Trauma Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are the immediate instinctual responses to trauma?

A

Fight or Flight, Dissociative/freeze reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Patricia Resicks Socio-cognitive theory and cognitive processing theory consider the secondary emotions of guilt and shame to be ________. (these occur after primary emotions e.g fear, anger and sadness)

A

Manufactured Emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is “hindsight bias”

A

Belief that you should have know that the event was going to happen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following symptoms may children display after exposure to a traumatic event? A. Nightmares, B. bedwetting, C. Reenactment behaviours, D. All of the Above

A

D. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are reenactment behaviours?

A

In some way replicating the trauma. Including victim or victimiser roles resulting in harm to others, self-destructiveness or revictimisation. Lingering behavioural enactment and automatic repetition of the past.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Dissociative symptoms are included among the criteria for all of the following disorders EXCEPT: A. Posttraumatic stress disorder B. Acute stress disorder, C. Dissociative identity disorder, D. Adjustment disorder.

A

D. Adjustment disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which theory regarding children’s adjustment following exposure to parental/caregiver violence suggests that children develop beliefs about the usefulness and appropriateness of aggressive behaviour?

A

Social Learning Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

After a trauma, what is the ripple effect?

A

When a trauma affects the family members, friends and community of the victim.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How common is trauma?

A

50% + (Norris 69%, Creamer 57%, Nixon 75%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is the rate of PTSD lower then the rate of trauma?

A

Most people adjust and recover without formal treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) according to the DSM-IV

A
  1. Criteria A Stressor (the trauma) 2. Diagnosed between 2days and 4 weeks after trauma. 3. 3x dissociative symptoms 4. at least 1x re-experiencing symptoms OR avoidance OR hyperarousal. MUST cause clinically significant distress or impairment MUST not be due to effects of substances or a general medical condition.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List some dissociative symptoms

A

numbing, reduced awareness, derealisation, depersonalisation, traumatic amnesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Problems with ASD as a diagnosis? and by extension problems with it’s heavy reliance on dissociative symptoms.

A

Lack of research - heavy reliance on restrospective accounts. Hard to draw a line between peri (during) and post-trauma experience. Dissociation no necessarily found to predict poor outcome. Dissociation not found to predict PTSD - when ASD is meant purported to predict PTSD. Dissociation is vague and hard to measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Should ASD be used as the sole predictor of PTSD? Why/why not?

A

No. Because individuals who don’t develop ASD can still develop PTSD - particularly given the over-reliance on dissociative symptoms. STATS/Detail 75-78% hit chance (Richard Bryant), BUT of those who were subthreshold (i.e had less than 3 dissociative symptoms, but all other symptoms) 60-70% met criteria for PTSD. The need for dissociation symptoms is not absolute. Dissociative symptoms have better negative than positive predicting power and the cluster of symptoms are highly correlated (i.e may be the same construct).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List predictors of ASD development.

A

Premorbid psychiatric and trauma history Deppression reaction to trauma Avoidant coping style Tendency to use dissociative mechanisms may also contribute (mixed role) Premorbid and post trauma unhelpfull cognitions (how one views/makes sense of the trauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In ASD in children, why is it important to ask/talk to the child victim?

A

Parents are less likely (62%) to consider a traumatic event a CRITERIA than the child themselves (92%) Could be parents underestimate or children overestimate or that children tell their parents that the trauma was not severe so as not to upset them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are risk factors for ASD in children?

A

Prior psychopathology, Permanent injury sustained, parent’s stress over trauma, age (debatable), female (debatable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the PROPSED ASD diagnosis criteria in the new DSM-5?

A

A. Criteria A trauma B. Presence of 9 (or more) of the following symptoms in any of the four categories: intrusion (4), dissociation (3), avoidance (2) and arousal (5) - that begun or worsened after the traumatic events occurred. C. Duration 3days –> 1 months following trauma D. Impariment E. Not due to substance/medical reason or brief psychotic disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for PTSD

A

A. Criteria A stressor (direct and indirect exposure) B. diagnosed after 4 weeks C. Immediate trauma response involved fear, horror, helplessness THREE CLUSTERS OF SYMPTOMS D. re-experiencing symptoms (thoughts nightmares, flashbacks) E. Avoidance (effortfull/numbing/amnesia) F. Hyperarousal (startle, hypervigilance, insomnia) G. Causes significant distress or impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are re-experiencing symptoms?

A

intrusive thoughts, nightmares or flashbacks regarding the traumatic experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the PROPOSED DSM-5 PTSD diagnostic criteria?

A

A. exposure to trauma - but now includes extreme exposure to adverse details of trauma (e.g first responders) A2 dropped - no longer requires that the trauma induced intense fear, horror or helplessness. FOUR rather than three clusters of symptoms B. 1 re-experiencing/intrusive symptoms C. 1 Avoidance (active) symptoms D. 2 Alterations in cognition and mood (with new items) E. Hyperarousal (now also includes self-destructive or reckless behaviour)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the DSM-5 PTSD symptoms that are “alterations in cognition and mood”?

A

persistent and exaggerated negative beliefs or expectations about oneself, others or the world. Persistent distorted blame of self or others about the cause or consequences of the traumatic event. Persistent negative emotional state. Amnesia and lack of interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does the DSM-5 PTSD criteria for children under 6 (sub-type) differ to that of adults?

A

Less clusters, less symptoms required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The DSM-5 includes a PTSD subtype for children under 6, what is the other sub-type?

A

Sub-type of PTSD with prominent dissociative (depersonalisation/derealisation) symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the rate of PTSD as measures as lifetime prevalence and 12 month prevalence.

A

8% lifetime (Kessler) 1.33% (Australian rate over 12 months) 6.4% (Slade et al. 2009, 12 month prevalence) <— different/better way of asking questions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What type of trauma yields the highest rates of PTSD?

A

Interpersonal Trauma! Sexual assault (31-47-94%) depending on time when assessed. Intimate partner violence (31-84%) War (30-67%) Refugees (50-90%) Physical assalts (13%) Motor vehicle accident (12%) Disaster (8-10%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What % of PTSD will have a comorbid disorder?

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

List the common comorbids of PTSD

A

Depression, substance misuse/abuse and anxiety disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does comorbid depression interact with trauma and PTSD? (give % and interaction with trauma w/o ptsd, ptsd after trauma and prior depression etc)

A

MDD (Major Depression Disorder) 30-50% of PTSD Trauma PTSD = 4x more likely to develop depression. Trauma exposure without PTSD = normal chance of depression Prior depression = increased risk for exposure to trauma AND ptsd after trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the DSM-IV criteria for depression?

A

Major depressive episode 5 symptoms over the past 2 weeks. *depressed mood most of the day, daily or nearly daily *decreased interest in activities/reduced pleasure *Weight gain/loss nearly everyday *Poor sleep *Psychomotor retardation or agitation *Fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day *Sense of worthlessness/guilt *Decreased concentration *Suicidal ideation; recurrent thoughts of death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the DSM-IV criteria for substance abuse?

A

A maladaptive pattern of substance use leading to significant clinical impairment or distress over the past 12 months. 3 of the following: 1. Tolerance 2. Withdrawal 3. Large amounts taken 4. Desire or attempt to cut down 5. Time spent obtaining substance 6. Social occupational, recreational activities given up on reduced due to substance. Use continues despite knowledge of physical and psychological effects of use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the DSM-IV criteria for Anxiety (panic attacks and panic disorder)

A

Panic attack = discrete period of intense fear in which 4 or more of the following symptoms develop abruptly and reach peak within 10 minutes. *increased heart rate (palpitations/pounding) *Sweating *Trembling/shaking *Derelisation/depersonalisation *Fear of losing control/dying *Sensations of shortness of breath or smothering *Feeling of choking *Paresthesias (numbness or tingling sensation) *Chest pain or discomfort *Feeling dizzy lightheaded or faint *Chills or hot flushes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Why is looking at panic attacks important in regards to trauma? (percentages)

A

Common during trauma, high prevalence after trauma - both more-so if person is diagnosed with ASD STATS - Peritraumatic (during) panic rates approx 53-90% depending on type of trauma} 100% of people diagnosed with ASD experienced a panic attack at the time of their trauma versus. 47% who were exposed to trauma and not diagnosed with ASD. 93% of ASD participants had recurrent panic attacks after trauma versus. 7% of non-ASD participants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Who is the primary psychologist/researcher/proponent of Emotional Processing Theory?

A

Edna Foa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Outline the Emotional Processing Theory? (Adjustment following trauma) (clue: development, activation, how good adjustment occurs [i.e theory underlining treatment])

A
  1. trauma trigger the development of a memory framework that is extremely sensitive to what is perceived to be danger-related cues or materials. 2. When this network is activated reexperiencing or intrusive thoughts of the trauma occur but, people then attempt to shut this process down (mental or physical avoidance). 3. Good adjustment occurs when 1. people access trauma memory and habituate to the anxiety the memory causes. 2. New learning occurs (new associations become stronger than old associations) *Cognitions such as lack of competency and the world being dangerous are argued to be core unhelpful beliefs that maintain symptoms.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Who is the primary psychologist/researcher/proponent of Socio-cognitive theories?

A

Patricia Resick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is/are the socio-cognitive theories?

A

Theories based on the idea that after primary and basic emotions that occur when a trauma occurs (fear, anger, sadness) MANUFACTURED emotions can occur (shame, guilt etc) which interfere with recovery. Proponents of these theories stress the importance of the MEANING of the event. In particular, how people appraise themselves and the world significantly contribute to post-trauma adjustment. They agree that interference of information being processed occurs when it conflicts with prior thought patterns/styles (or schema) some support for the theory - see littleton & grills-taquechel, 2011

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In Socio-cognitive theories, why do manufactured emotions (e.g guilt) occur?

A

They occur because of distorted perceptions and cognitions if there is a lot of emotion post-trauma, this interferes with cognitive process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

According to Patricia Resick and socio-cognitive theories, what is assimilation, accommodation and over-accomodation respectively?

A

Belief systems: Assimilation - change the meaning or interpretation of the event (poor response) Accommodation - Adjust schemes/belief in light of the event (reasonable adjustment) Over-accomodation - over-generalize and rigidly change schemas after the event (poor response) Can both ASSIMILATE and OVERACCOMODATE at the same time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In socio-cognitive theories of trauma response what is a schema?

A

Prior thought patterns/styles/beliefs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How does Edna Foa’s Emotonal Processing Theory (Information processing theory) explain and suggest treating trauma response? (EPT)

A

Trauma occurs -> memory frame-work develops that is sensitive to danger-cues (attentional bias). When memory framework is ACTIVATED (by cues) = re-experiencing and intrusive thoughts

Two responses: avoidant (maladaptive) or habituation to anxiety/new learning (adaptive).

Core unhelpfull beliefs (e.g lack of competency, world is dangerous) maintain symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How is Cognitive Processing therapy used (resick) to treat PTSD?

A

CPT begins with the trauma memory and focuses on feelings, beliefs and thoughts that directly emanated from the traumatic event. The therapist then helps the client examine whether the trauma appeared to disrupt of confirm beliefs prior to this experience, and how much the clients have overgeneralized (over-accomodated) or attempt to undo the event (assimilation) from the event to their beliefs about themselves and the world. Clients are then taught to challenge their own self-statements and to modify their extreme beliefs to bring them in balance.

Write an account of the trauma including meaning (read daily), taught to challenge and replace maladaptive thoughts and beliefs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How is treatment for children sufferers of child abuse differ from treatment of adults with PTSD?

A

Also includes modeling disclosure ofabuse-related information, focus on coping stratergies, gradual exposure usng alternative exposure methods of child’s choice (doll, play, imagery, drawing, reading, letter writing, poetry and singing). Education and revictimisation prevention.

Also therapy with non-offending parent to prevent behaviours that may foster PTSD in their child.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is flooding and what is systematic desensitisation SD)? What is the difference?

A

Flooding differs from SD n that the exposures are based on extended exposure to moderate or strong fear-producing cues. (both imaginal and in vivo)

Systematic desentisation is the gradual exposure to fear-provoking stimuli based on a hierachy from least-worst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing therapy? (EMDR)

A

The theory that lateral eye movements facilitate cognitive processing of the trauma.

No contains a number of components, incldign both exposure and cognitive components. The core ‘lateral eye movement’ procedure involves 1. visualising the memory, 2 rehearsing the negative thoughts, 3 concentrating on the physical sensation of the anxiety and 4 visually tracking the therapists index finger as it moves rapidly back and forth 30-35 cm from the clients face with 2 back-and-forth movements per second. This is epeated 24 times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How good at predicting PTSD is ASD?

A

Around 75-78%, but of those who were subthreshold on dissociative symptoms alone 60-70% met criteria for PTSD - indicating that the need for dissociation symptoms is not absolute. ASD has better negative predictive power than positive predictive power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Why is it important to ask children directly about their experience or symptoms of trauma?

A

Parents tend to say a traumatic vent was criteria a less often (62%) than the child themselves (92%)

why?: many reasons, child does not tell parent to protect them, seems bigger to the child, parents underestimate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the risk factors for ASD in children?

A
  • Prior psychopathology
  • permenent injury sustained
  • Parent’s stress over trauma
  • age (debated - younger)
  • female (debated)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the prevalence of PTSD? (lifetime and current measurements)

A

8% lifetime, 1.33-6.4%(better study) over the ‘last 12 months’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What percentage of PTSD have Major depression disorder as a comorbidity?

A

30-50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What percentage of people later diagnoses with ASD experience a panic attack during the trauma?

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What percentage of people NOT diagnosed with ASD experienced a panic attack during the trauma?

A

47%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Recurrent panic attacks in the days/weeks after traum occur in what percent of ASD-diagnosed trauma victims? (in one study)

A

93% (versus 7% of non-ASD participants)

54
Q

Patricia Resick’s socio-cognitive theory provides the theory for which PTSD treatment?

A

Cognitive Processing Therapy

55
Q

What is Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT)?

A

Cognitive processing therapy (CPT) is an adaptation of the evidence-based therapy known as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) used by clinicians to help consumers explore recovery from posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and related conditions. It is a manualized therapy that includes common elements from general cognitive-behavioral treatments.

During the course of CPT, the primary focus is to help patients gain an understanding of, and modify the meaning attributed to, their traumatic event. In pursuit of this objective, an important goal of CPT is to decrease the pattern of avoiding the trauma memory so that beliefs and meanings can be further evaluated and understood within the original context.

56
Q

What is the difference between CPT and CPT-C?

A

2 Formats:
CPT includes a brief written trauma account component, along with ongoing practice of cognitive techniques: patients discuss their traumatic experiences in efforts to clarify and modify their maladaptive beliefs. Clinicians use Socratic dialogue to discuss the details of the trauma, which helps patients gently challenge their thinking about their traumatic event and become increasingly able to consider the context in which the event occurred, with the goal of decreasing self-blame and guilt and increasing acceptance.

CPT-Cognitive (CPT-C) omits the written trauma account, and includes more practice of cognitive techniques: relies instead on Socratic dialogue between therapist and client to bring out the details of the trauma that might refute the client’s assumptions and appraisals about their worst traumatic experience

57
Q
A
58
Q

In Patricia Resick’s socio-cognitive theory, what is assimilation? is it a adaptive or maladaptive response to trauma?

A

Assimilation is when a trauma victim changes the meaning or interpretation of the event so it fits into their prexisting schema, instead of reconciling/modifying.

i.e ignoring the trauma’s conflict with their current schemas.

It is maladaptive.

59
Q

In Patricia Resick’s socio-cognitive theory, what is Accomodation? is it a adaptive or maladaptive response to trauma?

A

When a victim of trauma adjusts schemas/beliefs in light of the event. reasonable adjustment.

It is adaptive.

60
Q

In Patricia Resick’s socio-cognitive theory, what is overaccomodation? is it an adaptive or maladaptive response to trauma?

A

when a trauma victim overgeneralises and ridgidly vchange schemas after the event.

i.e all-or-nothing beliefs “the world is a totally unsafe place”

61
Q

What theory of trauma response is Chris Brewin the major propnent/research of?

A

Dual-representational theory.

62
Q

What are the 2 levels that information is processed at, according to dual-representational theory?

A
  1. Consciously through verbally accessible memory (VAM) which is information about some sensory input, some emotion and some physiological reactivity which occurs at the time of the trauma.
  2. Non-conscious processing, through situationally accessed memory (SAM) this is extensive memory but cannot be deliberately accessed and cannot be easily altered. Contains emotions that were conditioned during the traumatic event (e.g fear and anger), from which secondary emotions can occur. This information may be accessed automatically when an individual is faced with triggers of the trauma, such that intrusive and re-experiencing symptoms can occur.
63
Q

Dual representations theory is a combonation of which two theories of trauma response?

A

Socio-cognitive theory - VAMs (resick) and Emotional Processing Theory (Foa) - SAMs

64
Q

According to dual-representational theory, how is truam (and symptoms) resolved?

A
  1. Activate the SAM and feed in corrective information which can be corrective cognitive information and sensory data (e.g relaxation)
  2. The VAM needs to be adressed with conscious examination of the belief system.
65
Q

In regards to child abuse - what are ‘notifications’?

A

Contact made to an authorised department by persons or other bodies making allegations of child abuse or neglect.

66
Q

In regards to child abuse - what are ‘Investigations’?

A

The process of obtaining more detailed information about a child who is the subject of a notification and the assessment of the degree of harm or risk of harm for that child.

67
Q

In regards to child abuse - what are ‘Substantiation’?

A

It is concluded after investigation that the child has been, is being or is likely to be abused or neglected or otherwise harmed. Then a decision is made regarding appropriate level of continued involvement by the state or territoty child protection and support services.

68
Q

What are the rates of child abuse in South Australia? (notifications and substantuated cases)

A

20,298 notifications

1815 substabtuated case

but rates are most-likely high because of willingness to report.

Recent ‘increases’ in child abuse could simply be an increase in reporting due to less-acceptance and more awareness of child abuse.

69
Q

In psychological maltreatment (abuse), what is ‘spurning’?

A

Rejecting, degrading, shaming and humiliation

70
Q

In psychological maltreatment (abuse), what is ‘terrorizing’?

A

Threatning, placing in dangerous situations

71
Q

In psychological maltreatment (abuse), what is ‘isolating’?

A

unreasonable limitations on social interaction, confining

72
Q

In psychological maltreatment (abuse), what is ‘Exploiting/corrupting’?

A

encouraging inappropriate behaviour

73
Q

In psychological maltreatment (abuse), what is ‘denying emotional response’?

A

ignoring

74
Q

What is psychological maltreatment?

A

Tends to be a chronic behavioural pattern direted at a child whereby a child’s self-esteem and social competence are undermined or erroded over time.

75
Q

What are some of the consequences of psychological maltreatment (of a child)?

A

Interpersonal - poor attachment, poor social skills.

Emotional - low self-esteem, withdrawal, shame/guilt.

Cognitive - learning difficulty, poor verbal reasoning, lower IQ.

Psychological - Anxiety, deppression, personality disorder, suicidality.

Behavioural - Aggression, over-reliance on adults for support and help, attention problems.

76
Q

Why has research into emotional/psychological abuse tended to lag behind that of sexual or physical abuse?

A
  • often seen as less detrimental
  • Hard to objectively measure emotional abuse
  • Correlational nature of research
77
Q

What factors of the family are associated with child exposure to violence? What factors of family reduce the likelyhood that a child will be exposed to violence?

A

Better functioning families (communication/rights/democratic) = less violence

Less funtioning families (chaotic, hierachial, dominate) = more violence, in particular if the father is aggressive, critical or authoritarian.

78
Q

When a child is exposed to (e.g witnesses) domestic violence against one of their parents, does it increase their risk of other forms of abuse? How does it affect their support network with the abused parent?

A

Yes, it increases their risk of other forms of abuse.

The abused parent (and abuser parent) are unlikely to be able to provide good emotional support for the child.

79
Q

When a child is exposed to (e.g witnesses) domestic violence against one of their parents, what effect does this have on their emotional, behavioural, cognitive, social and physical well-being?

A
  • Emotional - guilt, low-self esteem, trauma reactions, internalizing problems (CBCL)
  • Behavioural - Extrenalizing problems (CBCL), AOD problems
  • Cognitive - poor academic performance, poor problem solving
  • Physical - somatic complaints, health problems
  • Social - poor peer relationships
80
Q

What factors confound research into child abuse or exposure to abuse?

A
  • Multiple subtypes of abuse, different types of abuse leading to different outcomes
  • Types of exposure not taken into account (direct, hearing, seeing bruises)
  • Individual difference in terms of protective and vulnerability factors for children to have maladaptive adjustment probaby vary, but not always taken into account in research.
81
Q

What three theories have been proposed to explain the poor adjustment of children after exposure (witnessing) violence?

A

Social learning theory, PTSD, attachment theory.

82
Q

What is the Social learning theory, as proposed to explain the poor adjustment of children after exposure (witnessing) violence?

A

Observation of aggression, becomes acceptable, failure to learn alternative resolution skills, continue poor problem solving stratergies.

83
Q

What is the PTSD, as proposed to explain the poor adjustment of children after exposure (witnessing) violence?

A

Reactions occur due to the traumatic nature of the violence

84
Q

What is the Attachment theory, as proposed to explain the poor adjustment of children after exposure (witnessing) violence?

A

Poor attachment formed to parents, interfere with the parent-child relationship, now at increased risk of behavioural problems.

85
Q

What factors increase the risk of a child experiencing ill-effects from abuse?

A

The chronicity, severity and type of abuse + who was the perpatrator

Child factors: gender (female usually worse, but this could be a product of the types of trauma exposed to),a ge, intelligence, coping abilties, thinking styles (attributions e.g it’s my fault vs. it’s the abusers fault), trauma cognitions (beliefs about the abuse e.g my life has been destroyed vs, I will get over this)

86
Q

What factors decrease the risk of a child experiencing ill-effects from abuse?

A

Social support, non-offending parent, alternative positive role models, response from others is validating (e.g believed, helped, not-blamed)

87
Q

Why might nonintimate sexual revicamisation occur?

A

Continuation of previous risk-factors. no. of sexual partners. alcohol use. Learned helplessness.

88
Q

Why my intimate sexual revictimisation occur?

A
  • Low sexual refusal assertiveness, drug use
  • Continuation of previous risk factors. Learned helplessness.
  • Subtle queues picked up by predatory perpatrators.
  • Continuation of ongoing abusive relationship.
89
Q

Why is drug-use predictive of intimate sexual revictimisation, but alcohol use (and not drug-use) is predictive of non-intimate sexual revictimisation?

A

Findings are consistent with prior research indicating that perpetrators who are less well acquainted with the victim are more likely to use intoxication tactics than are intimate partners, who already have sexual access. heavy episodic drinking, because it typically occurs outside the home and in the presence of others who are also drinking, reflects a lifestyle that poses a greater risk for sexual victimization by men who are less well known.

Women who use drugs, may also have partners who use drugs. Drug use occurs more privately and is linked with aggressive or sexual abuse.

90
Q

What is the best treatment for PTSD?

A

Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy

91
Q

What is Imaginal exposure? (PTSD treatment) (CBT)

A

Involves exposure to the feared memory for extended periods of time (45-60 minutes) with an ai of teaching clients that their anxiety habituates if they remain focused on the memory. Also corrective information can be included.

92
Q

What is ‘in vivo’ exposure? (CBT)

A

Involves gradual exposure (exposure heirachy) to real situations that cause fear anxiety and are avoided (but which are objectively safe situations)

93
Q

What is cognitive Therapy (CT) [CBT]? (Aaron Beck)

A

Originally designed by Aaron Beck for treatment of depression, CT techniques have been used to treat a variety of disorders, including ASD and PTSD.

It involes examining the thinking patterns/styles of victims and teaching clients to challenge and realistically appraise unhelpful, distorted or maladaptive beliefs.

94
Q

What is Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT) (patricia Resick)

A

Combins Cognitive Therapy (CT) techniques with exposure techniques (writing of trauma). In order to allow appropriate emotional processing and to examine/challenge secondary emotions such as guilt and shame.

  • Uses a written trauma account, no verbal exposure.
  • Strong cognitive component targetting theme sof self-blame, safety, trust, esteem, power/control, intimacy
  • Focus on assimilation or over-accomodation beliefs in therapy.
95
Q

What is ‘intention to treat’ measures and why are they important in a study?

A

Includes the follow-up and analysis of participants regardless of how much treatment has occured, including partial treatment or zero treatment.

Because nobody wants a therapy that nobody wants to do (high attrition). The measure gets an idea of attrition and response to partial treatment.

96
Q

Is trauma-focused therapy widely used ? if not, why not?

A

Not widely used amongst community clinicians or non-trauma specialist clincians. 10-25% using non-evidence based trauma

Because:

Practitioner

  • Pre-existing skills
  • Beleifs exp regarding evidence-based practice and beliefs specific to trauma focussed therapy
  • Self efficacy

Training

  • Accessibility, cost
  • stand alone versus ongoing consult/support, format of training
  • Availiability of supervisor etc

System

  • Trauma-informed
  • group cohesiveness
  • Leadership
  • Practical - staffing levels, resources, waiting lists.
97
Q

What traumas might a child experience?

A

CSA - Child sexual abuse

CPA - child physical abyse

Exposure to violence (IPV)

Natural disaster

Exposure to violence - war

Emotional abuse

Single-incident trauma (car accident)

98
Q

What is the treament of choice for children suffering PTSD?

A

CBT - Cognitive Behavioural Therapy

But needs more investigation, particularly in children.

99
Q

What is the AIM of CBT-treatments for children trauma victims?

A

To provide children and parents with a tool-box of stratergies to manage their trauma symptoms.

100
Q

How is CBT conducted (differently to adults) for child trauma victims?

A
  • Therapy is time limited
  • rapport between tharapist and child is highlighted
  • Making therapy interesting
  • Parents may be involved (moreso in younger children), but it is important that therapy skills are reinforced at home
  • Use of behavioural management (praise, ignore, time-outs, use of behaviour charts)
  • Reduce fear and avoidance by modelling and gradul exposure
101
Q

What 3 areas does CBT consist of? (for children)

A
  • Coping skills
  • Emotional expression = vocab. emotion charts, identification of emotion, appropriate vs. inappropriate management of emotion.
  • Cognitive coping = relationship of thought, feelings and behaviour; target distorted/trauma related congitions and how to challenge them.
  • Relaxation = proggressive muscle relaxation (PMR)
  • Graded exposure, cognitive and affective processing of the trauma.
  • imaginal exposure (graded)
  • in vivo (graded)
  • cognitive and affective processing of the trauma = after exposure, examine thoughts and feelings about rauma and cognitive distortions or misperceptions to be further adressed and challenged.
  • Education

information about the natures and causes of trauma symptoms provided to parents and children.

for CSA - safety skills, correct information, what is and is not appropriate touching and assertion skills.

102
Q

What is ‘traumatic amnesia’?

A

an inability to remember certain facts and experiences that can not be attributted to ordinary forgetting - triggered by and about a traumatic event.

103
Q

What is the difference between organic and psychogenic amnesia?

A

Organic amnesia is caused by events, such as a blow to the head, that produce memory loss by damaging the brain. Psychogenic amnesia is caused by events whoes psychological or emotional meaning produces memory loss without damaging the brain. (usually retrograde amnesia, rarely anterograde)

104
Q

How does psychogenic and traumatic amnesia differ?

A

psychogenic amnesia is short term, involves loss of personal identity, non-specific loss of ‘time’ and recovers quickly without psychotherapy.

Traumatic amnesia is typicall long-term (lasting many years), does not involve the loss of personal identity and usually only involves the ‘loss’ of the memory of a specific event.

105
Q

Why might a women being robbed at gunpoint by a man, not remember the man’s face?

A

Fails to encode the mans face into memory due to focus on the weapon.

106
Q

Are victims more or less likely to remember a trauma that is more severe?

A

The evidence points to them being more likely to remember.

107
Q

What is ‘repression’?

A

An automatic, unconcious process, that removes a memory from consciousness and prevents it from being recalled later.

proponents of ‘recovered memory’ in trauma victims arue that certain types of trauma, especially prolonger sexual abuse, are likely to result in repression. and that these memories must be ‘recovered’ in order to progress therapeutically.

108
Q

What are the problems with evidence cited by repressed/recovered memory proponents?

A
  • Confusing avoidance of thinking about trauma memories with amnesia.
  • Misintepretation of studies (see MCnally) - poorly operationalised or explained “amnesia”
  • Confusing everyday forgetting (or DMV-IV memory symptoms of PTSD) with Amnesia for trauma
  • Difficult getting corroboration regarding the truth of traumatic events

in addition:

  • memory ability of young-children-tend ot forget over time
  • May know trauma has happened, but have incomplete details (this is normal)
  • Overlooks substantial evidence that the more distressing the event, thre more likely it is to be remembered
  • Flies in the face of what we know about autobiographical memory tending to fade over time, not beginning weak and becoming more vivid.
  • After-trauma, people may not report it due to forgetting, social desirability, shame etc
109
Q

How can the stroop test be used as evidence against repressed-recovered memories? how can directed forgetting be used ?

A

Stroop task - typical effect for PTSD sufferers is delayed response on trauma related words.

PArticipants presented with words (trauma, positive, neutral etc) and told to remember some and forget others. PSTD group had better memory for trauma words,

110
Q

What is the forgot-it-all-along effect?

A

underestimation of prior recollections of past events.

failure by people to remember what they had remembered. The basic idea is that during the discovered memory experience, the person thinks about the episode in a different way.

111
Q

What factors seem to influence the forgetting of something previously remembered?

A
  • re- membering a past event in a different way can result in a failure to remember a prior instance of recalling that event. i.eWhen the memory in question is thought of differently (e.g different emotional frame) at first-recall than it is at second-recall
    e. g from a study in the readings:

“were more likely to forget that they had pre- viously recalled a studied item if they were cued to think of it differently on two recall tests than if they were cued to think of it in the same way on the two tests. “

112
Q

how might people’s beliefs that they have ‘repressed memories’ be explained?

Are some people more prone to believing the have repressed memories, why?

A

it is possible that some victims of abuse underestimate their prior recollections of the abuse when they recall the abuse in a qualitatively different manner than they did previously, leading to a false impression of having had repressed memories.

There is evidence that individuals reporting recovered memories are more prone to memory distortions than other in- dividuals are reported an association between reporting recovered memories and tendencies toward dissociation, which in turn appear to be related to susceptibility to memory errors.

113
Q

Whymight someone want to believe they had been traumatised when it wasn’t actually true? (i.e false memories)

A

May be seeking a source of their current feelings/life-situation, perception that finding a ‘repressed’ trauma offers tremendous relief.

114
Q

What are Mazzoni’s etc al. steps to constructing a false and unusual memory?

A
  1. A person is presented/exposed/suggested information that increases their belief that the unusual event COULD occur.
  2. The person develops the belief that the event has occured to them.
  3. Thoughts/dreams/fantasies are interpreted as actual memories of a real event (typically aided by anauthority figure/therapist.
115
Q

How might we create false memories? (Mizzoni’s model key ideas)

A
  • Coax along, give information about ‘event’
  • pair with emotions - make a link between feelings now and symptoms now, being due to past event.
  • Ask leading questions, encourage confirmation bias
  • Be/use an authority figure to present this information
116
Q

What is autobiographival Memory?

A

Your personal life story, integral to self-identity, different types of autobiographical memory.

Contains both episodic and semantic memory

i.e specific: single incident, events (Detailed) and Overgeneral: repeated categories of events (e.g multiple lectures) or extended (lasting longer than a day, e.g holidays)

117
Q

How is autobiographical memory structured/formed?

A

Lifetime events (e.g life-stages/transitions)—-> general events (e.g going to lectures) —> specific events

118
Q

What is ‘direct retrieval’ (memory) and how is it affected by trauma?

A

Direct retrieval occurs when a cue is strong enough to spontaneously bring a memory to mind i.e straight to event specific knowledge.

Trauma, through direct retrieval, increases the likelhood of intrusive memories.

119
Q

What is ‘Generaitve retrieval’ (memory) and how is it affected by trauma?

A

Generative retrieval is voluntary, it is the controlled search of memory down the memory structure i.e from lifetime event -> general event -> specific event.

Trauma interupts the controlled search down the memory structure ‘gets stuck’. Unable to get all the way down through memory structure leading to overgeneral memory (OGM).

120
Q

What is an OverGeneral Memory (OGM)?

A

Inability to retrieve specific memories (when you ture).

Sometimes genralising memories is good for understanding what to do in new situations, but overgeneral memeory sometimes can’t/can’t access specific memory if they try

121
Q

According to William et al’s (2007) CARFAX model, what 3 factors interupt generative retrieval?

A

Rumintion, executive function and functional avoidance.

122
Q

According to William et al’s (2007) CARFAX model, how does rumination interupt generative retrieval?

A

When information relevent to the self captures/hijacks attention.

Lifetime event (being at uni) —> general event (going to parties) —> HIJACKED CAPTURED ATTENTION** aspects of the self, begin ruminating ‘no one talks to me at parties’

Does not make it to ….//—–> specific event

123
Q

According to William et al’s (2007) CARFAX model, how does (poor) executive functioning interupt generative retrieval?

A

Executive functioning = meta-cognitions to control/direct our mind.

Working memory - search is not controlled

Inhibition - irrelevant information is not restrained.

————–> —–> ————> (going to lectures) ———-> ——————–>

Lifetime events ——–> general events (going to party) //———> specific event (not reached!)

———–> ————–> —————> (working at the bar) ———–>

124
Q

According to William et al’s (2007) CARFAX model, how does functional avoidance interupt generative retrieval?

A

Specific memories are distressing —> avoid to regulate emotions.

125
Q

is OverGeneral memory positively or negatively related to PTSD at 6months post-trauma?

A

Negatively - High-OGM = low PTSD

Is an early protective factor.

126
Q

if OverGeneral Memory (OGM) is a early protective factor for PTSD, then why should we be concerned about it?

A

Its long term effects:

  • Impaired problem solving
  • Difficulty imagining future events
  • Poorer prognosis for depression
  • Long-term impact of ptsd is currently unclear.
127
Q

What mood disorder is Over-General Memory (OGM) a risk factor for?

A

Depression

128
Q

If Over-general Memory predicts/is a risk factor for, depression - what interventions might help?

A

OGM is malleable to chance through memory specificity training (otherwise it is relatively stable)

Interventions aimed at reducing OGM to reduce depression

129
Q

REVIEW of lecture content:

What are good future directions for clinical and research practise (methdology)?

A
  • Improved research
  • longitudinal research (improving on correllational research)
  • valid and reliable measures
  • Expanding theoretical conceptualisations (biological, genetic, environemnt)
  • Matching individuals to treatments
  • Randomisation, increased sample ize, better description of programs and participants
  • FOLLOW-UP
  • Prevention research and its evaluation
  • Appropriate training for other proffessionals, law enforcement, judicial.
130
Q

REVIEW of lecture content:

what were the main topics from week 1 - 6

A
  1. Trauma impact, clinical disorders, implications of DSM-5, natural recovary vs. PTSD
  2. Trauma theories and Child abuse, refinement of trauma theories, focus on psychological abuse in children. do we need a theory of maladjustment following child abuse or are disorder-specific theories enough?
  3. revicitimisation, are different types of revictimisations predicted by different factors. how will preventative programs take this into account.
  4. TREATMENTS for adults and childer. How to best treat non-responders, treating comorbidities, matching client to treatment, triage, role of care-giver in treatment outcomes, effective dissemination of evidence based therapies
  5. Flase/recovered memory - processes underlying recovered memories, greater testing within clinical samples.