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w.RADT 132: Procedures II > trauma > Flashcards

trauma Flashcards

1
Q

how does the ARRT define trauma?

A

a serious injury or shock to the body, often requiring modifications that may include variations in positioning, minimal movement of the body part, and so on…

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2
Q

types of trauma

A

blunt
penetrating
explosive
thermal forces

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3
Q

It is (good/poor) practice to accept lower quality images because of patient condition or difficulty of procedure

A

poor

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4
Q

displacement of a bone that is no longer in contact with its normal articulation

A

dislocation

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5
Q

occurs when a bone is partially pulled or pushed out of place in relation to its normal alignment

A

sublaxation

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6
Q

a wrenching or twisting of a joint resulting in a tearing or rupturing of associated soft tissues without dislocation

A

sprain

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7
Q

a bruise type of injury. Can sometimes be associated with a bony injury

A

contusion

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8
Q

a disruption of bone caused by a force applied either directly to the bone, or transmitted along the shaft of the bone

A

fracture

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9
Q

how the fragmented ends of the bone make contact with each other. There are three terms to describe this relationship; what are they?

A

apposition

anatomic, lock of apposition (distraction), bayonet apposition

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10
Q

type of apposition where the fractured ends of the bone align anatomically making contact with each other

A

anatomic apposition

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11
Q

type of apposition where the ends of the fragmented bone are aligned, but pulled apart with a gap between them

A

lack of apposition (distraction)

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12
Q

type of apposition where the bone fragments are displaced and overlapping each other so that the shafts of the bone are in contact with each other

A

bayonet apposition

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13
Q

__________ describes the loss of alignment of the fracture and the direction of angulation caused by this misalignment. there are three types; what are they?

A

angulation

apex angulation, varus deformity, valgus deformity

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14
Q

The apex of the angulation is __________ in relation to the distal ends of the fractured bone

A

opposite

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15
Q

angulation which describes the angle or direction of the fragment such as a medial or lateral apex in which the point of the angle points medially or laterally

A

apex angulation

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16
Q

angulation which describes when apex is pointing away from the midline of the body and the distal ends of the fractured bone are angled towards the midline of the body

A

varus deformity

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17
Q

angulation which describes when apex is pointing to the midline of the body and the distal ends of the fractured bone are angled away from the midline

A

valgus deformity

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18
Q

fracture in which the bone does not break through the skin

A

simple fracture (closed)

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19
Q

a fracture in which a portion of the bone breaks through the skin. This is typically the fragmented end

A

compound fracture

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20
Q

fracture does not completely transverse the bone. More common in __________ patients who still have more _____________

A

incomplete fracture (partial); pediatric, flexible bone tissue

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21
Q

two types of incomplete/partial fracture

A

torus “buckle,” greenstick

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22
Q

a buckle of the outer portion of the bone (the cortex) with localized expansion of the cortex with little to no displacement or complete break in the cortex

A

torus or “buckle” fracture

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23
Q

this fracture is on one side of the bone only with the cortex of the affected side of the bone broken and the cortex on the other side bent

A

greenstick fracture

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24
Q

the bone is broken into two separate pieces. There is a complete fracture that includes the cross section of the bone

A

complete fracture

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25
Q

three types of complete fractures

A

transverse, oblique, spiral

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26
Q

the fracture is nearly at a right angle to the long axis of the bone

A

transverse fracture

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27
Q

the fracture crosses the long axis of the bone at an oblique angle

A

oblique fracture

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28
Q

the bone has been twisted and the fracture spirals around the long axis of the bone

A

spiral fracture

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29
Q

the bone is splintered and/or crushed at the site of the fracture resulting in two or more pieces

A

comminuted fracture

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30
Q

three types of comminuted fracture

A

segmental, butterfly, splintered

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31
Q

two fracture lines that create three distinct sections of bone with the middle section being fractured at both ends

A

segmented fracture

32
Q

a fracture with two pieces on each side of a main wedge-shaped piece

A

butterfly fracture

33
Q

can be caused by direct trauma in which a fracture is created with thin sharp fragments

A

splintered fracture

34
Q

severe stress to a tendon or ligament which causes it to pull away a section of bone

A

avulsion fracture

35
Q

caused by blunt trauma to the orbit, maxilla, or zygoma which causes fracturing to the orbital floor and lateral orbital margins

A

blowout fracture

36
Q

a compression type injury in which a vertebral body collapses or is compressed

A

compression fracture

37
Q

compression fractures are typically seen radiographically in the _____________ aspect of the vertebral bodies forming a ______________

A

anterior, wedge-like appearance

38
Q

most common in pediatric patients. It’s a fracture at the growth plate of a bone. One of the most common fracture sites in children

A

epiphyseal fracture

39
Q

fracture lines radiate outwards from the focal point of trauma in a “star-like” pattern most commonly seen in the patella

A

stellate fracture

40
Q

ankle joint fracture involving both the medial and lateral malleoli as well as the posterior lip of the distal tibia

A

tri-malleolar fracture

41
Q

a fracture in which one segment is driven into the other such as the shaft of a bone being driven into the distal end of the bone such as a Buckle Fracture

A

impacted fracture

42
Q

fracture of the distal phalanx caused by being struck by a ball. Frequently an avulsion fracture at the base of the distal phalanx is seen with this injury

A

baseball (mallet) fracture

43
Q

usually seen in the distal part of the fifth metacarpal caused by punching. It is best visualized on the lateral image

A

boxer fracture

44
Q

a wrist fracture in which the distal fragment is displaced posteriorly. May be caused by a forward fall

A

colles fracture

45
Q

a wrist fracture in which the distal fragment is displaced anteriorly. May be caused by a backward fall

A

Smith’s fracture

46
Q

a bilateral fracture traversing the pars interarticularis of cervical vertebrae 2 (C2) with an associated traumatic subluxation of C2 on cervical vertebrae 3 (C3)

A

Hangman fracture

47
Q

______________ is the second most common fracture of the C2 vertebrae following a fracture of the ______________

A

Hangman fracture; odontoid process

48
Q

Colles fracture is a wrist fracture in which the distal fragment is displaced ___________; what direction for fall?

A

posteriorly, forward fall

49
Q

Smith’s fracture is a wrist fracture in which the distal fragment is displaced ________; what direction for fall?

A

anteriorly, backward fall

50
Q

intra-articular fracture of the radial styloid process

A

Hutchinson (Chauffer) fracture

51
Q

a fracture to the proximal half of the ulna with an associated radial head dislocation

A

Monteggia (mon-tej-ah) fracture

52
Q

a complete fracture to the distal fibula with accompanying major damage to the joint and associated soft tissues (ligaments etc.) and often seen with fracturing to the medial malleolus and/or distal tibia

A

Pott’s fracture

53
Q

reduction in which the pieces of bone are put back into alignment manually. This is non surgical and is often used in conjunction with x-ray or fluoroscopy

A

closed reduction

54
Q

this type of reduction is a surgical procedure. The fracture may or may not be aligned prior to incision. When the site is exposed, plates, screws, rods, or other hardware is used to keep the fractured pieces in alignment until new bone growth can take place

A

open reduction

55
Q

open reduction surgery is often referred to as __________

A

ORIF (open reduction/internal fixation)

56
Q

what does ORIF stand for?

A

open reduction/internal fixation

57
Q

3 key principles in trauma radiography

A
  1. 2 projections must be attained at 90 degree planes from each other (orthogonal views)
  2. included the entire structure or trauma area on the IR
  3. Maintain patient, public, and healthcare worker(s) safety
58
Q

what are orthogonal views?

A

2 projections must be attained at 90 degree planes from each other

59
Q

Danelius-Miller can be seen in…

A

trauma, during surgery, post surgery

60
Q

SID Danelius-Miller

A

40 inches

61
Q

for a Danelius-Miller, place IR against _______________________; then rotate IR so that it is parallel with the __________

A

patient’s side and 1” above iliac crest; femoral neck

62
Q

how do you place IR parallel to femoral neck in a Danelius-Miller?

A

abduct bottom of IR 15-20 degrees away from body

63
Q

for a Danelius-Miller, ask patient if they can rotate affected leg __________, but do not force

A

15 degrees internally

64
Q

CR centering for Danelius Miller

A

femoral neck

65
Q

inlet view is also called _____________

A

Lilienfeld Method

66
Q

outlet view is called __________

A

Taylor Method

67
Q

trans-thoracic shoulder SID

A

40 inches

68
Q

for trans-thoracic shoulder, raise unaffected arm and place affected shoulder ______________

A

against the IR

69
Q

CR centering for trans-thoracic shoulder

A

surgical neck of affected shoulder

70
Q

respiration for trans-thoracic shoulder

A

Suspend on respiration or use a breathing technique

71
Q

respiration for trans-humerus shoulder

A

Suspend on respiration or use a breathing technique

72
Q

for trans-humerus shoulder, raise unaffected arm and place affected shoulder (against IR/away from IR)

A

against IR

73
Q

CR centering for trans-thoracic humerus

A

Center mid-shaft of the affected to the midline of the IR

74
Q

trauma C spine views

A

cross table lateral, swimmer’s

75
Q

trauma C-Spine SID

A

60-72 inches

76
Q

oblique C-spine method

A

CR 45 degrees to the patient

77
Q

This could be a self defense injury to the arm

A

Monteggia fracture

w.RADT 132: Procedures II (9 decks)

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