit the production of prostaglandins. The nephrotoxic effects of NSAIDs may be exaggerated in hypovolemic patients.

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7
Q

A 72-year-old male is in the ICU on postoperative day 8 following sigmoidectomy with end colostomy for acute diverticulitis. Arterial blood gas on room air shows: 7.28/32/93. Lab values include:

Plasma sodium: 140 mEq/L
Plasma chloride: 114 mEq/L
Plasma bicarbonate: 16 mEq/L

Which of the following is the LEAST likely cause of the patient’s laboratory abnormalities?

A

Calculating the anion gap can help narrow down the etiology of a metabolic acidosis. Anion gap = serum sodium – (serum chloride + serum bicarbonate). Nonanion gap metabolic acidosis (where the anion gap is normal at 8-12 mEq/L) is typically caused by chloride-containing acid administration, increased HCO3- loss or loss of HCO3- precursors, or decreased renal acid excretion.
Bowel ischemia, especially in the setting of liver and/or renal failure, can cause a significantly increased serum lactate leading to a high anion gap acidosis.

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8
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect of fenoldopam?

A

Fenoldopam is a selective D1 receptor agonist with direct natriuretic and diuretic properties. Fenoldopam promotes an increase in creatinine clearance and has been employed as a renal protector when renal vasoconstriction is anticipated.

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9
Q

Which of the following is the typical increase in serum potassium levels following succinylcholine administration in a patient with end-stage renal failure?

A

Serum potassium levels increase approximately 0.5 mEq/L after succinylcholine administration and normalize within 10-15 minutes in normal individuals. The same is seen in patients with chronic renal failure. This rise may be larger, and lethal, in patients with denervation injuries, muscular dystrophies, stroke, burns, or trauma due to diffuse up-regulation of extrajunctional acetylcholine receptors.

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10
Q

In the setting of acute hypoperfusion of the juxtaglomerular apparatus, which of the following BEST estimates the time before significant levels of angiotensin II are present?

A

Angiotensin II (A2)-mediated vasoconstriction is produced within 20 minutes after the onset of acute hypotension or hypovolemia. The release of A2 is modulated by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). Blockade of the RAAS by angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers may cause profound and refractory perioperative hypotension, particularly after induction of general anesthesia.

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11
Q

A 60-year-old female is being seen preoperatively prior to right total knee arthroplasty. She endorses symptoms of dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, and fatigue. You order an echocardiogram which shows dilated cardiomyopathy with global hypokinesis of the left ventricle, EF of 30%, and mild central mitral regurgitation. The cardiologist plans to place her on low dose lisinopril. Which of the following changes are MOST likely to occur with lisinopril?

A

Angiotensin II results in increased inotropy, chronotropy, catecholamine release, catecholamine sensitivity, aldosterone levels, vasopressin levels, and cardiac remodeling through AT1 receptors. ACE inhibitors and ARBs help to prevent the remodeling that occurs secondary to angiotensin II and are beneficial in congestive heart failure.

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12
Q

A 71-year-old man with end-stage renal disease undergoes hemodialysis prior to an elective surgery. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur as a result of the dialysis?

A

The semipermeable membrane used in hemodialysis permits only small molecules including water, electrolytes, minerals, and salts to cross, according to their concentration gradients. The composition of the dialysate determines which substances move from blood to the dialysate, and vice versa.

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13
Q

A 58-year-old female with type 2 diabetes undergoes a robotic-assisted laparoscopic hysterectomy, complicated by mild hypotension. During the first six hours postoperatively, she is oliguric with urine output 0.2 mL/kg/hr. Serum chemistry shows sodium 140 mEq/L, potassium 4.5 mEq/L, BUN 42 mg/dL, and creatinine 2 mg/dL. Random urine chemistry shows sodium 20 mEq/L, creatinine 60 mg/dL. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY etiology of the patient’s oliguria?

A

Causes of oliguria and AKI are organized into three categories: prerenal, intrinsic renal, and postrenal. See the above table for laboratory tests that can differentiate between the causes. Know how to calculate FENa: [(PCr x UNa ) / (PNa x UCr)] x 100.

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14
Q

A 70-year-old man presents for a left-arm arteriovenous fistula in anticipation of dialysis for end-stage renal disease. In addition to the risk of hyperkalemia, which of the following is most expected in a patient with end-stage renal disease?

A
Changes seen in end-stage renal disease include the following:
Anemia
Hypocalcemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypermagnesemia
Hyperlipidemia
Hypertension
Hyperphosphatemia
Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Uremic bleeding diathesis
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15
Q

Which of the following crystalloid solutions MOST closely matches the composition below?

A

3% Hypertonic saline has an osmolarity of 1026 mEq/L and contains 513 mEq/L sodium and 513 mEq/L chloride.

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16
Q

Which of the following is the LEAST potentially hazardous to the kidney?

A

Desflurane has been shown to be safe for use in renal failure patients. Hypotension, reduced cardiac output, pneumoperitoneum, and possibly sevoflurane are potentially hazardous to the kidneys.

17
Q

Which of the following crystalloid solutions MOST closely matches the composition displayed in the table?

A

Dextrose 5% lactated Ringer’s solution has an osmolarity of 525 mEq/L and contains 130 mEq/L sodium, 109 mEq/L chloride, 4 mEq/L potassium, 3 mEq/L calcium, 28 mEq/L lactate, and 50 g/L glucose.

TrueLearn Insight : The lactate in lactated Ringer’s solution is hepatically converted to yield bicarbonate. Lactated Ringer’s solution should be avoided in severe liver failure because of its dependence on hepatic metabolism.

18
Q

A 56-year-old female with end-stage renal disease has 4/4 twitches with significant fade at the end of an uncomplicated laparoscopic cholecystectomy in which rocuronium was used for neuromuscular paralysis. Which of the following describes how neostigmine and glycopyrrolate should be dosed for reversal relative to doses used for healthy patients?

A

The durations of action of commonly-used anticholinesterases and anticholinergic drugs for reversal of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockade are prolonged in the setting of CKD and ESRD. However, no dosage alterations are required and the normal maximum recommended doses still apply.

TrueLearn Insight : Succinylcholine, mivacurium, and cisatracurium have minimal to no reliance on renal excretion and accordingly, their durations of action are not significantly prolonged in the setting of ESRD.

19
Q

Which of the following statements about rocuronium is TRUE?

A

Rocuronium is up to 30% renally excreted. Metabolism of the drug does not produce active metabolites, unlike vecuronium and pancuronium.

20
Q

A 56-year-old male with anuric end stage renal disease was last dialyzed four days ago. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason obtaining adequate surgical hemostasis would be difficult in this patient?

A

Uremia interferes with platelet activation and aggregation (primarily via effects on vWF and GPIIb-IIIa) and leads to increased production of platelet inhibitors (e.g. prostacyclin and nitric oxide).

21
Q

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for postoperative acute kidney injury following noncardiac surgery in patients with normal preoperative renal function?

A

Major independent preoperative risk factors for postoperative acute kidney injury following noncardiac surgery in patients with normal renal function include age ≥59, body mass index (BMI) ≥32, chronic liver disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease requiring chronic bronchodilator use, peripheral vascular occlusive disease, high-risk surgery, and emergency surgery.

22
Q

A patient with chronic alcoholism presents to the hospital after falling down the stairs secondary to acute intoxication. Which abnormality is MOST likely to be seen?

A

Electrolyte and acid-base abnormalities including hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, hyperuricemia, metabolic acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are common in alcoholics.

23
Q

A 4-year-old female is brought to the operating room after a significant fall in which she sustained a Monteggia fracture. She is awake, alert, and in mild pain but otherwise pleasant. She ate approximately 2 hours ago so a rapid sequence induction with propofol and succinylcholine is planned. What is the expected rise in potassium for this child after succinylcholine?

A

After an intubating dose of succinylcholine in an otherwise healthy patient, potassium can be expected to rise 0.5 mEq/L.

TrueLearn Insight : Succinylcholine is metabolized by plasma or butyrylcholinesterase. There exists a subset of people who have abnormal butyrylcholinesterases. The gene for this enzyme is found on chromosome 7, and one copy is inherited from each parent. It is possible to test the activity of butyrylcholinesterase using the dibucaine test. A dibucaine number of 80 is considered normal, whereas a number of 20 is abnormal. People with abnormal butyrylcholinesterase can experience prolonged paralysis with a single intubating dose of succinylcholine.

24
Q

A 33-year-old female is about to undergo elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. She is a type 1 diabetic with end stage kidney disease and receives dialysis Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. She had a full dialysis treatment yesterday without complications. Laboratory evaluation reveals potassium of 3.6 mEq/L, sodium of 134 mEq/L, creatinine of 4.6 mg/dL, and BUN of 46 mg/dL. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is the LEAST appropriate for this patient?

A

Pancuronium is eliminated primarily by the kidney and therefore should be avoided in renal failure. Succinylcholine can be used in kidney disease without hyperkalemia.

TrueLearn Insight : Renal failure has significant effects not only on neuromuscular blocking agents but on reversal agents as well. Neostigmine is eliminated by the kidney at 50%, and edrophonium at 75%. This offers some protection against recurarization after antagonism with these drugs.

25
Q

Which of the following is the primary cause of low serum bicarbonate in a patient with a high anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A

High amounts of excess hydrogen ion in the serum results in lower free bicarbonate ion levels due to bicarbonate’s buffering effect. This physiology produces a high anion gap because of the loss of free bicarbonate ion.

TrueLearn Insight : Renal failure often causes metabolic acidosis due to the kidneys’ inability to regulate extracellular fluid H+ ion concentration. Normal kidney function reabsorbs filtered bicarbonate, secretes H+ ions, and produces new bicarbonate ions.

26
Q

Which of the following crystalloid solutions MOST closely matches the composition below?

A

Plasmalyte has an osmolarity of 294 mEq/L and contains 140 mEq/L sodium, 98 mEq/L chloride, 5 mEq/L potassium, 3 mEq/L magnesium, 27 mEq/L acetate, and 23 mEq/L gluconate.

TrueLearn Insight : Plasmalyte contains acetate and gluconate. The acetate is oxidized by the liver, muscle, and heart into bicarbonate, with a small percentage converted to acetoacetate. The gluconate is converted to glucose, which can then be used as a substrate for glycolysis and citric acid cycle.

27
Q

A 51-year-old man with a history of hypertension treated with hydrochlorothiazide presents for elective knee arthroscopy. A preoperative basic metabolic panel is notable for a potassium of 3.1 mEq/L, but is otherwise normal. On chart review, his last potassium 1 year ago was 3.3 mEq/L, and he is currently asymptomatic without any electrocardiogram changes. Which statement is MOST correct in this situation?

A

Hypokalemia leads to characteristic ECG changes (QRS prolongation, ST-segment and T-wave depression, U-wave formation), muscle weakness, and decreased cardiac contractility. Perioperative management and the decision to delay depends on the degree of hypokalemia, patient comorbidities, and the urgency of the procedure. In general, serum potassium (K+) < 2.5 mEq/L warrants delay of non-emergent surgery. Serum levels between 2.5 and 3.0 mEq/L warrant delay of elective (non-emergent or non-urgent) procedures until the cause of hypokalemia is identified and corrected.

28
Q

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY associated with an intrinsic renal injury, rather than a prerenal or postrenal injury?

A

Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is divided into two categories: ischemic and toxic. ATN is classified like an intrinsic renal disorder with classic laboratory findings of UOsm < 350, UNa > 20, FENa > 2%, and BUN/Cr < 15. The gold standard for distinguishing ATN from prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI) is the recovery of renal function with a fluid challenge, which only occurs in prerenal AKI.

TrueLearn Insight : The presence of “muddy brown casts” of epithelial cells found in the urine during urinalysis is pathognomonic for ATN.

29
Q

Which of the following is MOST effective in preventing contrast-induced nephropathy?

A

Contrast-induced nephropathy can result from the administration of iodinated contrast media during radiographic procedures. Adequate fluid hydration is the most effective form of renal protection against CIN. The routine use of sodium bicarbonate has not been proven to be effective against preventing CIN. N-acetylcysteine and ascorbic acid may help protect against CIN but are not as effective as fluid hydration alone.

TrueLearn Insight : Nephrogenic systemic fibrosis (NSF) is a gadolinium-induced contrast nephropathy in patients undergoing MRIs. Risk factors for NSF include severe renal insufficiency (chronic kidney disease, Stage 4 or 5), hepatorenal syndrome, perioperative liver transplantation, or an acute inflammatory condition (e.g., sepsis).

30
Q

Which of the following is the MOST EFFECTIVE method to protect high risk patients from acute kidney injury for a computed tomography (CT) study?

A

The most effective methods to prevent contrast-induced acute kidney injury (CI-AKI) in high risk patients (eGFR < 30) are: avoidance of contrast load (reconsider the necessity of study), hydration, use of iso- or hypo-osmolar contrast, and holding of any known nephrotoxic drugs.

TrueLearn Insight : Metformin-induced lactic acidosis can be seen in patients on metformin who receive contrast. Lactic acidosis is also a potential complication of the drug metformin. However, the incidence of lactic acidosis increases significantly when metformin is given concurrently with contrast. Stopping metformin 48 hours before contrast exposure and restarting after 72 hours post-exposure significantly reduces this risk. Patients on metformin can remain on this medication throughout the perioperative period (there is no need to stop metformin in all patients).