Tricky issues Flashcards

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1
Q

When is evidence of a conviction for a crime of dishonesty of more than 10 years ago admissible?

A

Only if:

  1. Probative value substantially outweighs prejudicial effect (reverse 403), and
  2. Reasonable notice given
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2
Q

When is evidence of a conviction for a crime of dishonesty of less than 10 years ago admissible?

A

At any time

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3
Q

When is evidence of a conviction for a felony of less than 10 years ago admissible against a criminal defendant?

A

Only if the probative value outweighs prejudicial effect

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4
Q

When is evidence of a conviction for a felony of less than 10 years ago admissible against a non-criminal witness?

A

Only if the probative value is substantially outweighed by the prejudicial effect (403)

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5
Q

What four factors are evaluated to determine whether something is curtilage?

A
  1. Proximity to home;
  2. Enclosed;
  3. Nature of uses; and
  4. Steps taken to keep private
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6
Q

When can evidence about a victim’s sexual conduct or predisposition be admitted in a civil case?

A

After an in camera hearing, if the probative value of the evidence substantially outweighs the danger of harm to the victim AND unfair prejudice to any party (reverse 403)

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7
Q

When is an inventory search permissible?

A

When:

  1. Police have lawful possession of the vehicle; and
  2. Have acted in accordance with a reasonable, standard policy of routinely securing and inventorying contents
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8
Q

What are the elements of forgery?

A
  1. Making a false writing of apparent legal significance;

2. with the specific intent to defraud

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9
Q

If a criminal statute is silent, what is the default mental state read into the statute under the MPC?

A

Recklessness

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10
Q

Do detainees have the right to file habeas corpus petitions?

A

Yes, including aliens, unless the privilege is suspended

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11
Q

If a Taking is in response to a public peril, does the government have to provide just compensation?

A

No

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12
Q

Can the government favor religious interests over nonreligious interests?

A

No

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13
Q

Do students have a right to a hearing for academic dismissal?

A

No

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14
Q

Does the Fourteenth Amendment’s Privileges & Immunities Clause apply to the federal government?

A

No, it only prohibits state–not federal–action that denies natural persons P&I of national citizenship

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15
Q

Does Article IV’s Comity Clause (Privileges & Immunities Clause) apply to the federal government?

A

No, it only prohibits state–not federal–action discriminating against natural or corporate persons of another state

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16
Q

What factors are relevant to determining whether a defendant has been deprived of his post-accusation right to a speedy trial?

A

(i) the length of the delay;
(ii) the reason for the delay;
(iii) the defendant’s assertion of a right to a speedy trial; and
(iv) the prejudice to the defendant resulting from the delay.

17
Q

How many days between custody must police wait to re-open interrogation of a suspect who invokes his Fifth Amendment right to counsel?

A

14 days or more

18
Q

What are examples of structural errors requiring mandatory reversal of a criminal trial?

A
  1. Biased judge;
  2. Deprivation of right to counsel;
  3. Guilty plea entered over D’s objection;
  4. Batson;
  5. Exclusion of D from courtroom during trial;
  6. Denial of public trial or jury trial; or
  7. Improper instructions on burden of proof
19
Q

Can federal courts apply federal common law in diversity suits that is in conflict with state law?

A

No, unless there are prevailing federal interests

20
Q

Can a defendant’s answer generally deny all allegations in a complaint?

A

Yes, if done in good faith

21
Q

How many days after disposition of a pre-answer Rule 12 MTD does the defendant have to file an answer?

A

14 days

22
Q

Is additur permitted in federal court?

A

No, a court cannot increase damages awarded by a jury because it violates the Seventh Amendment right to a jury trial

23
Q

How many days after a Rule 26(f) discovery conference must the parties make initial disclosures?

A

Within 14 days, unless the parties otherwise agree

24
Q

How many days after service of an amended complaint does the D have to file an answer?

A

within the later of 14 days or the responsive time to the original pleading (21 days)

25
Q

What is the Wharton Rule?

A

A conspiracy must have more parties than are necessary to complete the crime

26
Q

Does a mortgage include improvements to the property?

A

Yes, generally so

27
Q

When are restrictions in the recorded declarations of common-interest ownership communities unenforceable?

A

When illegal, unconstitutional, or against public policy

28
Q

When are rules adopted by a condominium board unenforceable?

A

When unreasonable

29
Q

Under the mailbox rule, if both a rejection and acceptance are sent, which one controls?

A

The first one received by the offeror

30
Q

If someone agrees to perform for under market value and the other party breaches, are restitution damages available?

A

Yes, because otherwise the breaching party could benefit from breach

31
Q

How can an implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose be waived?

A

Only if the disclaimer is in writing and conspicuous

32
Q

When does a taxpayer have standing for violation of the Establishment Clause?

A

When it is an appropriation, not a tax credit

33
Q

Must a court take judicial notice if a party requests it?

A

Yes, if it judicial notice would be appropriate

34
Q

Are the owners of wild animals strictly liable to trespassers?

A

No, except for injuries caused by a vicious watchdog

35
Q

Is a license or permit to engage in business a property interest under the Due Process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment?

A

Yes, if it can only be terminated or suspended for cause

36
Q

What standard governs whether to grant a Rule 59(a) motion for a new trial?

A

Whether the jury’s verdict is contrary to the great weight of the evidence and setting it aside is necessary to prevent injustice