Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

Ellis II dental fracture involves:

A

Enamel and dentin;

Immediate f/u required to prevent abscess

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2
Q

Ellis III dental fracture involves:

A

Pulp and blood;

Immediate f/u required to prevent abscess

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3
Q

Trauma with inability to look up;

what’s broken?

A

Inferior orbital wall with entrapment

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4
Q

What is the O’Riain wrinkle test?

A

Test the nerve to see if a finger wrinkles in warm water

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5
Q

The most sensitive bedside test for nerve injury in a finger after trauma is:

A

Two-point discrimination

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6
Q

Where should you place a needle for needle decompression?

A

2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, over the superior edge of the rib (to avoid the inferior running neuromuscular bundle)

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7
Q

What size needle should be used for needle decompression?

A

14 to 20 gauge

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8
Q

Traumatic proptosis with impaired extraocular movements;

dx?

A

Retrobulbar hematoma

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9
Q

Orbital blowout fracture causes entrapment of what muscle?

A

Inferior rectus

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10
Q

A ruptured globe presents with what symptom?

A

Enophthalmous, from vitreous humor leaking out of the eye

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11
Q
Anesthesia of infraorbital region;
Diplopia with upward gaze;
Epistaxis;
Infraorbital subcutaneous emphysema;
dx?
A

Orbital blowout fracture

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12
Q

Trauma to the eye with fluid level/meniscus in the anterior chamber;
dx?

A

Hyphema (collection of blood)

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13
Q

What is keratitis?

A

Corneal inflammation

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14
Q

Growth visible on the sclera which crosses the limbus into the cornea;
dx?

A

Pterygium

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15
Q

Central cord syndrome results from what kind of injury?

A

Hyperextension

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16
Q

Central cord syndrome occurs typically in what age group?

A

The elderly, with pre-existing degenerative joint disease

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17
Q

What is central cord syndrome?

A

The ligamentum flavum buckles into the cord, resulting in a contusion of the cord’s central portion

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18
Q

Sensation of the dorsal aspect of the foot and dirsiflexion of the foot;
What nerve?

A

L5;

Herniation of the L4-5 disc

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19
Q

Where is Zone 1 for penetrating neck injury?

A

Clavicles (Sternal notch) to cricoid cartilage

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20
Q

Where is Zone 2 for penetrating neck injury?

A

Cricoid cartilage to the angles of the mandibles

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21
Q

Where is Zone 3 for penetrating neck injury?

A

Above the angles of the mandible

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22
Q

What is the protocol for a Zone 1 penetrating trauma, regardless of whether a patient looks stable on physical exam?

A

Angiography
Esophogram
Admit for obs

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23
Q

T/F: A patient with a liver laceration who is hemodynamically stable can be managed conservatively.

A

True

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24
Q

Test of choice for diagnosing solid organ injury

A

CT

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25
After a trauma, a Foley yields gross hematuria. What is the best step to evaluate for urologic injury?
CT abdomen/pelvis with IV and transurethral contrast
26
ED thoractomy is not inducated for what kind of trauma?
Blunt; | low success rate
27
What kind of trauma has the best success rate for ED thoracotomy?
Penetrating
28
Best patient for ED thoracotomy has what?
Unconscious Pulseless Detectable BP (Penetrating chest wound)
29
Distal radius fx involves injury to what nerve?
Median nerve --> decreased sensation over thenar eminence
30
After a trauma, if the affected leg is internally rotated, what is the most likely injury?
Dislocation of hip
31
After a trauma, if the affected leg is externally rotated and abducted, what is the likely fx?
Femoral neck fx
32
Artery involved in knee dislocation
Popliteal
33
If Doppler does not detect pulses in the foot after knee dislocation, what is the appropriate management?
Immediate reduction in ED under conscious sedation without xray
34
In human bite wounds, what bacteria should be considered and treated for?
Eikenella corrodens (and staph and strep)
35
How should human bites be dressed?
Do not suture--let heal by secondary intention to reduce infection risk
36
Management for occult PTX?
100% O2
37
When is Heliox used?
Reactive airway disease with resistance to flow
38
Patients with anterior cord syndromes, such as central cord syndrome, have what kinds of symptoms?
Sensory
39
Paralysis and loss of pain and temperature bilaterally below the lesion; dx?
Brown-Sequard syndrome
40
Aortic injuries usually leak where?
Left hemithorax
41
Patients with high voltage injury commonly present with:
Burns | Deep burns occur in less than 5% of lightening injuries
42
Four types of burns/skin changes associated with high voltage electrical injury:
Linear burns; Punctate burns; Feathering; Thermal burns
43
A burn to 1 hand is what % SA?
2-3%
44
Fracture of the distal radius paired with a dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, dx?
Galeazzi fracture more common in men FOOSH injury
45
Displaced ulnar fracture with radial head dislocation, dx?
Monteggia Fracture
46
Distal radius fracture with dorsal and radial displacement of distal segment, dx?
Colles fracture
47
Fracture of the anterior and posterior arches of C1 after hyperextension injury, dx?
Jefferson fracture
48
What vertebral fracture is commonly associated with duodenal injuries?
Chance fracture
49
Abdominal distention, nausea, and bilious vomiting, delayed presentation after trauma, dx?
Gastric outlet obstruction from expanding duodenal hematoma
50
Most common location for posterior nosebleed
Posterior epistaxis arises most commonly from the posterolateral branches of the sphenopalatine artery but may also arise from the carotid artery
51
Most common location for anterior nosebleed
Kisselbach's plexus
52
Mgmt of nosebleed
Conservative measures should occur first, so patients should blow their nose to remove blood and clots. Spray the patient’s nares with oxymetazoline and hold the alae tightly against the septum. After 10 to 15 minutes, an attempt to identify the source of bleeding should occur with rhinoscopy. If a bleeding source is identified, then cautery can occur. Anterior packing can also be used whether a source is identified or not or if cautery fails. Caution should be used when using cautery, and one should not cauterize the bilateral sides of the septum, as this can lead to necrosis and perforation. Pretreat with a topical anesthetic and topical vasoconstrictor prior to inserting a nasal pack to aid in the cessation of bleeding but also for patient comfort. If bleeding occurs out of the contralateral nare, then packing of the contralateral nare may also be required. The next step if bleeding persists is to place a posterior packing, with hospital admission required in most cases and the packing removed in 48–72 hours.
53
stable avulsion fracture of C6 or C7 and occurs secondary to abrupt flexion of the neck with contraction of the lower neck muscles, dx?
Clay shoveler fx
54
extreme hyperextension and occurs when the posterior spinal processes are fractured and protrude into the spinal canal, dx?
Hangman's fracture/pars interarticularis fx
55
hyperextension of the anterior longitudinal ligament, causing avulsion of the anterior and inferior aspect of the body, or flexion causing a fragment to form from compression of the anterior vertebrae, dx?
Teardrop fx | *unstable*
56
Name three stable cervical spine fractures.
Clay shoveler fracture, unilateral facet dislocation, and a type I odontoid fracture
57
unstable fracture that occurs secondary to a compressive force such as falling on the head or objects from above landing on the head, dx?
Jefferson fx | unstable
58
What artery is at risk of injury with a supracondylar fracture?
Brachial artery
59
Most common injuries in the UEs associated with compartment syndrome
Supracondylar fractures in children and distal radius fractures in adults are the most common injuries associated with compartment syndrome in the upper extremity
60
the cortex on one side of the bone is disrupted while the periosteum remains intact on the opposite side, dx
Greenstick fx | risk for re-fx
61
Which LeFort fracture classification involves the orbital walls, ethmoid bone, and nasal ridge?
LeFort III (craniofacial dissociation)
62
Base Deficits in Hemorrhage - ATLS
Class I 0 to -2 Class II -2 to -6 Class III -6 to -10 Class IV -10 or greater
63
First cause of death after MSK injury worldwide
Tetanus
64
ATLS - In burn mgmt, titrate fluids to
Urine output