Triple Content - Paper 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is calorimetry?

A

Food being burnt to see how much energy it contains

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2
Q

What are the equations to work out energy in food?

A

Energy in food = mass of water (g) x temperature change of water x4.2

Energy per gram of food = energy in food / mass of food

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3
Q

What is the brain and spinal cord?

A
  • both part of the central nervous system
  • brains made up of billions of interconnected neurones
  • spinal cord is a long column of neurones that run from the base of the brain down the spine
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4
Q

What is the cerebrum?

A

Largest part of the brain divided into two Cabral hemispheres where the right hand side controls the left of the body and vice versa
-different parts are responsible for different thins like movement, intelligence and memory

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5
Q

What is the cerebellum?

A

Responsible for muscle coordination and balance

-located at the base of the brain

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6
Q

What is the medulla obolongata?

A
  • connects the brain to the spinal cord

- controls unconscious activities like breathing and heart rates

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7
Q

How can the brain be visualised using CT scanners?

A

X-rays are used to produce an image of the brain which shows main structures but not functions, measures how much of the X-rays are absorbed.
-this can show diseased and damaged areas so if the patient has lost a particular function (e.g. sight)the function of that part of the brain can be worked out

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8
Q

How can PET scanners be used to visualise the brain?

A
  • uses radioactive chemicals to show active parts as the scanner detects the gamma rays, more gamma rays more active part of the brain
  • shows both structure and function
  • by seeing inactive and active parts they are useful for studying disorders that change the brains activity
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9
Q

What are the limitations to studying the brain?

A
  • hard to repair damage as CNS neurones don’t readily repair and scientists haven’t discovered a way to improve this
  • hard to access and treat (not surgically possible for some parts)
  • treatment can lead to further percentages damage
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10
Q

What is the eye?

A

An organ that is sensitive to light and responsible for sight

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11
Q

What is the cornea, lens and iris?

A
  • Cornea refracts light into the eye
  • lens also refracts light but focuses it onto the retina
  • iris controls how much light enters the pupil
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12
Q

What are rods and cones?

A
  • Rods are more sensitive in dim light but can’t sense colour
  • cones are not so good in dim light but sensitive to different colours
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13
Q

What is the long sighted defect and how can it be fixed?

A
  • unable to focus on near objects
  • occurs when the lens is the wrong shape so doesn’t bend the light enough or when the eyeball is too short
  • light is brought into focus behind the retina
  • use glasses or lenses with a convex lens to correct it
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14
Q

What is the short sighted defect and how can it be fixed?

A
  • unable to focus on distant objects
  • when the lens is the wrong shape so bends light too much or when the eyeball is too long
  • light is brought into focus in front of the retina
  • use glasses of lenses with a concave lens to correct it
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15
Q

What is colour blindness and can it be corrected?

A
  • defect where one can’t distinguish between colours
  • caused when cones in the retina aren’t working properly
  • no cure at the moment as cone cells can’t be replaced
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16
Q

What are cataracts and can they be corrected?

A
  • cloudy part on the lens which prevents light entering the eye normally
  • can cause blurred vision, less vivid colours and a struggle to see in bright lights
  • fixed by replacing the faulty lens with an artificial one
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17
Q

What are the advantages of asexual reproduction (mitosis)?

A
  • can produce lots of offspring quickly due to a fast reproductive cycle so can colonise an area quickly
  • only one parent cell is needed so faces no issue for isolated organisms so can reproduce when conditions are favourable
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18
Q

What are the disadvantages of asexual reproduction (mitosis)?

A

-no genetic variation between offspring population so if the environment changes and conditions become unfavourable the whole population may be affected

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19
Q

What are the advantages of sexual reproduction (meiosis)?

A
  • genetic variation so are more likely to survive environmental changes
  • can lead to natural selection and evolution so a stronger population
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20
Q

What are the disadvantages of sexual reproduction (meiosis)?

A
  • takes more time and energy to fewer offspring are made

- two parent cells are needed so creates problems for isolated organisms

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21
Q

What did Mendel do?

A

Used peas to observe how characteristics were inherited as they were easy to grow, has many traits which helped distinguish and traits could be tracked from generations
-took a while for his work to be recognised and fully explained due to a lack of understanding about genes, DNA and chromosomes

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22
Q

What is an example of one of mendel’s experiments?

A
  • Crossed two different pea pants (one tall and one dwarf) and observed that all the offspring produced were tall
  • he then bred these together and the resulting progenies where mostly tall but the small phenotype also appeared
  • This showed that the unit for tall plants was dominant over that for small and that each had two hereditary units
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23
Q

What were mendel’s conclusions he came to?

A
  • characteristics were determined by hereditary units (genes)
  • these units were passed on from both/each parent
  • these units can be dominant or recessive and if there is one of each the do any phenotype will appear
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24
Q

How do genetic variants in non coding regions affect phenotype?

A

Before transcription can happen, RNA polymerase has to bind to a region of non-coding DNA in front of a gene

  • if mutations happen it can affect the ability of this binding making it easier or harder
  • how well this binds affects how much mRNA is transcribed and therefore how much protein produced impacting phenotype
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25
Q

What are sex linked genetic disorders?

A

A faulty allele on the sex chromosome

26
Q

Why are men more susceptible to sex linked genetic disorders?

A
  • the Y chromosome is smaller than the x so carries fewer gees so most sex chromosomes are only carried on the X
  • as men only have 1 X chromosome they often on have one allele for sex linked genes so it is more likely shown even if it is recessive
  • women are more likely to be carriers
27
Q

What is inheritance for blood groups like?

A

There are two allele for the blood gene meaning there are four potential blood types - A, B, O,A - and three different alleles - Io, Ia, Ib
(o is the universal doner and AB the universal receiver)

28
Q

How do you get the different blood groups?

A
  • Alleles A and B are codominant so if you have both these alleles you are blood group AB
  • O is recessive so when combined with A or B your blood type is A or B
  • blood type O appears when there are two recessive alleles- O and O
29
Q

What did Darwin and Wallace do?

A

Came up with the theory of evolution by natural selection (VOSSAR)

  • both travelled round the world and noticed variation within members of the same species and that those with beneficial characteristics were more likely to survive
  • noticed that these characteristics could be passed onto offspring
  • Darwin wrote the origin of species acknowledging the work of Wallace and explaining his theories
30
Q

How have Darwin and Wallace influenced modern biology?

A
  • classification based of organisms common ancestor and how closely they are related
  • understanding the importance of antibiotic resistance and how to prevent it
  • conservatism projects as understand the importance of genetic diversity to adapt to changing environments
31
Q

What is the pentadactyl limb?

A
  • a limb with 5 digits
  • this is seen in many species showing they have similar bone structure but different functions (e.g. a hand and bat wing)
  • provides evidence of evolution from a common ancestor
32
Q

How do you conduct plant tissue culturing?

A
  • take a piece of plant tissue from a rapidly growing area
  • prepare a solid medium containing growth sugars, hormones and nutrients
  • place the tissue on the medium
  • store in a warm bright place to encourage cell division
33
Q

How do you conduct animal/medical tissue culturing?

A
  • separate the cells in a small piece of tissue by mashing or using enzymes
  • prepare a solid or liquid growth medium contains sugars and nutrients
  • pour a thing later onto a sterile medium of suspected in a liquid one
  • store in a warm place to encourage cell division and growth
34
Q

What are the advantages of tissue culturing?

A
  • allows investigation into how cells respond to new medicines without risk to organisms
  • can be used to protruded individuals of an endangered species or that don’t grow well from seeds (e.g. orchids)
  • can replace damaged human organs
  • viruses can’t replicate outside a cell and sterile mediums remove microbes so chance of disease
35
Q

What are the advantages of GM organism?

A
  • increase crop yield providing food for a growing population
  • inset resistance (e.g. BT toxins which kills pests but isn’t harmful for humans animals and other insects)
  • plants can grow better in poor conditions like drought
  • can combat deficiency diseases like golden rice provides vitaminA
  • Herbicide resistance
36
Q

What are the disadvantages of GM organisms?

A
  • may have unforeseen bad effects on the wild
  • may reproduce with wild plants passing on resistance so GM may become ineffective
  • some believe eating GM foods could have bad health impacts
  • biological controls have long lasting effects and less hateful impacts
  • people still can’t afford food so poverty must be tackled first
  • sometimes poor soil is the main reason for failed crops
37
Q

What are viruses?

A
  • organisms that can’t divide on their own so take over a living cell
  • often considered non living and exist in an inert stage outside the host cell
  • consist of a strand of nucleic acid(rna or dna) surrounded by a protective protein coat (capsid)
  • some may also have a further membrane envelope or a tail section
38
Q

What is the lythic pathway (usually first stage of life cycle)?

A
  • virus attaches itself to a specific host cells and insects it’s genetic material into the cell
  • the virus uses proteins and enzymes in the host cell to replicate its genetic material and produces and assembles the components of a new virus whilst killing the host cell”s DNA
  • host cell splits as becomes overcrowded releasing the new virus which infects more cells
39
Q

What is the lysogenic pathway?

A

-the injected genetic material is incorporate into the genome of the host cell
-viral genetic material gets replicated along with the host DNA every time the host cell divides (but the virus is dormant and no new ones are made)
-eventually a triggers (e.g. presence of a chemical) causes the viral gm to leave the genome and enter the lythic pathway
the
-passive and non-virulent prophage replicates too. This may alter the cell’s characteristics, but it does not
destroy it.

40
Q

What is the waxy cuticle physical plant defence?

A
  • Provides a barrier to stop pathogens entering or damage from pests
  • stops water collecting on the leaf reducing the risk of infection of water transferred pathogens
41
Q

What does the cell wall physical barrier do to help plant defence?

A

-made of cellulose and stops pathogens once they’re past the waxy cuticle

42
Q

What chemical barriers do plant defences have?

A
  • produce chemicals called antiseptics which kill pathogens (bacterial and fungal) and a chemical to deter pests from feeding on them
  • e.g. aspirin relieves pain and fever and found in willow tree bark
  • quinine was used to treat malaria and found in chinchona tree bark
43
Q

How are plant diseases detected by observation in a lab?

A

-by changing environmental condition and observing ant change in the plants symptoms one can see if the plant is diseased or if the symptoms were due to something else

44
Q

How are plant diseases detected by distribution analysis in a lab?

A

Pathogens spread in different ways so pathologists can analyse the distribution of diseased plants to indent oh the kind of pathogen involved
-e.g. random distribution could suggest and airborne pathogen

45
Q

How are plant diseases detected by diagnostic testing in a lab?

A
  • identifies the presence of specific pathogens

- detecting antigens or DNA of pathogen in the plant allows the pathogen to be identified and disease diagnosed

46
Q

What are the benefits of immunisation?

A
  • big outbreaks of disease (epidemics) can be prevented and eradicated if a large percentage of the population is immunised
  • herd immunity where you are less likely to fall ill as if more people are immunised there are fewer carriers of the disease to pass it on
47
Q

What are the cons of immunisation?

A
  • doesn’t always work

- bad reactions to a vaccination

48
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies?

A

Produced from lots of clones of a single B-lymphocyte making them identical and they will only target one specific protein antigen

49
Q

What are the stages of making monoclonal antibodies?

A
  • a mouse is vaccinated to start the formation of antibodies
  • spleen cells (lymphocytes) that from antibodies are collected from the mouse in an operation
  • these are fused with a tumour cell called myeloma cells as they grow and divide lots as lymphocytes wouldn’t on their own
  • this creates hibridoma cells which are collected and purified
50
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies used to locate blood clots and cancer?

A
  • designed to bind to these cells/proteins
  • attach to a radioactive element and inject into the body
  • take a picture using a camera which detects radiation and a bright spot should indicate where the clot or tumour is
  • useful to see side, location and if it is spreading
51
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies use to target cancer cells?

A
  • an anti cancer drug is attached to a monoclonal antibody and given to a patient through a drip
  • they target specific cells as only bond to the tumour markers(hug specificity) killing the cancer cells but not other nearby cells
  • these are better than radiotherapy as that can effect normal body cells as-well and there are more worse side effects. It also reduces the amount of drug needed due to their high specificity
52
Q

What are drawbacks of monoclonal antibodies?

A

-due to their monospecificity it limits their application as minor changes in their antigenic epitope May effect their ability to bind and function

53
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies used for pregnancy tests?

A

A hormone HCG is found in the urine of pregnant women and pregnancy test sticks detect this
-this is because the strip has some antibodies to the hormone stuck to it and the part you pee on has antibodies with blue beads attached

54
Q

How do you know if the you are pregnant using monoclonal antibodies?

A
  • if pregnant the hormone binds to the antibodies and the urine moves up the stick carrying the hormone and the beads
  • these bind to the hormone on the strip turning it blue (positive result)
  • if not the urine still moves up the stick carrying the blue beads but there’s nothing to stick the blue beads onto the strip so doesn’t go blue
55
Q

What are stages 1 and 2 of the aseptic technique?

A

-Petri dish and growth medium must be sterile before use so place in an autoclave machine which uses steam at high pressures and temperatures to remove microorganisms
-before being used to transfer bacteria, sterilise the inoculating loop by passing it through a hot flame
spread)

56
Q

What are stages 3, 4 and 5 of the aseptic technique?

A
  • liquid bacterial culture should be kept in a culture vial with a lid which should only be removed when transferring bacteria (this avoids microbe contamination and too much liquid mean they will spread)
  • tape the lid on to remove airborne microbes entering
  • strobe upside down so drops of condensation don’t fall onto the agar
57
Q

How do you investigate the size of the inhibition zine in the aseptic technique?

A
  • visually, the larger the inhibition zine the more bacteria killed to the more effective the antibiotic is
  • or using the area (area of a circle where radius is half diameter)
58
Q

LEARN TRANSCRIPTION AND TRANSLATION

A

On separate paper flash cards

59
Q

What are the symptoms of the lifecycle of viruses?

A
  • no symptoms for lysogenic as occurs after the viral infection but viral DNA remains in the cell and can do permanently
  • in lythic it takes over the cells metabolic activities so lots of symptoms
60
Q

How do you test for starch?

A

Just add iodine solution

-if starch is present it should go from orange to blue/black colour

61
Q

How do you test for lipids?

A
  • shakes the substance with ethanol until it dissolves then pour into water
  • if lipids are present they will precipitate out to form a milky emulsion
62
Q

How do you test for proteins?

A
  • add a few drops of potassium hydroxide solution to make the solution alkaline
  • then ass copper sulphate solution (blue)
  • if protein is present it should turn purple, if not stays blue