Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SURGERY > Trauma and Burns > Flashcards

Trauma and Burns Flashcards

1
Q

Most common indication for intubation

A

Altered Mental Status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Always your first priority in the primary survey

A

Securing airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Signs of basilar skull fracture

A

CSF rhinorrhea
Raccoon eyes
Battle’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Narrowest part of adult airway

A

Glottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Narrowest part of child airway

A

Cricoid cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Preferred age for tracheostomy

A

Under 11 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This endotracheal intubation is done usually in pre hospital setting

A

Nasotracheal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where do you insert your needle tension pneumothorax for adult and children?

A

Adult: 4th to 5th ICS MAL
Child: 2nd ICS MAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Indications for emergency endotracheal intubation (6)

A

Acute airway obstruction
Hypoventilation
Severe hypoxemia despite supplemental oxygen
Altered mental status
Cardiac arrest
Severe hemorrhagic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Occurs when 3 or more contiguous ribs are fractured in at least 2 locations

A

Flail chest with underlying pulmonary contusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Free communication between pleural space and atmosphere

A

Open pneumothorax (sucking chest wound)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Collection of blood in the space between the chest wall and pleural cavity

A

Massive Hemothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Definitive treatment for open pneumothorax

A

Closure of chest wall defect and closed tube thoracostomy remote from the wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Treatment for flail chest

A

Presumptive intubation and mechanical ventilation (PEEP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Types of tracheobronchial injury

A

Type 1 - within 2 cm of carina
Type 2 - almost always accompanied by pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Classic description of neurogenic shock (4)

A

Paralysis
Warm and pink extremities
Bradycardia
Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

At which class of shock will you start transfusing blood products?

A

Class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Initial fluid resuscitation for shock patients

A

20 mL/kg intravenous bolus isotonic crystalloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where do you perform intraosseous infusion?

A

Proximal tibia or distal femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cardiac tamponade occurs more commonly in what type of injury?

A

Penetrating thoracic injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Amount of pericardial blood that may cause tamponade

A

Less than 100 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Beck triad

A

Hypotension
Dilated neck veins
Muffled heart tones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cardiac tamponade with an SBP of < 60 mmHg will warrant ____.

A

Emergency department thoracotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

EDT is best accomplished using ____.

A

Left anterolateral thoracotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Preferred test for diagnosis of cardiac tamponade

A

Echocardiography

26
Q

Hard Signs for Vascular Injury (3)

A

Acute ischemia
Absent pulse
Pulsatile hemorrhage

27
Q

Distal radius fracture with dorsal angulation (“dinner-fork”)

A

Colle’s fracture

28
Q

Distal radius fracture with volar angulation (“Reverse Colle’s”)

A

Smith’s Fracture

29
Q

Fracture at the base of 5th metatarsal diaphysis

A

Jone’s Fracture

30
Q

Fracture of the metacarpal neck

A

Boxer’s fracture

31
Q

Ulnar fracture

A

Nightstick fracture

32
Q

Fracture of C6-C7 spinous processes

A

Clay shoveler’s fracture

33
Q

Fracture at C2 pedicles

A

Hangman’s fracture

34
Q

Fracture at C1 ring

A

Jefferson fracture

35
Q

Fracture of the proximal third of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head

A

Monteggia fracture

36
Q

Fracture of the middle-distal third of radius with dislocation of the radioulnar joint

A

Galeazzi fracture

37
Q

dislocation of the radioulnar joint

A

Piedmont fracture

38
Q

Fracture of distal fibula

A

Pott’s fracture

39
Q

Indications for Damage Control Surgery (3)

A

▪️refractory hypothermia (<35 C)
▪️profound acidosis (pH <7.2 or base deficit > 15mmol/L)
▪️refractory coagulopathy

40
Q

Most commonly from ruptured middle meningeal artery

A

Acute Epidural Hematoma

41
Q

Lentiform and hyperdense hematoma in between the inner table of the skull and the dura

A

Acute Epidural Hematoma

42
Q

Crescentic and hyperdense hematoma in between the dura and the arachnoid covering the brain

A

Acute Subdural Hematoma

43
Q

Crescentic and hypodense (liquefied) hematoma

A

Chronic subdural hematoma

44
Q

Most common finding in fatal head trauma

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

45
Q

Widespread shearing of axons due to forces with severe angular acceleration-deceleration

A

Diffuse axonal injury

46
Q

Bleeding usually from torn bridging veins

A

Acute subdural hematoma

47
Q

Most common facial fracture

A

Condyle

48
Q

Most common cause of burn injury for hospital admission

A

Flame burn

49
Q

Identify the degree of burn:
Painful
No blisters
Blanching

A

1st degree
(Superficial)

50
Q

Identify the degree of burn:
Extremely painful
Blister formation
Blanching

A

Second degree
(Partial thickness)

51
Q

Identify the degree of burn
Less painful
White or pale

A

Second degree
(Partial thickness)

52
Q

Identify the degree of burn
Painless
Feathery
Non-blanching

A

Third degree
(Full thickness)

53
Q

Identify the degree of burn:
Affects the underlying tissue

A

4th degree burn

54
Q

Identify the degree of burn:
Goes through muscle to bone

A

5th Degree Burn

55
Q

Identify the degree of burn:
Charring of bone present

A

6th Degree Burn

56
Q

Used primarily as a prophylactic agent against burn wound infection

A

Silver sulfadiazine

57
Q

Can cause neutropenia

A

Silver sulfadiazine

58
Q

Effective in the presence of an eschar

A

Mafenide acetate

59
Q

Can cause metabolic acidosis (due to carbonic anhydrase inhibition)

A

Mafenide acetate

60
Q

Can cause hyponatremia and methemoglobinemia, black stains

A

Silver nitrate

SURGERY (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions