Treatment - Part 2 of 3 Flashcards

1
Q

A leading hypothesis as to why atypical antipsychotic medications are less likely than typical neuroleptic agents to cause EPS is based one which of the following properties of atypical antipsychotics?

A

RAPID DISSOCIATION FROM D2 RECEPTORS

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2
Q

35 y/o pt is started on a trial of clozapine for treatment-refractory schizoaffective disorder. During the initial medication titration, pt complains of sedation and orthostatic hypotension as well as flu-like symptoms, but seems symptomatically improved. However after a dose increase from 150 to 200mg, pt develops a fever to 102 degrees, tachycardia to 130bpm, and an acute metal status change. CXR, urine studies, and blood culture are unremarkable. A CBC reveals a WBC of 11.4, with an elevated eosinophil percent of 7%. Which known toxic risk of clozapine is the most likely Dx?

A

MYOCARDITIS

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3
Q

A 30yo w. 5yo hx of Schizophrenia, prior failed Haldol and Risperidone trial, despite adherent to meds continues to have severe psychotic symptoms. Med recommendation at this time is..

A

CLOZAPINE

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4
Q

30 yo on Clozapine for treatment resistant schizophrenia presenting with dyspnea, orthostatic hypotension and HR 130bpm. Elevated Eosinophil , EKG with non-specific T wave changes. Further most likely test to guide treatment

A

TROPONIN LEVEL

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5
Q

What lab finding is most typically associated with NMS?

A

INCREASED CREATINE KINASE LEVELS

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6
Q

Appropriate management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome:

A

HYDRATION AND COOLING

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7
Q

Antipsychotics are associated with what?

A

DYSTONIA, POIKILOTHERMY, LIPID SOLUBILITY, AND LOWER SEIZURE THRESHOLD

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8
Q

Which of the following effects is the basis for dantrolene’s efficacy in the treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (aka nms)?

A

SKELETAL MUSCLE RELAXANT

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9
Q

32 y/o pt with hx of schizoaffective d/o stable on clozapine is admitted to internal medicine service for a severe GI viral infection. Pt is confused, slow, appears visibly ill and tired. Pt c/o stiffness and there is some rigidity to the movements. What should be recommended?

A

DISCONTINUE CLOZAPINE

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10
Q

Which antipsychotic has least effect on prolactin?

A

CLOZAPINE

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11
Q

A slow titration of Clozapine is required to decrease the risk of:

A

SEIZURES

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12
Q

Which neuroleptic has the weakest affinity for the dopamine D2-like receptor?

A

CLOZAPINE

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13
Q

Clozapine clearance decreased by

A

CIMETIDINE

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14
Q

Which med is contra-indicated with clozapine?

A

CARBAMAZEPINE

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15
Q

Schizophrenic on haldol 5mg presents to ED “unable to see.” Appears distressed, writhing and moaning. States “I’m unable to stop looking up.” What is the best treatment?

A

ADMINISTER BENZTROPINE 1MG IV NOW

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16
Q

What manifestations is the most common side effect of conventional antipsychotic meds?

A

AKATHISIA

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17
Q

What antipsychotic medication would be the best choice to avoid motor symptoms in Parkinson’s disease?

A

CLOZAPINE

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18
Q

What antipsychotic medication is helpful in treating Tourette’s?

A

HALOPERIDOL

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19
Q

Pt develops feelings of restlessness, an inability to relax, jitteriness, pacing, and rapid alternation of sitting and standing shortly after being started on a low dose of haloperidol. Addition of what medications would be most effective in managing these symptoms?

A

ATENOLOL

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20
Q

The therapeutic effect of 2nd generation antipsychotics on negative symptoms of schizophrenia is thought to be related to the induction of expression in what area of the brain?

A

PREFRONTAL CORTEX

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21
Q

Psych MD orders quetiapine 50 mg for an 82 y/o nursing home pt w/ dementia who has become severely agitated. Soon after, the psychiatrist receives a call from a family member who is concerned about the “black box” warnings associated with antipsychotics in the elderly. Which of the following is the most accurate information the psychiatrist could give the family member regarding the potential safety risks of this medication? (x2)

A

ATYPICAL ANTIPSYCHOTICS INCREASE MORTALITY; THIS MUST BE BALANCED AGAINST ANY POTENTIAL BENEFIT

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22
Q

Blockade of dopamine receptors in tuberoinfundibular tracts results in breast enlargement, galactorrhea, impotence, and amenorrhea. Mechanism is increase of:

A

PROLACTIN

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23
Q

Correlation of plasma drug concentration with the clinical effectiveness is best established for which antipsychotics?

A

CLOZAPINE AND HALOPERIDOL

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24
Q

Acutely psychotic pt started on risperdal 2 mg qhs. Increased to 3 mg BID over next few days. Pt becomes increasingly agitated, restless, unable to stop pacing. Most appropriate intervention?

A

ADD PROPRANOLOL 10 MG TID

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25
Q

Psychotic pt given haldol, acute laryngospasm. In addition to intubation, give:

A

COGENTIN

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26
Q

Schizophrenic OD’d on antipsychotics, has EPS and urinary retention. Tx?

A

AMANTADINE

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27
Q

Pts over 65 y/o are less likely to tolerate higher doses of antipsychotics due to:

A

DECREASED HEPATIC METABOLISM

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28
Q

25 y/o pt is brought to the ED with a sudden onset of severe spasms of the neck and eyes deviated up and to the right. The pt has had a viral illness with nausea and vomiting and was given prochlorperazine yesterday. Which of the following meds would be most appropriate to prescribe for this patient?

A

DIPHENHYDRAMINE

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29
Q

A neonate has transient hyperreflexia, irritability, and tremors followed by a period of depressed interactive behavior and poor response to environmental stimuli. What did the childs mother use?

A

OLANZAPINE

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30
Q

In the Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness (CATIE) study, which medication was the most effective due to its low rate of discontinuation, high reduction in psychopathology, and longest time to discontinuation of treatment

A

OLANZAPINE

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31
Q

Patient started on clozapine for treatment-resistant schizophrenia has initial ANC of 2200/mm3. How frequently should you get a CBC with diff?

A

WEEKLY

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32
Q

greatest risk factor for developing akathisia? Male sex, younger age, rapid dose escalation, lower potency agents, positive symptoms

A

RAPID DOSE ESCALATION

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33
Q

Quetiapine is known to develop diabetes, if starting metformin, this is an example of what kind of prevention? (primary, secondary, tertiary or quaternary?)

A

TERTIARY

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34
Q

What psychotropic can cause a decrease in benzo plasma levels? (6x)

A

CARBAMAZEPINE

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35
Q

Which benzo accumulates with repeated administration, should be avoided in chronic renal failure, and most likely to accumulate with repeated dosing? (3x)

A

DIAZEPAM

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36
Q

Which of the following medications would be preferable for use in an anxious patient with pulmonary disease? (3x)

A

BUSPIRONE

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37
Q

If prescription benzo is necessary for a patient w/ severe hepatic dysfunction which of the following is most appropriate choice to avoid elevated serum levels. (2x)

A

LORAZEPAM

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38
Q

Which benzo is reliably absorbed given IM? (2x)

A

LORAZEPAM

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39
Q

Which of the following reverses the effects of benzodiazepines? (2X)

A

FLUMAZENIL

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40
Q

47 yo with well controlled epilepsy well controlled on monotherapy develops nausea, ataxia, and diplopia when treated with erythromycin. Which antiepileptic?

A

CARBAMAZEPINE

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41
Q

Decreases congenital malformations in women taking anti-epileptic medications

A

FOLIC ACID

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42
Q

The use of flumazenil for treating benzo OD is limited by …

A

THE RISK OF INDUCING WITHDRAWAL SEIZURES IN BENZO- DEPENDENT PTS

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43
Q

75 y/o pt with cirrhosis should be given which of the following meds:

A

TEMAZEPAM

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44
Q

False positive urine toxicology screen for Benzodiazepines?

A

SERTRALINE

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45
Q

Buspirone is thought to exert anxiolytic effects primarily due to its actions at which receptor?

A

5HT-1A

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46
Q

Benzo half-life < 6 hrs

A

TRIAZOLAM

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47
Q

Pharmacokinetic property most related to relative abuse potential of benzos

A

TIME TO ONSET OF ACTION

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48
Q

Benzodiazepam absorbed PO or IM

A

LORAZEPAM

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49
Q

Benzo w/o active metabolites

A

LORAZEPAM

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50
Q

Longest half-life amongst alprazolam, flurazepam, lorazepam, temazepam and triazolam

A

FLURAZEPAM (DALMANE) USED FOR INSOMNIA

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51
Q

Most common side effect of benzos

A

DROWSINESS

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52
Q

Which of the following benzos has an active metabolite?

A

CHLORDIAZEPOXIDE

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53
Q

Which of the following sleep changes is produced by all benzos?

A

DECREASE IN REM

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54
Q

Breakthrough panic anxiety in a patient treated with short-acting benzodiazepines can be managed by switching the pt to what medication?

A

CLONAZEPAM

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55
Q

75 y/o pt has developed tolerance to clonazepam over many years, now taking 5mg clonazepam at night but still with poor sleep. Pt denies any mood or anxiety symptoms, no drug problems. Next step:

A

SLOWLY WITHDRAW THE PT’S CLONAZEPAM AND REEVALUATE

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56
Q

Pts on chronic benzos develop:

A

AMNESIA

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57
Q

Benzo that would be the safest to prescribe for a 70y/o pt:

A

LORAZEPAM

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58
Q

35 yo patient presents with frequent panic attacks, which begin with feelings of dread, sweating, shaking, fear of doom and death lasting 20 min. Which medication provides immediate relief:

A

LORAZEPAM

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59
Q

How likely is escalation of benzodiazepine dose when prescribed for long term use?

A

MOST PATIENTS WILL MAINTAIN A STABLE DOSE OVER TIME

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60
Q

FDArequiresthatgenericsnotbesignificantlydifferentfromtheparentcompoundsinwhat way? (6x)

A

BIOEQUIVALENCE

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61
Q

After OD, pt has fever, confusion, tachycardia, dry mouth, urinary retention, dilated and unresponsive pupils. Which medication would treat this? (Anticholinergic toxicity) (4x)

A

PHYSOSTIGMINE

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62
Q

Pt presents to ED c/o ringing in ears, abdominal pain, and is found to have mild metabolic acidosis. Overdose of what substance? (4x)

A

ASPIRIN

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63
Q

Hepatitis C treatment with interferon can cause what psychiatric symptom? (3x)

A

DEPRESSION

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64
Q

Which of the following agents used to treat patients with Alzheimers disease has a mechanism of action related to an antiglutaminergic mechanism? (x2)

A

MEMANTINE

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65
Q

In addition to life support, which class of meds to consider for the treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome? (2x)

A

DOPAMINE AGONISTS (bromocriptine)

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66
Q

What medication may cause mood d/o in pts being treated for melanoma? Also worsens fatigue and cognitive inefficiency: (2x)

A

INTERFERON

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67
Q

What med is effective in tx of motor/vocal tics associated w Tourette syndrome refractory to tx with antipsychotics and alpha adrenergic agonists? (x2)

A

TETRABENAZINE

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68
Q

Pt confused, disoriented, dry mouth, dilated unresponsive pupils. Likely ingested: (2x)

A

BENZTROPINE

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69
Q

Flumazenil is used to treat: (2x)

A

BENZO INTOXICATION

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70
Q

This is a relative contraindication for interferon treatment in pt’s with Hepatitis C: (2x)

A

DEPRESSION WITH SUICIDAL IDEATION

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71
Q

The effects of caffeine on which of the following results in increased dopaminergic activity? (x2)

A

ADENOSINE RECEPTOR

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72
Q

A pt with cancer, pain, depressed mood, poor appetite, fatigue, impaired concentration, prognosis is less than three weeks. What should you treat with?

A

METHYLPHENIDATE

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73
Q

Contraindication for treatment for psychostimulants

A

UNDERLYING HEART DEFECT

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74
Q

54 yo female takes prozac 60 mg for MDD, having worsening migraines then fever, diarrhea, and “muscles are tightening up”. Which medicine is causing these sx?

A

SUMATRIPTAN

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75
Q

84 yo pt goes to ED with fever, dry mouth, visual hallucinations. Is found tachycardia, restless, toxicity of what medication most likely caused symptoms?

A

BENZTROPINE

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76
Q

Prolonged ingestion of high doses pyridoxine causes:

A

SUBACUTE SENSORY NEUROPATHY

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77
Q

Physostigmine is useful in treating toxic syndrome from overdose with:

A

SCOPOLAMINE

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78
Q

Pt in ED for treatment of OD – was found 4 hrs ago after ingesting 10 cold med packs of 650mg Tylenol, antihistamine, and alpha 1 agonist decongestant. Pt is pale and vomiting. How do you decide whether to use N-acetylcysteine as an antidote?

A

PT’S SERUM N-ACETYL-P-AMINOPHENOL (APAP) LEVEL OVER TIME

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79
Q

Tx of pts w/ substance abuse who have acute pain

A

PATIENT-CONTROLLED ANALGESIA

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80
Q

Which of the following agents has been shown to moderate weight gain in some pts treated w/ valproate and atypical antipsychotic?

A

METFORMIN

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81
Q

Pt took 20 tabs 500mg acetaminophen tabs 6 hours ago. Pt is 52kg, pulse 96, BP 135/65. Pt alert and in NAD. Serum acetaminophen level is 60 Ug/ml. Liver fxn test are minimally elevated. Most appropriate action?

A

N-ACETYL-CYSTEINE

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82
Q

A post-op pt’s was receiving 75mg IM meperidine. After switching to meperidine 100mg po pt reports inadequate pain relief. She has no past psych and abuse issues. This is due to:

A

THE LOWER POTENCY OF PO MEPERIDINE COMPARED TO IM

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83
Q

Acetylcysteine is Tx of choice for OD of:

A

ACETAMINOPHEN

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84
Q

OD on sleeping pill. Hot skin, blurry vision, urinary retention, dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, decreased bowel sounds. What is the pill?

A

DIPHENHYDRAMINE

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85
Q

Risk of hepatotoxicity will peak in how many hours after acetaminophen overdose?

A

72 TO 96 HOURS

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86
Q

MC complication of corticosteroid therapy?

A

MOOD DISORDER

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87
Q

Molecular targets for improving cognition in schizophrenia have shown promise via which of the following mechanisms?

A

D1 RECEPTOR AGONISM

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88
Q

Which med is helpful in Tourette Syndrome who can’t tolerate clonidine?

A

GUANFACINE

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89
Q

Guanfacine’s primary effect is through what mechanism of action?

A

PRESYNAPTIC ALPHA2 ADRENERGIC RECEPTOR ACTIVATION

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90
Q

Key element in emergency treatment of pt w serotonin syndrome, beyond stopping offending agent is:

A

SUPPORTING VITAL FUNCTIONS

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91
Q

Restlessness, myoclonus, hyperreflexia, diaphoresis, shivering, tremor, and confusion are compatible with which diagnosis?

A

SEROTONIN SYNDROME

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92
Q

Research on the use of psychostimulants to treat pts w/ secondary depressive symptoms in medical setting suggest:

A

WHEN TREATED WITH THESE AGENTS, PT MAY ENGAGE IN REHABILITATION SOONER.

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93
Q

A psychiatry consult is placed regarding a patient with SI. History of Bipolar disorder and admitted for VRE bacteremia. BP of 171/95, temp of 100.9. Has tremors, hyperreflexia, myoclonic jerks, not oriented at all, has visual hallucinations. Meds include linezolid, lithium, sertraline, Risperdal. What is diagnosis?

A

SEROTONIN SYNDROME

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94
Q

What drug has been known to cause hypertensive crisis?

A

PHENELZINE

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95
Q

African Americans tend to have higher activity of which of the following cytochrome p450 enzymes?

A

3A4

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96
Q

Sudden death in children taking which medication?

A

TRICYCLICS

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97
Q

47 yo pt presents with fever, confusion, and tremor and found to be tachy and diaphoretic. Clonus easily elicited on exam. Pt suspected to have serotonin syndrome, is taking Celexa and Lithium. What additional medication may have contributed to syndrome?

A

ST. JOHN’S WORT

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98
Q

Autonomic instability, nonfocal neurological signs, and elevated temp associated with which elevated lab value?

A

CREATININE PHOSPHOKINASE (CPK)

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99
Q

Drug-drug interactions in pts taking HIV meds are particularly problematic with which medication:

A

METHADONE

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100
Q

In addition to benzos, which class of meds is assoc with falls in pts older than 60?

A

ANTIDEPRESSANTS

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101
Q

The potency of medication refers to which of the following properties of a medication?

A

RELATIVE DOSE REQUIRED TO ACHIEVE A CERTAIN EFFECT

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102
Q

60 yo pt with chronic schizophrenia takes cogentin for neuroleptic induced parkinson now has increased urine retention and confusion. What medication would be the best alternative for treating this patient’s condition?

A

AMANTADINE

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103
Q

Most of the body’s serotonin is located where?

A

GI TRACT

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104
Q

Common side effect of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

A

DIARRHEA

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105
Q

Diphenhydramine’s ability to treat acute dystonia is due to action on which receptor?

A

MUSCARINIC-1

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106
Q

28 y/o with BMDII wants to use phototherapy for depressive Sx treatment in winter. What should you advise?

A

CAN BE USED BUT REQUIRES VIGILANCE AND CAREFUL TITRATION OF DOSE

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107
Q

Which med is used to treat hep C viral infection and is associated with depression, anxiety, and cognitive impairment?

A

INTERFERON-ALPHA

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108
Q

In pts who surreptitiously use excess sulfonylurea, which of the following substances can be administered to r/o possible insulinoma?

A

TOLBUTAMIDE

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109
Q

Which of the following medications inhibits the enzyme ETOH acetaldehyde dehydrogenase?

A

DISULFIRAM

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110
Q

Buprenorphine’s advantages over clonidine, in the management of patients with opioid withdrawal, include better control of which of the following symptoms?

A

CRAVINGS

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111
Q

Therapeutic index is a relative measure of which of the following characteristics of a medication?

A

RELATIVE MEASURE OF DOSING TOXICITY TO SAFETY

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112
Q

Pharmacokinetic factor that declines w/ aging?

A

GLOMERULAR FILTRATION RATE

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113
Q

Patients >65 y/o are more sensitive to psych meds. What physiologic change occurs with aging?

A

DECREASED PHASE 1 OXIDATION

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114
Q

Agitated pt gets rapid tranquilization in ED. Using oral concentrate instead of IM or IV has what advantage?

A

DECREASED FEELINGS OF HELPLESSNESS

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115
Q

What herbal (phytomedicinal) is used as a hypnotic?

A

VALERIAN

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116
Q

The FDA requires that pharmaceutical companies demonstrate that a generic drug is not significantly different from the parent compound in which way?

A

BIOEQUIVALENCE

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117
Q

What is the underlying mechanism of action of sildenafil in erectile dysfunction?

A

ENHANCEMENT OF NITRIC OXIDE

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118
Q

What substance is associated with a risk of bleeding when taken with anti-platelet drugs or warfarin?

A

GINGKO BILOBA

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119
Q

Clonidine mechanism of action:

A

ALPHA-2 AGONIST

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120
Q

42 y/o pt has primary insomnia. Pt complains of difficulty falling asleep, but then sleeps through the night. Which of the following would be the best medication to prescribe for this pt after addressing sleep issues:

A

ZALEPLON

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121
Q

Combined use of Lithium and SSRI is known to increase the risk of which of the following conditions?

A

SEIZURES

122
Q

28 y/o pt wants to stop smoking with the help of a nicotine replacement product. Pt plans to have orthodontia within the next 2 months; has psoriasis; and has multiple environmental allergies that often cause nasal stuffiness, sore throats, and itchy, watery eyes. Nicotine replacement best?

A

NICOTINE LOZENGES

123
Q

Prepubertal children differ from adolescents and adults with regards to dosing of liver metabolized medication requiring?

A

HIGHER WEIGHT ADJUSTED DOSES OF MEDICATION

124
Q

Effective for OCD

A

PAROXETINE, PHENELZINE, FLUVOXAMINE, CLOMIPRAMINE (NOT BUPROPION)

125
Q

This is an effective pharmacologic treatment for symptoms of OCD?

A

CLOMIPRAMINE

126
Q

What pharmacokinetic property remains most stable with age

A

ABSORPTION

127
Q

Irreversible effect of chronic anabolic steroid use

A

HIRSUTISM

128
Q

What does current evidence show regarding psychiatrists using pharmacogenomics testing in clinical practice?

A

RESEARCH SHOWS PROMISE FOR CLINICAL UTILITY, BUT REPLICATED EVIDENCE ABOUT OUTCOMES IS LACKING

129
Q

Bipolar II patient w/ CDK, HTN, DMII, obesity has uncontrolled depressive episodes. Currently euthymic on mood stabilizer with significant SE. What med should be trialed: Lithium, Quetiapine, Olanzapine, Lamotrigine, Divalproex?

A

LAMOTRIGINE

130
Q

Medication caused syncopal episode with hyperthermia, headache, flushing, and tachycardia with hypotension requiring IV fluids in a patient who has a history of schizophrenia, GAD, and EtOH Use Disorder

A

DISULFIRAM

131
Q

9 year old with ADHD not responding to methylphenidate, next medication?

A

DEXTROAMPHETAMINE

132
Q

Methadone patient gets pregnant. Best recommendation?

A

CONTINUE METHADONE MAINTENANCE

133
Q

Marker of autonomic activity and biofeedback:

A

HEART RATE VARIABILITY

134
Q

What medication can lead to serotonin syndrome if combined with fluoxetine

A

LINEZOLID

135
Q

First line treatment for restless leg syndrome: Carbamazepine, Clonazepam, Pramipexole, Gabapentin, Imipramine.

A

PRAMIPREXOLE

136
Q

Which of the following ADHD meds has a black box warning for suicidal ideation in children and adolescents (Modafinil, Atomoxetine, Methylphenidate, Lisdexamfetamine, Dextroamphetamine)

A

ATOMOXETINE

137
Q

Which is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist: atomoxetine, buspirone, modafinil, guanfacine, memantine

A

GUANFACINE

138
Q

Reason for IV atropine administration to patient prior to triggering the electrical stimulus during ECT

A

PREVENT BRADYCARDIA AND ASYSTOLE

139
Q

Clinically significant increase in lamotrigine concentration may occur if co-administered with: (8x)

A

VALPROIC ACID

140
Q

Teratogenic effect of both VPA and carbamazepine: (3x)

A

NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS

141
Q

Carbamazepine should be D/C’ed if the absolute neutrophil count is below: (2x)

A

3,000

142
Q

Pt w/ treatment-resistant mania and h/o rapid cycling is being treated w/ carbamazepine and thyroxine. After adding clozapine the pt is clinically stabilized. The pt’s most recent WBC is below 3,000. Intervention? (2x)

A

D/C CARBAMAZEPINE

143
Q

Which of the following anticonvulsants may be associated with kidney stones? (2x)

A

TOPIRAMATE

144
Q

Pt with treatment resistant, rapid cycling bipolar disorder who recently started lamotrigine develops a rash on the face. Pt admits to a mild sore throat and thinks he may have a fever. Which of the following is the best recommendation for the psychiatrist to make to the pt? (2x)

A

DISCONTINUE LAMOTRIGINE AND COME TO THE APPROPRIATE ER

145
Q

Which med decreases the efficacy of oral contraceptive? (2x)

A

OXCARBAZEPINE

146
Q

Drug prophylactic for treatment of migraines: (2x)

A

VALPROATE AND TOPIRAMATE

147
Q

Interaction between valproic acid and lamotrigine that causes severe derm reactions?

A

VALPROIC ACID INHIBITS GLUCONURONIDATION

148
Q

Associated with neural tube defect in first trimester of pregnancy:

A

VALPROATE

149
Q

Which of the following meds is associated with benign maculopapular rash in approximately 10-15% of pt’s within the first 3 weeks of treatment?

A

CARBAMAZEPINE

150
Q

After psychiatrist adds new med, pt turns bright red w/ sunburn like rash, similar to SJS. Which med caused this?

A

LAMOTRIGINE

151
Q

Inducer and substrate of CYP3a4 (ie may require dose increase after several weeks to maintain steady state)

A

CARBAMAZEPINE

152
Q

Lancinating face pain, triggered by minor sensory stimuli, best treated initially with:

A

CARBAMAZEPINE

153
Q

Which drug used in the treatment of patients with epilepsy is assoc w hyponatremia?

A

CARBAMAZEPINE

154
Q

Coarsening of facial features and hirsuitism are SE of what med?

A

VALPROATE

155
Q

Acute onset of hematuria and lumbago? Side effect of which anticonvulsant?

A

TOPIRAMATE

156
Q

Pt taking carbamazepine for BMD presents with weakness and pallor. The psychiatrist notes the presence of a non-blanching rash on the patient’s arms. The most immediate lab test to order is:

A

CBC

157
Q

Lamotrigine is effective treatment for what mood disorder?

A

BIPOLAR DEPRESSION

158
Q

Fetal exposure to valproate during pregnancy increases risk of:

A

NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS

159
Q

8 y/o Dx w/ Bipolar d/o is about to start valproic acid. What needs to be monitored frequently?

A

LIVER FUNCTION

160
Q

Which antibiotic may significantly raise carbamazepine levels and precipitate heart block?

A

ERYTHROMYCIN

161
Q

What justifies using Valproate more commonly that lithium for BMD in pts > age 65?

A

CHANGES IN RENAL CLEARANCE MAKES LITHIUM DOSING PROBLEMATIC

162
Q

Side effect more frequent in carbamazepine than lithium:

A

DIZZINESS

163
Q

Hair loss + weight gain are SE of which anticonvulsant:

A

DIVALPROEX SODIUM

164
Q

Which of the following baseline labs should be obtained for pt being treated with valproate?

A

LIVER FUNCTION TESTS

165
Q

What CBC value is most important to follow when on Depakote?

A

PLATELETS

166
Q

What is the most common reason pts discontinue valproate?

A

WEIGHT GAIN

167
Q

Adequate as a monotherapy for juvenile myoclonic epilepsy:

A

VALPROATE

168
Q

Adequate for monotherapy generalized tonic clonic szs:

A

VALPROATE

169
Q

Of these meds (topiramate, lamotrigine, valproic acid, levetiracetam, Oxcarbazepine), which is most likely to be free of any significant interaction with other antiepileptic medications?

A

LEVETIRACETAM

170
Q

Valproate’s epigenetic modifying properties due to effect on ___?

A

HISTONE DE-ACETYLASE

171
Q

Treatment of choice for lithium intoxication who manifests impaired consciousness, neuromuscular irritability, and seizures is (10x)

A

HEMODIALYSIS

172
Q

Which med is thought to have a protective effect independent of its mood- stabilizing effect against suicide risk in pts w mood disorder? (4x)

A

LITHIUM

173
Q

Psoriasis exacerbated by: (3x)

A

LITHIUM

174
Q

32 y/o F pt w/ BMD has been treated with lithium. Pt reveals to her psychiatrist that she is now pregnant. Attempts to dc lithium in the past have led to relapses of the pt’s disorder, with severe associated morbidity. A trial of an antipsychotic in the past resulted in NMS, and pt has since refused to use them. Which of the following would be the best option for treatment during the pregnancy? (3x)

A

CONTINUE LITHIUM

175
Q

A pt who was previously stable on Lithium presents with symptoms of toxicity after their PMD starts them on a HTN medicine. Which of the following is the is the most likely mechanism of interaction between the lithium and the HTN medication (X3)?

A

REDUCED RENAL CLEARANCE

176
Q

What lab test should be conducted prior to initiation of lithium tx (x3)?

A

TSH

177
Q

A 32 yo F comes to the ED with CC of 2 weeks of diarrhea. On exam she is anxious and tremulous and is not oriented to date or time of the day. She states she is taking “some drug” for Bipolar disorder and adds that she started doubling her dose a month ago because she “wasn’t getting better fast enough.” She denies use of drugs/ETOH. Which medication would most likely cause the symptoms described? (x2)

A

LITHIUM

178
Q

62 y/o F w bipolar d/o develops altered mental status, dysarthria, ataxia in hosp after meds are added in hospital to her lithium. What medication could cause this? (2x)

A

INDOMETHACIN COMPETES WITH LITHIUM FOR EXCRETION AND CAUSES LITHIUM TOXICITY SYMPTOMS

179
Q

Lithium exposure in first trimester of pregnancy increases risk of congenital abnormalities in which organ? (2x)

A

HEART

180
Q

Lithium can be removed via hemodialysis because? (2x)

A

HAS NO METABOLITES

181
Q

Stable, steady state Lithium levels are generally obtained within: (2x)

A

4-5 DAYS

182
Q

Which of the following factors is a predictor of a poor response to lithium? (2x)

A

RAPID CYCLING

183
Q

What factor is thought to predict a poor response to lithium treatment for pts with bipolar disorder? (2x)

A

MIXED MANIC/DEPRESSED EPISODE

184
Q

Giving charcoal is an ineffective treatment for pt who OD’d on (x2):

A

LITHIUM

185
Q

Which of the following medications was first used as a treatment for gout and later promoted by john cade for treatment of unstable mood? (X2)

A

LITHIUM

186
Q

What can decrease Li levels

A

CAFFEINE

187
Q

Li induced polyuria tx with least effect on Li level?

A

AMILORIDE

188
Q

Bipolar pt on lithium and Zoloft for 3 yrs. Level 0.8. More depressed and fatigued, low energy level. Increasing Zoloft ineffective. Next step:

A

OBTAIN TSH LEVEL

189
Q

This cardiovascular disturbance is most common for Lithium:

A

BENIGN T WAVE CHANGES.

190
Q

Medication most likely to cause cognitive side effects, even seizures, if taken at same time as ECT?

A

LITHIUM

191
Q

A psychotropic with same pharmacokinetic properties in Asian Americans and White Americans

A

LITHIUM

192
Q

Lithium serum levels should be monitored by evaluating:

A

TROUGH LEVELS 12 HOURS AFTER LAST DOSE

193
Q

Which med can decreased serum concentration of lithium

A

AMINOPHYLLINE

194
Q

BMD Tx with Li x 2 years develops rapid cycling. What lab test should be done?

A

THYROID FUNCTION TESTS

195
Q

SE of toxic serum lithium levels

A

ST DEPRESSION, QTC PROLONGATION, ATAXIA, TREMOR, DYSARTHRIA, NEPHROTOXIC SX, STATUS EPILEPTICUS

196
Q

24 y/o F in 2nd trimester now manic w/ no psychotic fx’s. Hx of 1 episode of mania, diagnosed bipolar I. D/C lithium when she decided to have kids. Willing to begin Tx.

A

RESTART LITHIUM

197
Q

The most common cause of severe polyuria with lithium is:

A

NEPHROGENIC DIABETES INSIPIDUS

198
Q

While taking lithium patients should:

A

MAINTAIN SODIUM INTAKE

199
Q

A CNS structure that is likely to suffer permanent damage following lithium toxicity:

A

CEREBELLUM

200
Q

Interferes w/ clearance of lithium

A

IBUPROFEN

201
Q

Cardiac effects of lithium resemble what on EKG

A

HYPOKALEMIA (LOW T WAVES)

202
Q

Predictor of positive response to lithium prophylaxis:

A

HISTORY OF GOOD INTER-EPISODE FUNCTION

203
Q

In patients on lithium, what type of thyroid dysfunction can occur?

A

HIGH PREVALENCE OF THE PRODUCTION OF THYROID AUTOANTIBODIES

204
Q

Intake of this increases lithium levels

A

FLUOXETINE

205
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests is essential prior to prescribing lithium?

A

BUN AND CREATININE

206
Q

55 y/o pt with guilt, anhedonia, insomnia, and sad mood has been treated for 10 wks with fluoxetine 60mg qam. His mood and appetite have improved, though he still has difficulties with concentration, hopelessness, and tearfulness. He denies a h/o manic or psychotic symptoms. The medication most likely to augment the antidepressant effect of his current regimen would be:

A

LITHIUM

207
Q

Pt on lithium and paxil. Lithium is ineffective despite a therapeutic level. What do you do?

A

DISCONTINUE PAXIL

208
Q

Which nervous system structure is likely to suffer permanent damage from lithium OD?

A

CEREBELLUM

209
Q

Lithium can raise what serum electrolyte?

A

CALCIUM

210
Q

Tx of acute mania w/ lithium. What is the best adjunctive agent?

A

ECT

211
Q

Characteristic that makes lithium readily dialyzable:

A

LOW MOLECULAR WEIGHT

212
Q

When used at a therapeutic dose during pregnancy, the dose of which medicine should be reduced in the postpartum period to minimize ASE’s? Lithium, Lamotrigine, Carbamazepine, Topiramate, Valproate

A

LITHIUM

213
Q

What is a pharmacological effect of lithium?

A

GLYCOGEN SYNTHASE KINASE-3 INHIBITION

214
Q

Most likely to be enhanced by the strategies of putting the pt at ease, finding the pt’s pain and expressing compassion, evaluation pt’s insight, and showing expertise: (5x)

A

RAPPORT

215
Q

The factor most consistently associated with therapy outcome in psychotherapy research: (3x)

A

STRENGTH OF THERAPEUTIC ALLIANCE

216
Q

A set of feelings that a patient reenacts in the therapeutic relationship are called: (x2)

A

TRANSFERENCE

217
Q

Business executive hospitalized for bleeding ulcer repeatedly argues with a well-liked head nurse and threatens to leave AMA. Best action for C&L psychiatrist is: (2x)

A

LISTEN TO PT’S COMPLAINTS ACKNOWLEDGE HIS DISCOMFORT WITH THE PASSIVE POSITION THAT HE IS UNACCUSTOMED TO

218
Q

Common theme in psychotherapy in the elderly: (2x)

A

LOSS

219
Q

As opposed to long-term psychotherapy, time-limited therapy more likely to: (2x)

A

SELECT CENTRAL ISSUE AS FOCUS

220
Q

For the treatment of pts with compulsive sexual behavior, the best results have been seen with which of the following approaches? (2x)

A

TWELVE STEP GROUPS

221
Q

Two most powerful predictors of outcome in any form of psychotherapy are: (2x)

A

EMPATHY AND THERAPEUTIC ALLIANCE

222
Q

The best response to a pt who reports a fixed false belief that his neighbor is poisoning his dog and sitting all day at the window monitoring is: (2x)

A

EMPATHIZE WITH THE PT, BUT AVOID DIRECT CONFRONTATION ABOUT THE DELUSION

223
Q

Psychotherapy where pts realistically evaluate their interactions w others & therapist offers direct advice/helps pts make decisions/ignores transference issues. (2x)

A

INTERPERSONAL PSYCHOTHERAPY (IPT)

224
Q

Most likely represents an acceptable boundary crossing by a therapist as opposed to a boundary violation: (2x)

A

RECEIVING COOKIES AS AN EXPRESSION OF GRATITUDE BY A PT NEAR TERMINATION.

225
Q

Therapeutic empathy is best described as the therapist’s ability to: (2x)

A

GRASP PT’S INNER EXPERIENCE FROM PT’S PERSPECTIVE

226
Q

Motivational interviewing often used as part of the treatment of which conditions? (2x)

A

SUBSTANCE ABUSE

227
Q

Therapeutic technique where therapist instructs the patient to hold onto a symptom: (2x)

A

PARADOXICAL INTERVENTION

228
Q

Without evident distress, pt calmly reports to the psychiatrist, “Since I was last here, my significant other dumped me.” The doctor responds by pointing out the discrepancy between the pt’s affect and the content described. This response is an example of: (2x)

A

CONFRONTATION

229
Q

Psych resident dislikes alcoholic pts and avoids working with them. In discussing the problem, says that pts are hopeless and unmotivated and she can’t empathize with them. Example of? (2x)

A

COUNTERTRANSFERENCE

230
Q

Catharsis is: (2x)

A

VERBAL EXPRESSION OF SURPRESSED TRAUMATIC EXPERIENCES AND FEELINGS

231
Q

barrier to widespread use of telepsychiatry

A

PHYSICIAN DISSATISFACTION

232
Q

Example of behavioral analysis strategy

A

“AT WHAT POINT DURING THE DAY DID YOU FIRST NOTICE YOU WERE THINKING ABOUT CUTTING

233
Q

Pt BIB police to ED with disorganized behavior. Pt askes “are you a real psychiatrist?” Best response?

A

I’M A RESIDENT WHICH MEANS I AM A PHYSICIAN WHO IS RECEIVING SPECIALTY TRAINING IN PSYCHIATRY.

234
Q

Recent meta- analyses have suggested what with regard to the use of psychotherapy to treat depression?

A

OTHER PSYCHOTHERAPIES HAVE EFFICACY COMPARABLE TO CBT

235
Q

Psychiatrist’s mind wanders during sessions, what should the psychiatrist do?

A

EXAMINE INNER THOUGHTS AND FEELINGS

236
Q

What theory is the basis of mentalization-based therapy?

A

BOWLBY’S ATTACHMENT THEORY

237
Q

During initial psych interview, pt tearfully discusses painful ending of romantic relationship. What should Dr. say to establish therapeutic alliance?

A

IT SOUNDS LIKE THIS HAS BEEN VERY DIFFICULT FOR YOU.
HOW ARE YOU COPING?

238
Q

Psychiatrist behavior of raising eyebrows, leaning towards pt, saying “Uh-huh”

A

FACILITATION

239
Q

Redirecting discussion by talking about irrelevant stuff

A

RESISTANCE

240
Q

During a clinical interview, the physician recapitulates what the pt has said so far and says to pt “I just want to make sure that I’ve got everything right up to this point”. This is an example of:

A

SUMMATION

241
Q

When psychiatrist asks about mania, pt responds, “that sounds exactly like my cousin,” and proceeds to tell long story about cousin but doesn’t answer the psychiatrist’s request. This is an example of:

A

TANGENTIALITY

242
Q

In initial psych interview, pt frustrated that his last psychiatrist had brief visits & “just gave me another pill every time.” Interviewing psychiatrist responds “so you would like your psychiatrist to listen & understand you before adjusting your meds.”

A

CLARIFICATION

243
Q

Pt who had difficult childhood calls therapist mother’s name and quickly corrects error. What is this an example of?

A

PARAPRAXIS

244
Q

Pt w/ BMD who has been making progress in long-term psychodynamic psychotherapy enters session obviously distraught. After listening to scattered seemingly unimportant details of recent daily life, therapist asks if pt is avoiding something too uncomfortable to talk about. Pt responds w intense anger/distress. “I just heard you are getting a divorce, I am sick about it. Here I am counting on you to help me sort out my chaotic life and messed-up relationships, and you can’t even keep your own marriage together! What are you, some kind of hypocrite? I think I should leave and find someone who knows what they’re doing!” Best response for the therapist to make?

A

“I AM GOING TO NEED A MOMENT TO THINK ABOUT WHAT YOU’VE SAID AND ARE FEELING BEFORE I CAN RESPOND.”

245
Q

8yr old evaluated for asthma, found to have ADHD symptoms, put on stimulant, behavioral problems continue, sent to psychiatrist and psychologist, this is an example of what level of collaborative care?

A

SHARED (INTEGRATED) CARE

246
Q

17 y/o receiving counseling for school truancy. Student understand truancy is not a desirable behavior and is discusses ways to improve school attendance. What stage of change is student in?

A

PREPARATION

247
Q

College student in therapy, the Dean calls therapist requesting info about the student’s therapy due to recent reports from a dorm supervisor. Therapist should:

A

REFUSE THE DEAN’S REQUEST FOR INFORMATION

248
Q

An important counter-transference issue in an interethnic psychotherapeutic relationship is:

A

DENIAL OF DIFFERENCES

249
Q

An important counter-transference issue in an interethnic psychotherapeutic relationship is:

A

DENIAL OF DIFFERENCES

250
Q

Abstinence compliance increases with random UDS. This is ex of:

A

PARTIAL REINFORCEMENT

251
Q

A new pt asks therapist, “are you Christian?” What is best response?

A

“ARE YOU CONCERNED THAT IF WE ARE NOT OF THE SAME RELIGION, I WON’T BE ABLE TO TREAT YOU PROPERLY?’

252
Q

Exchange during initial interview after pt’s former therapist closed his practice: pt expresses concern about new therapist being too young/inexperienced, states she doubts new therapist can provide any new insights. Best response to further goal of getting to know pt, establish whether therapy w new therapist would be appropriate

A

“IT CAN BE VERY HARD TO START OVER WITH A NEW THERAPIST. HOW HAVE YOU BEEN FEELING ABOUT HAVING TO END YOUR TREATMENT WITH DR. BROWN?”

253
Q

A patient repeatedly becomes distressed after what seems, even to the pt, to be minor disappointments. The patient also seems to suffer from extreme narcissistic vulnerability. A therapist utilizing self-psychology would be most likely to interpret this due to which of the following factors?

A

A LACK OF DEVELOPMENTALLY APPROPRIATE EMPATHY FROM CAREGIVERS

254
Q

Treating a much older pt who asks about therapist’s age. Best response:

A

“MAYBE YOU’RE CONCERNED ABOUT WHETHER I AM EXPERIENCED ENOUGH TO TREAT YOU?”

255
Q

Pt seeing new psychotherapist weekly x3 wks hesitantly complained about being able to overhear much of what pt in the preceding session was saying. Pt assured therapist that he had tried not to listen and had left the waiting room to wait outside until the other pt had left. Which is best response?

A

APOLOGIZE FOR THE LACK OF PRIVACY AND INDICATE THAT FURTHER MEASURES, SUCH AS MUSIC SYSTEM IN THE WAITING ROOM, WILL BE UTILIZED

256
Q

MD sees psychiatrist w increasing sense of dislike for a blaming, externalizing pt who pits family members against the MD. What should psychiatrist discuss w MD?

A

COUNTERTRANSFERENCE

257
Q

A pt with h/o lifelong depression & failed relationships complains (very angry) (after several weeks of therapy) that she is expected to trust the Dr. without even knowing anything about him (credentials or personally) what should the Dr say?

A

EMPATHIZE WITH THE PT’S FEARS OF TRUST AND FEELING OF BEING AT A DISADVANTAGE

258
Q

Psychotherapy technique for children with Tourette’s syndrome.

A

HABIT REVERSAL

259
Q

62 y/o with lung cancer, weight loss, fatigue, and persistent cough. Pat refuses to accept Dx of cancer and states will “get over this infection.” Pt refuses all further testing and asks for antibiotics to “recover in peace.” C&L psychiatrist’s role is:

A

EVALUATE PT’S COPING STYLE AND HELP THE MEDICAL TEAM SEE THE PT’S RESPONSES IN THE CONTEXT OF HER UNIQUE PERSONALITY AND LIFE CIRCUMSTANCES

260
Q

Young female starting cognitive therapy with a female resident asks for a hug. Resident should first:

A

EXPLAIN WHY PHYSICAL CONTACT IS AVOIDED

261
Q

C&L psychiatrist uses all therapeutic approaches except:

A

EXPLORATORY PSYCHODYNAMIC

262
Q

Psychiatrist is treating an older pt who is a successful executive. Pt feels grateful for the help w/ his depression and offers some tips on investing to the psychiatrist. What is the most appropriate action at this point from the psychiatrist?

A

EXPLORE PT’S MEANINGS AND FEELINGS ABOUT THE OFFER

263
Q

Female psych resident says pt saw resident in town over weekend. Followed her around. Thought she could later shop at same stores and eat at same restaurants as her greatly admired therapist. Nothing wrong in pt’s bx or material suggesting she is dangerous. Pt apologizes convincingly, says will not do again. Hopes therapist will not fire her. What is next best step?

A

INTERPRET PT’S LONGING TO IDENTIFY W THE PSYCHIATRIST

264
Q

What if pt asks whether you’re still in training during intake interview?

A

INFORM THE LEVEL OF TRAINING

265
Q

Midway through psychotherapy session, a psychiatrist’s mind wanders despite repeated refocus. Best immediate action:

A

EXAMINE OWN INNER FEELINGS ABOUT THE PATIENT

266
Q

Pt sees therapist and makes threats and becomes agitated. Therapist feels uneasy, the next step is to:

A

INTERRUPT INTERVIEW TO GET HELP

267
Q

Young pt in therapy returns to school, announces to therapist that he can pass classes, will graduate. Best response:

A

OFFERING CONGRATULATIONS

268
Q

Beginning therapist feels great empathy for depressed pt fails to maintain sufficient distance to observe self-destructive patterns. To avoid this pay attention to:

A

OVERIDENTIFICATION WITH PATIENT

269
Q

Social skills training for those with persistent mental illness is an essential part of:

A

PSYCHIATRIC REHABILITATION

270
Q

Therapist is working w family of schizophrenic. Strategies include informing about illness, social support, management guidelines. Therapist encourages calm problem solving approach/facilitates stress and stigma reduction when possible. Which model is therapist using?

A

PSYCHOEDUCATIONAL

271
Q

Biofeedback usually helps pts with which medical syndrome?

A

RAYNAUD’S SYNDROME

272
Q

What interventions are consistent w the theoretical assumptions of crisis Tx?

A

REASSURANCE, BRIEF HOSPITALIZATION, PSYCHODYNAMIC INSIGHT, TREATMENT WITH PSYCHOTROPIC MEDICATIONS (NOT FOCUSING ON PAST RELATIONSHIPS)

273
Q

During last session of successful psychodynamic psychotherapy, pt warmly expresses gratitude for everything, saying that the help the therapist has given has made a big difference. Appropriate response?

A

RESPOND BY SAYING YOU TOO HAVE ENJOYED THE WORK

274
Q

What is an example of a boundary violation?

A

INVESTING IN A PT’S BUSINESS

275
Q

After attending several sessions of individual psychotherapy for anxiety and depression, 24 y/o M revealed his homosexuality to his heterosexual male psychiatrist. Therapist realizes he is uncomfortable when pt expresses longings for a male. Therapist also tends to overemphasize any material that might represent pt’s heterosexual wishes. The next best step for the psychiatrist would be to:

A

SEEK CONSULTATION TO DISCUSS COUNTERTRANSFERENCE ISSUES

276
Q

Pt w/ mild MR in program designed to develop new behaviors by modeling/reinforcement, then practice them.

A

SOCIAL SKILLS TRAINING

277
Q

Therapist preoccupied w/ patient. Acknowledges this but unable to shake feeling

A

TALK TO SUPERVISOR

278
Q

15 y/o male bib parents, does not want to speak with psych

A

THANK HIM FOR COMING IN AND ASK HIM IF HE’D LIKE TO BE SEEN ALONE OR WITH HIS PARENTS

279
Q

What was most important factor in determining tx outcomes in National Institute of Mental Health Treatment of Depression Collaborative Research Program (1996)?

A

THERAPEUTIC ALLIANCE

280
Q

While assessing for DV, examiner says to pt/spouse, “The tension that builds up between you must be incredibly stressful. It’s not unusual that people who are stressed out can have trouble controlling themselves or can do things they didn’t intend, like screaming at or even hitting their partner. Has anything like that happened to you?” Which technique is this?

A

NORMALIZATION

281
Q

Pt repeatedly redirecting discussion by talking about irrelevant topics is example of:

A

RESISTANCE

282
Q

Core principle of motivational interviewing that is used to treat addictive behaviors:

A

DEVELOP DISCREPANCY

283
Q

Individual psychotherapy for alcoholics most effective when it focuses on:

A

INTERACTIONS WITH PEOPLE

284
Q

Programmed practice, or exposure therapy, is an indicated treatment for what disorder?

A

AGORAPHOBIA

285
Q

Pt with multiple social fears is terrified of public speaking. As the next step in treatment, the therapist arranges for the pt to give 15 minutes talk to clinical staff. This is an example of:

A

FLOODING

286
Q

Exposure and flooding together with response prevention are techniques of behavioral therapy aimed at which of the following?

A

HASTENING THE EXTINCTION OF A CONDITIONED FEAR OR ANXIETY RESPONSE

287
Q

Elements common to both CBT and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing in the treatment of patients with PTSD include:

A

CONTROLLED EXPOSURE TO TRAUMA RELATED TRIGGERS

288
Q

Pt w fear of heights. Pt instructed to visualize crossing a bridge. What is the therapeutic technique?

A

IMAGINAL EXPOSURE

289
Q

Meta-analysis suggests which of the following for psychotherapy to treat depression?

A

OTHER PSYCHOTHERAPIES HAVE EFFICACY COMPARABLE TO CBT

290
Q

During an initial office evaluation, the pt tells the psychiatrist, “my spouse told me I had to be evaluated.” Which of the following would be the most empathic response?

A

“HOW DO YOU FEEL ABOUT THAT?”

291
Q

The concept of the identified patient in therapy refers to:

A

ONE FAMILY MEMBER WHO HAS BEEN LABELED THE PROBLEM BY THE FAMILY

292
Q

Psychosocial therapy that has shown efficacy in some studies in improver cancer survival rates:

A

GROUP THERAPY WITH OTHER CANCER PATIENTS

293
Q

Comprehensively researched therapy for mood d/o’s

A

INTERPERSONAL PSYCHOTHERAPY

294
Q

Therapeutic focus on the on pt’s current social functioning is most characteristic of:

A

INTERPERSONAL PSYCHOTHERAPY

295
Q

26 y/o pt with depressed mood and dissatisfaction with life, feeling isolated and having few friends who is not under undue stress and historically copes well with personal problems would benefit from what type of psychotherapy?

A

INTERPERSONAL THERAPY

296
Q

Which psychotherapy would therapist be inclined to gratify pts’ dependency needs?

A

SUPPORTIVE

297
Q

Pt enters psychotherapy because of problems in his relationship with his wife. During the sessions, pt talks about his family of origin, his boss, and his problems at work, but never discusses details about his wife. This is an example of which of the following?

A

RESISTANCE

298
Q

Principle of confrontation:

A

“I THINK YOU’D RATHER TALK ABOUT YOUR JOB THAN FACE THE SADNESS YOU FELT IN OUR LAST SESSION”

299
Q

Example of empathic comment

A

“YOU MUST FEEL TERRIBLE RIGHT NOW.”

300
Q

Recovering addict in relapse prevention therapy, and has many risk factors. Rather than developing a coping strategy for each risk factor, do what?

A

FOCUS ON SKILL TRAINING, COGNITIVE REFRAMING, AND LIFESTYLE INTERVENTIONS